Microbiology for Health Sciences
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology with an emphasis on its relevance to the health sciences. Topics include microbial cell structure and function, diversity of microorganisms, microbial genetics, and the role of microorganisms in disease processes. The course also covers host-pathogen interactions, mechanisms of immunity, methods of microbial control, and the epidemiology of infectious diseases. Laboratory exercises provide practical experience in aseptic techniques, culturing, and identification of clinically significant microorganisms. This course is designed to prepare students for further studies in health-related professions by emphasizing the importance of microbiological concepts in clinical and public health settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience Preliminary Edition by John W. Foster
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Q1) The discovery of ________ first stimulated the funding of millions of dollars into medical research.
A) penicillin
B) the structure of DNA
C) DNA sequencing
D) vaccines
Answer: A
Q2) Thiobacillus ferrooxidans is a microorganism that gains its energy from the oxidation of ferrous iron (Fe² )to ferric iron (Fe³ )and hydrogen sulfide (H S)to sulfuric acid (H SO ).Based on this information,T.ferrooxidans is an example of a
A) nitrogen fixer.
B) lithotroph.
C) endosymbiont.
D) biofilm participant.
Answer: B
Q3) In 1884,the Gram stain was devised to distinguish bacteria from ________ cells.
Answer: human
Q4) Why did agar offer an improvement over gelatin for the growth of microorganisms?
Answer: Agar remains more solid at higher temperatures than does gelatin.
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) Describe the difference between an infection and a disease.
Answer: An infection occurs any time a pathogen enters or starts to grow on a host.An infection does not necessarily lead to disease-a disruption of the normal structure or function of any body part,organ,or system that can be recognized by a characteristic set of symptoms and signs.
Q2) An infectious disease that rapidly increases in incidence throughout the world is known as a ________.
Answer: pandemic
Q3) Francisella tularensis is a highly infectious bacterium that can be contracted via multiple routes including inhalation.It causes severe disease but is treatable.Into what risk level does F.tularensis fall?
A) risk group I
B) risk group II
C) risk group III
D) risk group IV
Answer: C
Q4) A fever is often a host response to a pathogen.As such,fever is an example of ________.
Answer: immunopathology
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Q1) Which of the following is powerful enough to visualize ribosomes?
A) a compound light microscope
B) an electron microscope
C) a fluorescence microscope
D) a darkfield microscope
Answer: B
Q2) The purpose of the condenser is to
A) focus light rays onto the slide.
B) magnify the image from the objective lens.
C) decrease the refractive index.
D) improve resolution.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following statements about the Gram stain is most correct?
A) Crystal violet differentially stains Gram-positive cells.
B) Gram's iodine differentially stains Gram-positive cells.
C) Ethanol differentially destains Gram-negative cells.
D) Safranin differentially stains Gram-negative cells.
Answer: C
Q4) Magnification without increase in resolution is called ________.
Answer: empty magnification
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) The most typical way for a cell to increase the rate of a reaction is by
A) increasing the cell's temperature.
B) increasing the cell's pH.
C) decreasing the cell's pH.
D) using an enzyme.
Q2) The bacterial cell wall offers protection against what type of environment?
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hypotonic
D) endergonic
Q3) Fill in the blanks with the pair of words below that make the following sentence correct:
NADH is ________ compared to NAD<sup>+</sup> because NADH has gained
A) oxidized;electrons
B) oxidized;neutrons
C) reduced;electrons
D) reduced;neutrons
Q4) What is a condensation reaction?
Q5) ________ is the general name for a six-carbon sugar.
Q6) What are some structural differences between cellular DNA and RNA?
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) Describe the two types of energy cells used to move molecules across membranes against their concentration gradients.
Q2) Flagella are required for bacterial A) chemotaxis.
B) growth.
C) adherence.
D) buoyancy.
Q3) The cell membrane stores energy by maintaining a separation of A) DNA.
B) proteins.
C) ions.
D) lipids.
Q4) In Gram-negative bacteria the cell membrane separates the A) periplasm from the external environment.
B) cytoplasm from the external environment.
C) cytoplasm from the nucleoid.
D) DNA from the RNA.
Q5) Explain how bacterial cells can divide so rapidly,some in as little as ten minutes between generations.
Page 7
Q6) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Production of urease by Helicobacter pylori allows it to do which of the following?
A) sense when it has entered the intracellular environment of its host
B) survive in basic conditions
C) increase production of ion pumps
D) neutralize stomach pH to survive in acidic conditions
Q2) Which of the following can be most efficiently used to measure bacterial growth in real time?
A) FACS
B) spectrophotometer
C) Petroff-Hauser counting chamber
D) fluorescent microscope
Q3) If you were trying to isolate a pure culture of Staphylococcus aureus from the skin lesion of an infected individual,you would use appropriate sampling techniques and would specifically have to culture the microorganism onto ________.
Q4) A ________ contains only the most basic compounds an organism needs to grow and nothing more.
Q5) Explain how many microorganisms are able to grow at pH levels outside the functional pH range of their enzymes.
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) Oxygenic photosynthesis strips electrons from A) CO .
B) H O.
C) H S.
D) O .
Q2) Photosynthesis helps mitigate global warming by
A) adding O to the atmosphere.
B) removing O from the atmosphere.
C) removing CO from the atmosphere.
D) adding CO to the atmosphere.
Q3) The metabolic pathway used by cyanobacteria and plants to fix carbon dioxide into sugar is known as the ________ cycle.
Q4) Nitrate contamination of water can poison infants.One source of nitrate is A) lithotrophs that use ammonia as an electron donor.
B) anaerobes that use nitrate as a terminal electron acceptor.
C) methanogens that oxidize H .
D) oxygenic photosynthesis.
Q5) If Fe³ is the final electron acceptor at the end of an electron transport system,the waste product is ________.
Page 9
Q6) The ultimate goal of the Calvin cycle is to produce ________.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Q1) An E.coli cell whose DNA contains N¹ is placed in media with dNTPs containing a heavy isotope of nitrogen,N¹ ,which incorporates into newly synthesized DNA.After one cell division,what will the DNA in the daughter cells look like?
A) One cell will have both strands of the helix N14;the other cell will have both strands of the helix N15.
B) One cell will have mostly N14 with a little bit of N15;the other cell will have mostly N15 with a little N14.
C) Each cell will have one strand of N14 and one strand of N15.
D) It is impossible to predict what the DNA in the daughter cells will look like.
Q2) During gel electrophoresis the ________ DNA fragments migrate more quickly and move further down the gel toward the ________ pole.
A) larger;negative
B) larger;positive
C) smaller;negative
D) smaller;positive
Q3) A protein that affects the expression of many different genes is known as a
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) The enzyme ________ is important for generalized recombination.
Q2) Explain how natural selection quickly leads to antibiotic resistance.
Q3) Wolbachia appears to be developing into a(n)________ of its host.
A) mitochondria
B) chloroplast
C) organelle
D) endosymbiont
Q4) Why can antibiotics be used to treat the nematode cause of filarial disease?
A) Antibiotics kill off Wolbachia,which is important for the embryonic development of the worm.
B) Antibiotics always kill off nematodes.
C) Antibiotics stimulate the immune system to more effectively fight off the nematodes.
D) Antibiotics are not used to treat filarial disease.
Q5) Describe how gene duplication leads to paralogs.
Q6) The traits of the hidden microbiota of humans can be predicted by analyzing A) cellular structure.
B) DNA sequences.
C) microscopic appearance.
D) growth patterns.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Your friend,Miguel,discovers a new bacterium and uses this bacterium to develop a popular new cheese with a taste similar to Swiss cheese.He is not willing to share his secret to success,but you suspect the bacteria he is using is a(n)
A) Firmicutes.
B) Actinobacteria.
C) cyanobacteria.
D) spirochete.
Q2) Describe the two developmental stages of the Chlamydias.
Q3) Spirochete cells are unique because they possess A) periplasmic flagella.
B) multiple nuclei.
C) a thick outer sheath of lipopolysaccharides.
D) two distinctive life stages.
Q4) Trachoma,an ancient eye disease,is caused by A) Borrelia burgdorferi.
B) Yersinia pestis.
C) Moraxella catarrhalis.
D) Chlamydia trachomatis.
Q5) Cyanobacteria are the only bacteria that produce ________.
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) Why is it frequently more difficult to treat fungal infections in humans than it is to treat bacterial infections?
A) The cells found in fungi and humans are more similar than cells of bacteria and humans.
B) Humans have not developed medications capable of targeting fungi.
C) Fungi normally grow in and on humans,and treating fungal infections would cause death of the human.
D) Fungi undergo evolution at a much faster rate than bacteria do.
Q2) Lobed amebas and filamentous amebas are differentiated by the form of their ________.
Q3) How is the development of a hookworm larva different from the development of a pinworm larva?
Q4) The group of organisms that includes ciliates,dinoflagellates,and apicomplexans is known as A) fungi. B) amebas. C) trypanosomes. D) alveolates.
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Q5) Branching tufts of filamentous fungal hyphae form structures known as ________.
Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following viruses is capable of causing a syncytium?
A) hepatitis
B) influenza
C) HPV
D) HIV
Q2) A small subset of the human population does not express the CD4 and CCR5 receptors.To what virus are these individuals naturally immune?
A) HIV
B) HPV
C) influenza
D) hepatitis
Q3) Which of the following stages of the influenza infection cycle is inhibited by Tamiflu?
A) the coating of the capsid envelope
B) the assembly of the capsid
C) the cleaving of the host receptor and release of the virus by budding
D) the packaging of viral genome segments and exit from the nucleus
Q4) ________ proteins are expressed during viral infection of a host cell and are packaged between the envelope and the capsid during envelope formation.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of biofilms that makes it resistant to disinfectants?
A) presence of an extracellular matrix
B) stress-induced physiology of surface cells
C) stress-induced physiology of cells deep in the biofilm
D) metabolic collaboration between multiple species
Q2) Standard conditions for sterilization by ________ are 121°C and 15 psi for 20 minutes.
A) autoclaving
B) pasteurization
C) tyndallization
D) lyophilization
Q3) Because it is an essential component for every individual,if enough vitamin C is not found in the diet,supplements may be required.Vitamin C is sensitive to heat.So that it can be safe for human consumption,how can vitamin C be sterilized before being packaged into supplements?
A) autoclave
B) pasteurization
C) filtration
D) lyophilization
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a useful function of the gut microflora?
A) fermenting unused energy substrates
B) training the immune system
C) supporting the growth of pathogenic bacteria
D) regulating the development of the gut
Q2) Which of the following would NOT be a good organism choice for a vaccine delivery system?
A) Streptococcus salivarius
B) Lactobacillus acidophilus
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) Give three reasons for why the microbiome should be considered an independent organ system.
Q4) Which microbial reservoir has the largest anaerobe to aerobe ratio?
A) intestine
B) genitourinary tract
C) mouth
D) skin
Page 16
Q5) Probiotics have been used in baby chicks to prevent colonization by ________.
Q6) Give an example of how our cells communicate with the microbiome.
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Page 17
Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Vasodilation promoted by the release of vasoactive factors from macrophages leads to which of the following?
A) stimulation of local nerve endings,causing pain
B) decrease of fluid accumulation at the site
C) loss of heat to the affected area
D) decrease of blood flow to the affected area
Q2) Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) phagocytosis.
B) inflammation.
C) activation of complement.
D) production of antibody.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a white blood cell (WBC)?
A) mast cell
B) macrophage
C) monocyte
D) erythrocyte
Q4) Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.
Q5) Cytokines that have chemotactic properties are called ________.
Q7) Substances that cause fever are known as ________. Page 18
Q6) Toll-like receptors recognize ________ on pathogenic microorganisms.
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Page 19
Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Bloodwork indicates that a patient who has pneumonia is actively secreting different forms of antibody against Streptococcus pneumoniae.Explain how the patient is able to respond to this pathogen by secreting more than one antibody.
Q2) Cytotoxic T cells display the surface antigen ________.
Q3) How are memory B cells able to persist for many years?
A) Memory B cells are continuously stimulated by cytokines released from helper T cells. B) Memory B cells undergo hypermutation,which allows them to survive indefinitely.
C) Memory B cells use gene rearrangement to prevent apoptosis from occurring.
D) Memory B cells with receptors that match with antigen produce anti-apoptosis protein.
Q4) Explain how humans are able to produce millions of different antibodies when there are only about 1,000 genes or gene segments involved in antibody formation.
Q5) Helper T cells display the surface antigen ________.
Q6) Why is it important for T cells to weakly recognize self MHC proteins while strong recognition is problematic?
Q7) Describe the process of affinity maturation.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) CASE HISTORY
Richard,who is blood group B,was undergoing surgery after a car accident and accidentally received a transfusion with type A blood.Within hours,Richard experienced chills and lowered blood pressure.His urine turned red with blood.All these symptoms indicate an ABO blood group incompatibility. Is there an identifiable allergen present in this case study? How can you tell?
Q2) Epinephrine is used to reverse anaphylaxis.This is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT
A) stimulating adenylate cyclase activity.
B) decreasing cAMP levels.
C) relaxing smooth muscle.
D) preventing degranulation of the mast cell.
Q3) Leukemia refers to
A) a malignant lymphoid cell found in circulation or bone marrow.
B) a solid mass in a lymphoid organ.
C) growth of a plasma cell.
D) cancerous plasma cells that appear at multiple sites.
Q4) Draw and label the key mediators of a type 1 hypersensitivity.Be sure to indicate where medical intervention can take place.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) The purpose of the Tat protein in an HIV infection is to A) down regulate CD4 and MHC class 1 expression.
B) inhibit virus assembly.
C) accelerate HIV transcription by the host cell.
D) protect the cell from being killed by CD8 cytotoxic cells.
Q2) Organisms that can survive inside or outside host cells are called ________ pathogens.
Q3) Damage from protozoan infections is due mainly to the A) toxins that are released.
B) ability of the organism to persist within host tissue.
C) ability of the organism to turn on the host immune system.
D) cell wall components of the pathogen.
Q4) All of the following are targets for bacterial toxins EXCEPT A) signal transduction.
B) host membranes.
C) DNA synthesis.
D) protein synthesis.
Q5) Explain the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift.How might antigenic shift relate to the generation of a new flu pandemic?
Page 22
Q6) Most pathogenicity island genes were acquired by ________ transmission.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched?
A) Haemophilus influenzae-pinkeye
B) Pseudomonas-conjunctivitis
C) Chlamydia gonorrhoeae-trachoma
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae-respiratory infection
Q2) Which of the follow is NOT caused by HSV-1?
A) cold sores
B) canker sores
C) herpes whitlow
D) herpes encephalitis
Q3) Inflammation of the thin clear membrane lining the eyelid and eye is properly termed
A) keratitis.
B) trachoma.
C) conjunctivitis.
D) opthalmia neonatorum.
Q4) Necrotizing fasciitis is often caused by ________.
Q5) Compare and contrast the virulence factors associated with Staphylococcus and Streptococcus.Which of these agents is the most difficult to treat? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Viruses that cause the common cold may also spread to the sinuses to cause
Q2) Due to the location of infection,bacterial sinusitis may lead to complications,including A) meningitis.
B) pneumonia.
C) bronchitis.
D) epiglottitis.
Q3) Acute otitis media is infection within the A) sinuses.
B) outer ear.
C) middle ear.
D) inner ear.
Q4) The eyes are connected to the upper respiratory tract by the A) pharynx.
B) Eustachian tube.
C) lacrimal ducts.
D) sinuses.
Q5) The two bacterial diseases of the respiratory system that are prevented by the DTaP vaccine are ________.
24
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) Bacterial endocarditis that has a slow onset and presents with vague symptoms such as fatigue,intermittent fevers,and headaches is called ________.
Q2) The herpes virus that initially infects the oropharyngeal epithelium,tonsils,and salivary glands,and is associated with endemic Burkitt's lymphoma,is known as
Q3) Which of the following pairs of diseases are transmitted by mosquitoes?
A) malaria and toxoplasmosis
B) babesiosis and Chagas' disease
C) leishmaniasis and schistosomiasis
D) lymphatic filariasis and malaria
Q4) When Yersinia pestis remains untreated in a human body,it can enter the bloodstream and ultimately invade the A) liver.
B) kidneys.
C) spleen.
D) lungs.
Q5) Drugs used to treat the major systemic bacterial diseases fall into the category of ________.
Q6) The asexual cycle of plasmodium within humans occurs within the ________ system.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Within three hours of attending the church carnival,Maya and her family are all vomiting uncontrollably.What organism have they likely ingested?
A) no organism-most likely a toxin from Staphylococcus aureus
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Salmonella typhimurium
D) Campylobacter jejuni
Q2) When does breakdown of food begin?
A) in the esophagus
B) when saliva is secreted by the salivary glands
C) in the gastric acids of the stomach
D) in the large intestine
Q3) Even with healthy liver function,the majority of individuals infected with ________ develop a chronic infection.
A) rotavirus
B) hepatitis A
C) hepatitis B
D) hepatitis C
Q4) The most common sign of a gastrointestinal infection is ________,having three or more loose stools per day.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered a clinical progression of an HIV infection?
A) increase in immune function
B) seroconversion
C) latency
D) AIDS
Q2) All of the following are ways that HIV can be transmitted from person to person EXCEPT
A) mother to fetus.
B) sexual contact.
C) kissing.
D) blood transfusion.
Q3) Someone is said to have a primary HSV infection when the A) patient does not have detectable antibodies but a positive PCR test.
B) infection settles into the nerve root.
C) latent virus is reactivated.
D) virus is activated by stress or UV exposure.
Q4) Primary syphilis is an inflammatory reaction at the site of infection called a
Q5) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) All of the following are caused by prions EXCEPT
A) sheep scrapie.
B) kuru.
C) rabies.
D) bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
Q2) Naegleria fowleri is commonly acquired through A) mosquito bites.
B) ingestion of water contaminated with fecal material.
C) exposure to bird droppings.
D) swimming in warm ponds or streams.
Q3) A 50-year-old man was hospitalized with dizziness,blurred vision,slurred speech,difficulty swallowing,and nausea.Examination revealed facial paralysis.He reported eating home-canned green beans 24 hours before the onset of his symptoms.The patient should be treated with A) antibiotics.
B) vaccination.
C) toxins.
D) supportive care including respiratory assistance.
Q4) List and describe the defensive mechanisms that are in place to protect the central nervous system.
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Lumbar puncture is the most common method for obtaining a sample of A) blood.
B) cerebrospinal fluid.
C) synovial fluid.
D) peritoneal fluid.
Q2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best identified by using a staining technique called a(n)________ stain.
Q3) Which of the following is considered to be a sterile body site?
A) cerebrospinal fluid
B) nasopharynx
C) urethra
D) large intestine
Q4) Which of the following would typically be the initial indicator of bacteria growing within a blood culture tube?
A) An automated incubator will detect fluorescence.
B) Bacterial colonies will appear on blood agar.
C) Bacterial colonies will appear on MacConkey agar.
D) Centrifugation will cause sediment to appear at the end of the tube.
Q5) Body sites that contain no microorganisms are considered to be ________.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Charlotte touches a doorknob after an individual with MRSA touched the doorknob.Immediately after touching the knob,Charlotte scratches her leg and transmits some MRSA cells into a small wound.The doorknob is functioning as a(n)
A) etiologic agent.
B) reservoir.
C) mode of transmission.
D) host.
Q2) What features would allow a virus to be used effectively as a bioweapon?
A) a high infectious dose
B) transmission via an insect vector
C) person-to-person transmission
D) quick pathogen detection systems
Q3) Amplifying 16S ribosomal RNA from biopsy tissues would be useful in identifying the presence of a A) bacterium.
B) specific virus.
C) multicellular parasite.
D) unicellular parasite.
Q4) A disease transmitted from animals to humans is called a _______ disease.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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Q1) What is the function of aeration basins at wastewater treatment facilities?
A) Aeration encourages fermentation.
B) Aeration maximizes microbial breakdown of pollutants to carbon dioxide and nitrates.
C) Aeration limits free-floating populations of bacteria.
D) Aeration allows filamentous methanogens to metabolize acetate within the interior of flocs.
Q2) Bacteriocins are molecules that are produced by
A) some bacteria and prevent pathogens from adhering to the gut lining.
B) methanogens and cause flatulence in cows.
C) digestive microbes in termites and allow digestion of cellulose.
D) viruses and increase the virulence of zoonotic diseases.
Q3) Bacteria and archaea are the only organisms capable of converting the element ________ between its oxidation states.
Q4) Curds from milk fermentation are particularly valuable because they
A) are a source of concentrated protein.
B) contain more vitamins than milk.
C) contain acetic acid that can be used to preserve other foods.
D) have an indefinite shelf life and do not require refrigeration.
Q5) What are the three factors that control the ways in which food spoils?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31