Microbiology for Health Sciences
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
This course introduces the fundamental concepts of microbiology with an emphasis on their application to the health sciences. Students explore the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa alongside discussions of disease causation, transmission, prevention, and treatment. The curriculum highlights the interaction between pathogens and the human immune system, principles of infection control, antimicrobial resistance, and the role of microbes in public health. Designed for those entering healthcare professions, the course combines theoretical knowledge with practical laboratory skills essential for understanding and addressing microbial threats in clinical and community settings.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition by Gerard
J. Tortora
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1820 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World and You
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is A)microbe.
B)bacterium.
C)virus.
D)pathogen.
E)infection.
Answer: D
Q2) In the name Staphylococcus aureus,aureus is the A)genus.
B)domain name.
C)species.
D)kingdom.
E)family name.
Answer: C
Q3) Biogenesis refers to the A)spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter.
B)development of life forms from preexisting life forms.
C)development of aseptic technique.
D)germ theory of disease.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Chemical Principles
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Q1) Which of the following is the type of bond between molecules of water in a beaker of water?
A)ionic bond
B)covalent bond
C)hydrogen bond
Answer: C
Q2) What is the main/most important factor that differentiates methanol,ethanol,and isopropanol from each other?
A)the specific location of the hydroxyl functional group
B)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule
C)the number of hydrogen atoms in each molecule
D)the location of the carboxyl functional group
E)the number of hydroxyl functional groups present
Answer: B
Q3) Which type of molecule NEVER contains a phosphate group?
A)triglycerides
B)phospholipid
C)nucleic acid
D)ATP
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
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Q1) Both phase-contrast microscopy and differential interference contrast microscopy are used to view the internal structures of cells without staining.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which microscope is most useful for visualizing a biofilm?
A)compound light microscope
B)phase-contrast microscope
C)fluorescence microscope
D)scanning acoustic microscope
E)transmission electron microscope
Answer: D
Q3) The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to
A)remove the simple stain.
B)make the bacterial cells larger.
C)make the flagella visible.
D)prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.
E)make gram-negative cells visible.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
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Q1) Cells may frequently find themselves in an environment with very low extracellular concentrations of substances needed in higher amounts inside the cell.To obtain these needed items,such cells would be most likely to engage in
A)simple diffusion.
B)facilitated diffusion.
C)active transport.
D)osmosis.
Q2) The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion
A)moves materials from a higher to a lower concentration.
B)moves materials from a lower to a higher concentration.
C)requires ATP.
D)requires transporter proteins.
E)does not require ATP.
Q3) What is a biofilm and what role does biofilm play in disease?
Q4) Compare and contrast gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls with regard to (a)sensitivity to antimicrobial agents,(b)resistance to phagocytosis,(c)chemical composition,and (d)decolorization by alcohol.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fatty acids are oxidized in
A)the Krebs cycle.
B)the electron transport chain.
C)glycolysis.
D)the pentose phosphate pathway.
E)the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.
Q2) The graph at the left in Figure 5.7 shows the reaction rate for an enzyme at its optimum temperature.Which graph shows enzyme activity at a higher temperature?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
Q3) The rates of O and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in Figure 5.6.Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O .Then O was added at the time marked X.The data indicate that
A)these bacteria don't use O .
B)these bacteria get more energy anaerobically.
C)aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation.
D)these bacteria cannot grow anaerobically.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) In measuring turbidity of a culture in indirect measurement of bacterial growth,absorbance and transmittance are identical and interchangeable values.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth?
A)standard plate count
B)glucose consumption
C)direct microscopic count
D)turbidity
E)most probable number (MPN)
Q3) In Figure 6.1,which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated aerobically?
A)a
B)b
C)c
Q4) Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A kitchen countertop has a spill of vegetable oil that was wiped up but a film remains.What should be the next step in disinfecting this surface?
A)10% bleach
B)spray a disinfectant that contains a heavy metal
C)warm soapy scrub
D)isopropanol
E)chlorhexidine containing solution
Q2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)ionizing radiation - hydroxyl radicals
B)ozone - takes electrons from substances
C)plasma sterilization - free radicals
D)supercritical fluids - CO
E)ultraviolet radiation - desiccation
Q3) In Figure 7.1,the thermal death point for this culture is
A)15 minutes.
B)50°C.
C)30 minutes.
D)170°C.
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
Q4) What are the advantages of gluteraldehyde compared to formaldehyde?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If generalized transduction is underway,packaging a piece of DNA from an infected bacterial cell into a bacteriophage protein coat,what is the likely outcome?
A)Lysis of a newly-infected cell as the transducing bacteriophage infects it and multiplies.
B)The virus particle formed in the transduction process isn't able to correctly infect a new bacterial cell.
C)A second bacterial cell infected by that transducing bacteriophage will acquire new DNA,carried by the phage from the original infected cell.
D)The infected bacterial cell will recover and survive,as the packaging of non-bacteriophage DNA into the protein coat produces nonfunctional virus particles.
Q2) An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is
A)RNA polymerase.
B)DNA ligase.
C)DNA helicase.
D)transposase.
E)DNA polymerase.
Q3) What is the survival value of the semiconservative replication of DNA?
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Dna Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA?
A)reverse transcription
B)RNA processing to remove introns
C)transcription
D)translation
Q2) A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms,such as bacterial,fungal,and plant cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an advantage of using E.coli to make a human gene product?
A)Endotoxin may be in the product.
B)It does not secrete most proteins.
C)Its genes are well known.
D)It cannot process introns.
E)Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins.
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Chapter 10: Classification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes,Enterobacter is the A)specific epithet.
B)genus.
C)family.
D)order.
E)kingdom.
Q2) When building a cladogram,the length of the horizontal branch is based on the calculated percent similarity between organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ are a diverse group of eukaryotic organisms that are similar in rRNA sequences,but quite different from each other in motility types and ecology.They have been used previously as a "catch-all" for organisms that couldn't be easily classified into other groups.
A)Protists
B)Fungi
C)Plants
D)Methanogens
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Chapter 11: The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can usually be differentiated by microscope examination because of
A)cell shape.
B)Gram stain reaction.
C)cell arrangement.
D)endospore formation.
E)acid-fast reaction.
Q2) Myxobacteria are classified as actinobacteria due to fungal-like lifestyle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following bacteria are responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections?
A)Streptococcus
B)Staphylococcus
C)Salmonella
D)Pseudomonas
E)Neisseria
Q4) Bacteroides and Escherichia are both gram-negative rods found in the large intestine.Why are they in different phyla?
Page 13
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Chapter
Helminths
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do tapeworms eat?
A)intestinal bacteria
B)host tissues
C)red blood cells
D)intestinal contents
E)plant matter
Q2) Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they
A)are motile.
B)lack mitochondria.
C)lack nuclei.
D)do not produce cysts.
E)do produce cysts.
Q3) The insect vectors have six legs and include spiders,ticks,mosquitoes,and lice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sporozoite,merozoite,gametocyte,and ring stages are all part of the Plasmodium life cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contrast the economic benefits and the harmful effects of fungi.
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Chapter 13: Viruses,viroids,and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the lytic cycle of infection of a DNA virus and an RNA virus.
Q2) Generally,in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus,the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT
A)RNA polymerase.
B)nucleotides.
C)DNA polymerase.
D)tRNA.
E)None of the answers are correct;all of these are supplied by the host animal cell.
Q3) Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?
A)They are composed of carbohydrate-protein complexes.
B)They are used for attachment.
C)They may cause hemagglutination.
D)They bind to receptors on the host cell surface.
E)They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
Q4) Explain the steps involved in bacteriophage DNA entering a bacterial cell.
Q5) Bacteriophages are used as vectors in genetic engineering to insert new genes into bacteria.Describe the process that makes this genetic recombination possible.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
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Q1) In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor?
A)urinary tract infections
B)pneumonia
C)salmonellosis
D)tetanus
E)anthrax
Q2) The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
A)ecology.
B)epidemiology.
C)communicable disease.
D)morbidity and mortality.
E)public health.
Q3) In Figure 14.2,when is the prevalence the highest?
A)July
B)January
C)February
D)March
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best description of direct damage by a pathogen is
A)host cells destroyed when pathogens metabolize and multiply.
B)capsule components of pathogens kill cells.
C)poisonous substances secreted by viruses kill cells.
D)superantigens cause cytokine release which then cause symptoms of disease.
E)protein synthesis is interrupted by toxins.
Q2) Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by
A)the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test.
B)counting the viable bacteria.
C)filtering out the cells.
D)looking for turbidity.
E)culturing bacteria.
Q3) Which of the following mechanisms is used by gram-negative bacteria to cross the blood-brain barrier?
A)producing fimbriae
B)inducing endocytosis
C)producing toxins
D)inducing TNF
E)antigenic variation
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Chapter 16: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chill is a sign that
A)body temperature is falling.
B)body temperature is rising.
C)body temperature is not changing.
D)the metabolic rate is decreasing.
E)blood vessels are dilating.
Q2) A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg.The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding.Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?
A)mucociliary escalator
B)normal skin flora
C)phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
D)acidic skin secretions
E)lysozyme
Q3) Microorganisms that are members of the normal microbiota are also known to cause disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe and differentiate between the three pathways of activating complement.
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Chapter 17: Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) An antibody's Fc region can be bound by A)antibodies.
B)macrophages.
C)T helper cells.
D)B cells.
E)CTLs.
Q2) Cytokines are protein-based chemical messengers that allow for communication between cells of the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells?
A)CTL
B)T g
C)TH
D)dendritic cells
E)B cells
Q4) The implementation of vaccinations occurred prior to experimental support for the germ theory of disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Practical Applications of Immunology
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Q1) An injection of "naked" DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In your work in a county public health clinic,you encounter parents of a three-month-old who are considering not vaccinating their child.What concerns might the parents raise regarding vaccine safety? As a microbiology student and public health care worker,what do you say to these parents regarding the risks of not vaccinating their child?
Q3) If the table continued on to another week of testing,what is the one outcome below that you might NOT expect to see for Patient B at Day 28?
A)a drop to zero antibody titer
B)antibody titer continuing to rise
C)antibody titer leveling off
D)antibody titer starting to decrease slightly
Q4) In a vaccine preparation,the term "attenuated" means that the agent does NOT replicate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Disorders Associated With the Immune System
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Q1) Allergic contact dermatitis is due to
A)sensitized T cells.
B)IgG antibodies.
C)IgE antibodies.
D)IgM antibodies.
E)activated macrophages.
Q2) In the serological method for tissue typing,if human cells expressing HLA-I are mixed with anti-HLA-I,complement,and trypan blue,what would indicate the cells are HLA-I?
A)Enzyme is released from neutrophils.
B)Cells are damaged by complement.
C)Trypan blue enters the cells.
D)Anti-HLA antibodies bind to HLAs on lymphocytes.
E)None of the answers are correct;the T cells are missing.
Q3) Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause
A)immunologic enhancement.
B)immunologic surveillance.
C)immunotherapy.
D)immunosuppression.
E)autoimmunity.
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because A)their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.
B)they replicate inside human cells.
C)they do not have ribosomes.
D)they do not reproduce.
E)they have more genes than bacteria.
Q2) Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A)viruses.
B)bacteria.
C)fungi.
D)protozoa.
Q3) In Table 20.2,the antibiotic that exhibited bactericidal action was A)A.
B)B.
C)C.
D)D.
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q4) An official from an international health agency predicts that if all countries enacted legislation to only sell antibiotics with a prescription,then the rate of antibiotic resistant would "grind to a halt." Do you agree? Explain.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A possible complication of chickenpox is A)encephalitis.
B)fever blisters.
C)subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
D)congenital rubella syndrome.
E)macular rash.
Q2) All of the following are normal microbiota of the skin EXCEPT A)Streptococcus.
B)Micrococcus.
C)Staphylococcus.
D)Propionibacterium.
E)Corynebacterium.
Q3) Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT A)pimples.
B)sties.
C)boils.
D)carbuncles.
E)acne.
Q4) Describe the protective characteristics of the skin and mucus membranes and the ways pathogens may circumvent these to cause infections.
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is treated with antibiotics?
A)botulism
B)tetanus
C)streptococcal pneumonia
D)polio
E)All of these diseases can be successfully treated with antibiotics.
Q2) Vaccination is available for all the following EXCEPT
A)Haemophilus meningitis.
B)Neisseria meningitis.
C)tetanus.
D)rabies.
E)botulism.
Q3) Which disease listed below,results in symptoms of a drooping eyelid or mouth on one side of the face,and is caused when a facial muscle nerve becomes inflamed?
A)St.Louis encephalitis
B)Eastern equine encephalitis
C)Bell's palsy
D)chronic fatigue syndrome
E)bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Q4) Explain the transmission and etiology of meningococcal meningitis.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium?
A)epidemic typhus
B)tickborne typhus
C)malaria
D)plague
E)relapsing fever
Q2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)malaria - Anopheles (mosquito)
B)dengue - Aedes (mosquito)
C)epidemic typhus - Pediculus (louse)
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever - Dermacentor (tick)
E)encephalitis - Ixodes (tick)
Q3) Which of the following is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme,Connecticut,was due to bacterial infection?
A)treatable with penicillin
B)not contagious
C)accompanied by a rash
D)affected mostly children
E)transmitted by ticks
25
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which one of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its reservoir?
A)tuberculosis - cattle
B)histoplasmosis - soil
C)psittacosis - parakeets
D)coccidioidomycosis - air
E)pneumocystis - humans
Q2) Using diphtheria and whooping cough as examples,discuss why it is necessary to continue to vaccinate against diseases that are relatively rare in the U.S.today.
Q3) Which one of the following is responsible for epidemics of respiratory disease in infants?
A)rhinovirus
B)adenovirus
C)respiratory syncytial virus
D)influenza
E)Mycoplasma
Q4) A positive tuberculosis skin test indicates that the patient has active tuberculosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) Discuss why cholera epidemics are often associated with floods.
Q2) Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries?
A)sucrose
B)lysozyme
C)lactic acid
D)crevicular fluid
E)dentin
Q3) Which of the following is mismatched?
A)Echinococcus granulosus - most benign of human tapeworm infections
B)Taenia solium - cysticerosis
C)trichinellosis - humans eat larva of parasite in undercooked meat
D)pinworm infestation - humans ingest parasite's eggs
E)hookworm infestation - heavy infections may cause pica
Q4) The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is
A)Shigella spp.
B)Salmonella enterica.
C)Giardia lamblia.
D)Escherichia coli.
E)Campylobacter jejuni.
Q5) Compare the modes of transmission for hepatitis A,B,and C.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash,hair loss,malaise,and fever?
A)gonorrhea
B)syphilis
C)NGU
D)trichomoniasis
E)genital herpes
Q2) Which one of the following recurs at the initial site of infection?
A)gonorrhea
B)syphilis
C)genital herpes
D)chancroid
E)LGV
Q3) A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora.Her VDRL test was negative.What is the most likely treatment?
A)metronidazole
B)cephalosporins
C)acyclovir
D)miconazole
E)No treatment is available.
Q4) Why are the unreported cases of STIs an important public health concern?
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Chapter 27: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) 6H S + 6CO \(\stackrel { l i g h t } { \longrightarrow }\) 6S + glucose
A)takes place under aerobic conditions.
B)takes place under anaerobic conditions.
C)The amount of oxygen does not make any difference.
Q2) Which of the following terms describes step III in Figure 27.1?
A)ammonification
B)denitrification
C)nitrification
D)nitrogen fixation
E)assimilation
Q3) Which of the following is an assimilation process?
A)Thiobacillus: H S S
B)Desulfovibrio: SO ² H S
C)Proteus: Sulfhydryl-containing amino acids H S
D)Redwood tree: SO ² Sulfhydryl groups of amino acids
E)Photosynthetic bacteria: H S S
Q4) In small communities lacking municipal sewage systems,sewage is treated in septic systems or oxidation ponds.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Explain how ionizing radiation can be used to preserve foods.Discuss its advantage over canning as a method of preservation.
Q2) You are growing Bacillus subtilis,an aerobic bacterium that can also carry out fermentation,when required,in a bioreactor and notice that the growth rate has slowed and the pH has decreased.You suspect the bacteria are A)using the Krebs cycle.
B)fermenting.
C)photosynthesizing.
D)using proteins.
E)dead.
Q3) All of the following foods are produced using microbial fermentations EXCEPT A)sauerkraut.
B)ketchup.
C)sour cream.
D)yogurt.
E)coffee.
Q4) The blue-green clumps observed in Roquefort cheese are a result of mold growth.
A)True
B)False
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