Microbiology for Health Sciences Mock Exam - 1136 Verified Questions

Microbiology for Health Sciences

Mock Exam

Course Introduction

Microbiology for Health Sciences offers an introduction to fundamental concepts in microbiology with a focus on their application in healthcare settings. The course covers the structure, function, classification, and genetics of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. Students explore the roles of microbes in health and disease, mechanisms of pathogenicity, antimicrobial agents, and the immune response. Emphasis is placed on infection control, diagnostic laboratory techniques, and the prevention and treatment of infectious diseases, making this course especially relevant for students pursuing careers in nursing, allied health, or public health.

Recommended Textbook

Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition by Patricia Tille

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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which binomial name is correctly written?

A) Staphylococcus Aureus

B) staphylococcus aureus

C) Staphylococcus aureus

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

Answer: C

Q2) An organism is serologically identified in the clinical laboratory.This is an example of which phenotypic property?

A) Subcellular properties

B) Antigenic properties

C) Resistant profiles

D) Nucleic acid sequence analysis

Answer: B

Q3) Which binomial name is correctly written?

A) Escherichia coli

B) Escherichia coli.

C) Escherichia coli..

D) Escherichia Coli..

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure

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Q1) Which of the following processes takes place in the cytoplasm and involves the transfer RNA (tRNA)mediating the sequential addition of amino acids in a specific sequence that is dictated by the codon sequence of the messenger RNA (mRNA)molecule?

A) Transcription

B) Initiation

C) Elongation

D) Termination

Answer: C

Q2) Amino acids, fatty acids, sugars, and nucleotides are produced during which metabolic reaction?

A) Fueling

B) Biosynthesis

C) Polymerization

D) Assembly

Answer: B

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4

Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions

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Q1) Which one of the following statements is true regarding endotoxins?

A) They are produced and released by living bacteria.

B) They are associated with gram-positive bacteria.

C) They interrupt protein synthesis.

D) They are released upon cell death.

Answer: D

Q2) A bacterium that normally colonizes the skin gains access through a laceration and causes infection.This type of infection is classified as:

A) nosocomial.

B) opportunistic.

C) nonpathogenic.

D) immunogenic.

Answer: B

Q3) Which stage of infection is characterized by host deterioration and possibly death?

A) Prodromal

B) Clinical

C) Decline

D) Convalescent

Answer: C

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety

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Sample Questions

Q1) Biosafety Level 1 agents:

A) include those that are the common agents of an infectious disease.

B) require only standard good laboratory techniques.

C) include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M. gordonae, and Brucella.

D) require the use of maximum containment facilities.

Q2) To be sterilized in an autoclave, media or instruments should be:

A) packed tightly to avoid dangerous pressure pockets.

B) processed for 15 minutes at 121° C and 15 psi pressure.

C) processed for 30 to 60 minutes at 132° C and 15 psi pressure.

D) processed for at least 1 hour at 121° C and 15 psi pressure.

Q3) The autoclave sterilizes material by:

A) applying dry heat at high temperatures and pressure.

B) infusing gaseous chemicals that kill organisms.

C) applying moist heat at high temperatures and increased pressure.

D) cleaving protein bonds found in most biological agent cell walls.

Q4) Biosafety Level 4 agents:

A) include those that are the common agents of infectious disease.

B) require only standard good laboratory technique.

C) include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M. gordonae, and Brucella.

D) require the use of maximum containment facilities.

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Chapter 5: Specimen Management

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Q1) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of one group of organisms, but not another, by containing antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol?

A) Selective

B) Nutritive

C) Differential

D) Definitive

Q2) Holding media, such as Stuart's medium and Amie's transport medium, are used to:

A) maintain the viability of microorganisms present in a specimen.

B) support the growth and multiplication of any pathogenic organisms that are present.

C) prevent clotting of specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid.

D) allow pathogenic organisms to grow while nonpathogenic organisms die.

Q3) Which specimen is quantitatively plated by using a calibrated loop?

A) Stool

B) Sputum

C) Joint fluid

D) Urine

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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy

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Q1) In the Kinyoun acid-fast staining method, ______ replaces _____ in the primary stain solution.

A) increased phenol; heat

B) heat; increased phenol

C) mycolic acid; heat

D) carbolfuchsin; phenol

Q2) An organism such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis would absorb which stain in its cell wall?

A) Crystal violet

B) Methylene blue

C) Carbolfuchsin

D) Malachite green

Q3) A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to bond chemically the alkaline dye to the bacterial cell wall is:

A) safranin.

B) crystal violet.

C) Gram's iodine.

D) Gram's decolorizer.

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8

Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification

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Q1) Which category of media can be described as containing nutrients that support the growth of the most nonfastidious organisms without giving any particular organism a growth advantage?

A) Enrichment

B) Supportive

C) Selective

D) Differential

Q2) To read the hemolytic reaction accurately on a blood agar plate, the technologist must:

A) hold the plate up to the light, and observe the plate with the light coming from behind.

B) hold the plate under the light, and observe the plate with the light coming from the top.

C) hold the plate over a white background.

D) examine the plate using reflected and transmitted light.

Q3) In which category of media would Löwenstein-Jensen medium best fit?

A) Selective

B) Differential

C) Selective and differential

D) Supportive only

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for

Microbial Identification and Characterization

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Q1) The enzyme that has the ability to synthesize DNA from ribonucleic acid (RNA)is called:

A) DNA polymerase.

B) RNAse.

C) helicase.

D) reverse transcriptase.

Q2) The target in the hybridization assay can be described as:

A) originating from the unknown organism to be detected or identified.

B) a reporter molecule that chemically forms a complex with the single-stranded probe DNA.

C) originating from an organism of known identity.

D) an enzyme that adds nucleotides during the replication process.

Q3) Which enzyme recognizes a specific nucleotide sequence (~4-8 nucleotides in length)and catalyzes the digestion of the nucleic acid at that site, causing a break in the DNA strand?

A) Ligase

B) Gyrase

C) Helicase

D) Endonuclease

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism

Detection

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Sample Questions

Q1) Polyclonal antibodies are those that:

A) react with many different types of antigens.

B) react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.

C) react with many different antigens of one specific organism.

D) can be produced from many different species of host organisms.

Q2) Monoclonal antibodies are those that:

A) react with many different types of antigens.

B) react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.

C) are produced by the offspring of a single hybrid cell.

D) can be produced from many different species of host organisms.

Q3) A test procedure that applies a specific fluorescent dye-antibody complex to a slide to which the patient specimen has been applied is referred to as a(n):

A) solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.

B) direct fluorescent antibody test.

C) indirect fluorescent antibody test.

D) radioimmunoassay.

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Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) A method that uses an electrical current to speed up the migration of an antigen and antibody is referred to as:

A) double immunodiffusion.

B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.

C) particle agglutination.

D) enzyme immunoassay.

Q2) Antibody-mediated immune responses produced by specific proteins are generated by:

A) lymphocytes of the T class.

B) lymphocytes of the B class.

C) neutrophils.

D) basophils.

Q3) The study of the diagnosis of disease by measuring antibody levels in serum is called:

A) immunology.

B) immunohematology.

C) serology.

D) immunocytology.

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12

Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Antibiotic resistance resulting from altered cellular physiologic structure caused by changes in a microorganism's usual genetic makeup is known as __________ resistance.

A) intrinsic

B) inherent

C) acquired

D) environmentally mediated

Q2) Antimicrobial resistance resulting from the normal genetic, structural, or physiologic state of a microorganism is referred to as ________ resistance.

A) intrinsic

B) inherent

C) microorganism-mediated

D) clinical

Q3) Mycoplasmas are organisms without cell walls.Which antimicrobial agents would be ineffective in treating infections involving this bacterium?

A) Tetracycline

B) Aminoglycosides

C) Penicillin

D) Rifampin

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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

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Q1) Growth on the oxacillin agar screen means that a patient should be treated with which antibiotic?

A) Oxacillin

B) Methicillin

C) Vancomycin

D) Cephalosporin

Q2) Enterococcal high-level gentamicin resistance predicts resistance to:

A) vancomycin.

B) aminoglycoside.

C) cephalosporin.

D) amikacin.

Q3) Staphylococcal resistance to oxacillin is used to determine and report resistance to: A) vancomycin.

B) aminoglycoside.

C) cephalosporin.

D) amikacin.

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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Which virulent and important human pathogen can also be recovered from the nares, perineum, and other skin sites of healthy people, especially in the hospital setting?

A) Micrococcus luteus

B) Staphylococcus intermedius

C) Staphylococcus aureus

D) All Micrococcaceae

Q2) The most frequent agent of nosocomial bacteremia is:

A) catalase-negative micrococci.

B) coagulase-positive staphylococci.

C) catalase-negative stomatococci.

D) coagulase-negative staphylococci.

Q3) The tube coagulase test:

A) detects bound coagulase.

B) detects extracellular coagulase.

C) is performed on slide coagulase-positive isolates to confirm a positive result.

D) requires citrated reagent plasma.

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Chapter 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) The development of glomerulonephritis is a problem that may be encountered by patients infected with:

A) Enterococcus faecalis.

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

C) S. pyogenes.

D) S. agalactiae.

Q2) The colonial morphologic features of this organism resemble a donut as it ages, and it has a polysaccharide capsule that is responsible for its virulence.What two characteristics describe this organism?

A) Beta-hemolytic and susceptible to optochin

B) Alpha-hemolytic and bile solubility-negative

C) Gamma-hemolytic and resistant to optochin

D) Alpha-hemolytic and bile solubility-positive

Q3) The major etiologic agent of bacterial endocarditis in the United States is:

A) Enterococcus faecalis.

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

C) S. pyogenes.

D) viridans streptococci.

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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Which of the following types of anthrax occurs after ingesting the spores and affects the abdominal or oropharyngeal area? (Patients usually die from toxemia and overwhelming sepsis.)

A) Cutaneous

B) Pulmonary

C) Gastrointestinal

D) Bubonic

Q2) Induction of sporulation by Bacillus species can be accomplished with _____ agar.

A) 5% sheep blood

B) PLET acetate

C) bicarbonate

D) urea

Q3) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with _____ agar.

A) 5% sheep blood

B) PLET acetate

C) bicarbonate

D) urea

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17

Chapter 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Quality control is set up on urea media.Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the media?

A) C. ulcerans and C. diphtheria (subsp. mitis)

B) C. diphtheria (subsp. gravis) and C. diphtheria (subsp. intermedius)

C) C. ulcerans and C. pseudotuberculosis

D) C. diphtheria (subsp. belfanti) and C. diphtheria (subsp. gravis)

Q2) A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?

A) Corynebacterium

B) Bacillus

C) Actinomyces

D) Mycobacterium

Q3) A gram-positive bacillus, which grew on Tinsdale agar, is esculin hydrolysis-negative, urease-positive, and nonlipophilic.The organism can be identified as:

A) C. diphtheria (subsp. gravis).

B) C. imitans.

C) C. xerosis.

D) C. ulcerans.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) A farmer has a localized, painful skin infection.Cultures are set up, and alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative, and gram-positive bacilli are isolated.Based on this information, which of the following biochemical results are expected-urease, H S production in TSI, and nitrate reduction?

A) Positive urease, positive TSI, and positive nitrate

B) Positive urease, negative TSI, and negative nitrate

C) Negative urease, positive TSI, and negative nitrate

D) Negative urease, negative TSI, and negative nitrate

Q2) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, gram-positive rod that is not acid-fast could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?

A) Corynebacterium

B) Bacillus

C) Actinomyces

D) Erysipelothrix

Q3) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?

A) Gardnerella vaginalis

B) Lactobacillus

C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

D) Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend along the agar surface, which are called _____ hyphae.

A) surface

B) substrate

C) aerial

D) topical

Q2) The organism that has been most commonly associated with human disease, particularly in patients who are immunocompromised, such as those infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), is:

A) Rhodococcus.

B) Gordonia.

C) Tsukamurella.

D) Streptomyces.

Q3) Which organisms should be used to run quality control for acid-fast stains?

A) Nocardia and Rhodococcus

B) Streptomyces and Actinomadura

C) Dermatophilus and Nocardiopsis

D) Nocardia and Streptomyces

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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae

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Q1) The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be presumptively identified on the basis of a positive indole test is:

A) Klebsiella pneumoniae.

B) Proteus vulgaris.

C) Enterobacter aerogenes.

D) Shigella sonnei.

Q2) Enterotoxigenic and enteroinvasive are terms often linked to which of the following bacterial species?

A) Escherichia coli

B) Salmonella enteritidis

C) Shigella sonnei

D) Yersinia pestis

Q3) Most strains of Escherichia coli can be presumptively identified on the basis of which characteristic?

A) Spot indole-positive

B) Citrate-positive

C) Methyl red-negative

D) Urease-positive

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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms

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Q1) Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?

A) Acinetobacter spp.

B) Bordetella trematum

C) Burkholderia gladioli

D) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

Q2) For more serious infections caused by Acinetobacter spp., such as pneumonia or bacteremia, effective treatment may require the use of:

A) multiple rounds of penicillin or a similar antibiotic.

B) a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.

C) repeated high-level doses of gentamycin.

D) single-drug therapy in combination with a steroid.

Q3) The primary drug of choice for infections caused by Stenotrophomonas maltophilia is:

A) a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.

B) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

C) ticarcillin and clavulanic acid.

D) chloramphenicol.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of urea agar for quality control purposes?

A) Pseudomonas fluorescens and Burkholderia cepacia complex

B) Ralstonia mannitolilytica and Acidovorax delafieldii

C) Brevundimonas diminuta and Brevundimonas vesicularis

D) Brevundimonas vesicularis and Ralstonia pickettii

Q2) Production of exotoxin A and several proteolytic enzymes and hemolysins are factors that contribute to the pathogenicity of which organism?

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B) Burkholderia cepacia

C) Ralstonia pickettii

D) Burkholderia mallei

Q3) Oxidative-fermentative base-polymyxin B-bacitracin-lactose (OFPBL)media is the best media to use to isolate which one of the following organisms from the sputa of patients with cystic fibrosis?

A) Pseudomonas pseudomallei

B) Ralstonia pickettii

C) Burkholderia cepacia

D) Acidovorax delafieldii

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Chapter 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Which nonlactose-fermenting organism that rarely causes human infection, grows poorly at 35º C; however, grows optimally between 20º and 25º C?

A) Psychrobacter immobilis

B) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans

C) Rhizobium radiobacter

D) Shewanella putrefaciens

Q2) A patient with an indwelling catheter tip began spiking a fever of 39º C.The site of the catheter was inflamed and red.The catheter tip was cultured, and the following organism was isolated: a nonlactose-fermenter on MacConkey agar; a glucose, xylose, and mannitol oxidizer with the ability to hydrolyze esculin.This organism is most likely which one of the following?

A) CDC group EF-4b

B) Shewanella putrefaciens

C) Rhizobium radiobacter

D) Paracoccus yeei

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Q1) Which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes to determine the validity of the indole reagent?

A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Empedobacter brevis

B) Chryseobacterium spp. and Elizabethkingia meningoseptica

C) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Sphingobacterium multivorum

D) Agrobacterium group and Sphingobacterium spiritivorum

Q2) Which organism's virulence is due to protease and gelatinase production, which causes the destruction of host cells and tissues?

A) Bergeyella zoohelcum

B) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica

C) Chryseobacterium indologenes

D) Agrobacterium spp.

Q3) Neonates and individuals who are immunocompromised are at risk for developing meningitis if they contract which organism?

A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica

B) Myroides odoratum

C) Sphingobacterium spp.

D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group EO-3

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Chapter 24: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,

Comamonas, and Similar Organisms

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Q1) The biochemical description of Myroides is:

A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.

B) urease-positive and has a fruity odor.

C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.

D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.

Q2) The biochemical description of Bordetella bronchiseptica is:

A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.

B) indole-positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.

C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.

D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.

Q3) The organism most frequently associated with various infections in humans is:

A) Bordetella.

B) Oligella.

C) Achromobacter.

D) Roseomonas.

Q4) The mode of transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica can best be described as:

A) person-to-person contact.

B) exposure to contaminated water.

C) inhalation of contaminated air.

D) close contact with animals.

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Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms

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Q1) A vibriostatic test using 0/129 (2,4-diamino-6,7-diisopropylpteridine)-impregnated disks differentiates vibrio cells, which are susceptible, and _________, which are resistant.

A) Enterobacteriaceae

B) Plesiomonas spp.

C) aeromonads

D) Chromobacterium spp.

Q2) Vibrio cholerae and Photobacterium damsela are used to perform quality control on TCBS agar.After overnight incubation, no growth is observed.What is the next course of action?

A) Reinoculate the TCBS agar, and incubate for 36 hours.

B) Check the pH to ensure that it is 8.6.

C) Reincubate the plates for another 24 hours.

D) These two organisms are poor choices for quality control on TCBS agar.

Q3) Vibrio cholera and V.alginolyticus appear what color on TCBS agar?

A) Green

B) Black

C) Yellow

D) Blue

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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Although no definitive guidelines are available for the treatment of Sphingomonas paucimobilis infections, which antibiotic appears to have potential activity against this organism?

A) Penicillin

B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination

C) Flagyl

D) Imipenem

Q2) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive, motile by wet mount, and has the ability to oxidize glucose, xylose, and sucrose is most likely which of the following?

A) Treponema

B) Leptospira

C) Borrelia

D) Sphingomonas

Q3) When performing quality control on motility media, which of the following organisms should be used?

A) Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.

B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group IIc and CDC group IIe

C) CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii

D) CDC group IIh and Acidovorax facilis

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms

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Q1) Testing for differentiation of Moraxella nonliquefaciens and M.osloensis can best be performed by:

A) the ability to utilize acetate.

B) the ability to liquefy serum.

C) glucose utilization tests.

D) growth on MacConkey agar.

Q2) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella lacunata will appear as:

A) either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.

B) gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.

C) coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.

D) coccobacilli that may appear in chains.

Q3) The virulence of this organism(s), which is transmitted via a dog bite, is attributed to:

A) protease production.

B) various toxins.

C) hemolysins.

D) something unknown.

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Chapter 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:

A) pink pigmentation.

B) grapelike odor.

C) large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.

D) bleachlike odor.

Q2) The organism that is found in vegetation and occasionally in the hospital environment grows best at which temperature?

A) 4º C

B) 25º C

C) 35º C

D) 56º C

Q3) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?

A) Eikenella corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.

B) Weeksella virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum

C) Bergeyella zoohelcum and Escherichia coli

D) Eikenella corrodens and Weeksella virosa

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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Which test is used to differentiate Pasteurella multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?

A) Indole

B) Catalase

C) Nitrate

D) Sucrose

Q2) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?

A) Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis

B) Mannheimia haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica

C) Pasteurella multocida and Suttonella indologenes

D) Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae

Q3) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?

A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis

B) Eikenella corrodens

C) Pasteurella multocida

D) Weeksella virosa

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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella,

Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar

Organisms

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Q1) Kingella denitrificans, which is nonhemolytic and tends to pit the agar, also grows on selective media that support the growth of which gram-negative diplococci?

A) Capnocytophaga spp.

B) Cardiobacterium hominis

C) Aggregatibacter aphrophilus

D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Q2) Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from Aggregatibacter aphrophilus by its:

A) negative test for catalase.

B) positive test for lactose fermentation.

C) positive test for catalase.

D) negative test for oxidase.

Q3) Which organism can cause granulomatous disease in animals and has been associated with soft-tissue infection in humans after animal bites?

A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis

B) Weeksella virosa

C) Pasteurella multocida

D) Actinobacillus spp.

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Chapter 31: Haemophilus

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Q1) Although a useful test in the past, the particle agglutination assay for the detection of H.influenzae, type b, capsular polysaccharide antigen is no longer reliable because of:

A) insufficiently high concentration of the organisms in clinical infections.

B) a lack of sensitivity and specificity of the test procedure.

C) the frequent use of antimicrobial therapy before collecting the specimen.

D) the increased use of H. influenzae, type b, vaccination.

Q2) In a phenomenon known as satelliting, tiny colonies of Haemophilus spp.may be observed growing on sheep blood agar close to colonies of:

A) Streptococcus pyogenes.

B) Staphylococcus aureus.

C) Micrococcus spp.

D) other Haemophilus spp.

Q3) Chancroid is the sexually transmitted disease caused by:

A) Haemophilus influenzae.

B) H. ducreyi.

C) H. aphrophilus.

D) H. parainfluenzae.

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia

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Q1) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?

A) Gram stain

B) Wright stain

C) Trichrome stain

D) Warthin-Starry silver stain

Q2) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:

A) Afipia felis.

B) Bartonella quintana.

C) B. clarridgeiae.

D) B. henselae.

Q3) Although molecular methods are available, such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species, limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:

A) probes.

B) polymerases.

C) primers.

D) restriction enzymes.

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Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter

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Q1) Campylobacter jejuni subsp.jejuni grows best at what conditions?

A) 37º C under microaerobic conditions

B) 37º C under anaerobic conditions

C) 42º C under microaerobic conditions

D) 42º C under anaerobic conditions

Q2) Antimicrobial therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection consists of:

A) penicillin, gentamycin, and imipenem.

B) clindamycin, ceftriazone, and carbapenem.

C) metronidazole, bismuth salt, and tetracycline.

D) azithromycin alone.

Q3) Which of the following genes may attribute to the virulence of Helicobacter pylori by encoding for outer membrane proteins that mediate adherence to a specific blood group antigen on the surface of gastric epithelial cells?

A) babA

B) iceA

C) cagA

D) vacA

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Chapter 34: Legionella

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Q1) A direct immunofluorescent antibody (DFA)test was performed on a sputum sample that yielded a positive test.The organism grew on BCYE medium and was a thin gram-negative, faintly staining bacillus.What is the drug of choice for this organism?

A) Fluoroquinolones

B) Erythromycin

C) Penicillin

D) Aminoglycosides

Q2) The medium or media of choice used to recover Legionella is:

A) buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).

B) Regan-Lowe agar.

C) Löwenstein-Jensen medium.

D) blood and chocolate agars.

Q3) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?

A) L-cysteine and iron

B) Blood and cysteine

C) Dopa-cysteine

D) Nicotinic adenine

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Chapter 35: Brucella

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Q1) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:

A) cattle.

B) sheep or goats.

C) swine.

D) dogs.

Q2) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:

A) dairy farmers.

B) fishermen.

C) prison guards.

D) those working with exotic birds.

Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:

A) gram-positive diplococci.

B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.

C) gram-negative coccobacilli.

D) gram-negative bacilli.

Q4) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:

A) be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.

B) exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.

C) be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.

D) be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.

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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and

Related Species

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Q1) Acceptable specimens for the detection of Bordetella pertussis are:

A) throat swabs.

B) sputum.

C) nasopharyngeal aspirates.

D) anterior nose swabs.

Q2) Because of its longer shelf life, the medium of choice to cultivate Bordetella spp.is:

A) buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).

B) thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar.

C) Bordet-Gengou agar.

D) Regan-Lowe agar.

Q3) Bordetella pertussis colonies growing on Regan-Lowe medium yields which of the following colonial morphologic appearances?

A) Star-shaped colonies

B) Mercury-drop colonies

C) Yellow-pigmented colonies

D) Shiny black-pigmented colonies

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Chapter 37: Francisella

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Q1) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:

A) is oxidase-negative.

B) is hydrogen sulfide-positive.

C) does not hydrolyze gelatin.

D) does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.

Q2) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?

A) Cysteine and cystine

B) Blood and cysteine

C) Dopa-cysteine

D) Nicotinic adenine

Q3) Which assay is available to identify Francisella tularensis serologically?

A) Complement fixation

B) Direct fluorescent antibody test

C) Immunodiffusion assays

D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)

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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum

Minus

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Q1) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired S.minus is:

A) Sodoku.

B) Haverhill fever.

C) monillic fever.

D) monillic gastritis.

Q2) Which of the following causes Sodoku, which is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion?

A) Streptobacillus moniliformis

B) Spirillum minus

C) Bordetella spp.

D) Pasteurella spp.

Q3) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by:

A) chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.

B) a granulomatous lesion.

C) septic arthritis.

D) endocarditis.

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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis

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Q1) The bacterial species that can be described as oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, maltose-positive, sucrose-negative, lactose-negative, and a major cause of bacterial meningitis is:

A) Neisseria meningitidis.

B) N. lactamica.

C) N. flavescens.

D) N. gonorrhoeae.

Q2) An endocervical swab was collected from a 26-year-old woman with a purulent discharge.The Gram stain revealed the following: · Many white blood cells (WBCs)

· Moderate gram-negative diplococci

· Moderate gram-negative coccobacilli

· Few yeast

Based on these findings, what would be the next course of action?

A) Report the isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

B) Work up the yeast.

C) Report the Gram stain, and follow up with culture.

D) Request a new specimen; this one is contaminated.

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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations

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Q1) Feces in a sterile specimen cup is:

A) acceptable.

B) not acceptable.

Q2) Nasopharyngeal swab is:

A) acceptable.

B) not acceptable.

Q3) LKV blood agar

A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.

B)Inhibits gram-negative rods

C)Is nonselective; supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes

D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria

E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile

Q4) The final fill of the anaerobe jar prepared by the evacuation-replacement method consists of:

A) 20% to 30% nitrogen, 5% to 10% hydrogen, and 70% to 80% CO2.

B) 80% to 90% oxygen, 5% to 10% hydrogen, and 5% to 10% CO2.

C) 80% to 90% nitrogen, 5% to 10% hydrogen, and 5% to 10% CO2.

D) 80% to 90% nitrogen, 5% to 10% oxygen, and 5% to 10% CO2.

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Page 42

Chapter 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms

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Q1) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-positive coccus that is resistant to metronidazole is:

A) Streptococcus.

B) Peptostreptococcus.

C) Leptotrichia.

D) Peptococcus.

Q2) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-negative bacillus that reduces nitrate and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture is:

A) Porphyromonas spp.

B) Bacteroides ureolyticus.

C) pigmented Prevotella.

D) Fusobacterium spp.

Q3) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-positive bacillus that produces spores is:

A) Bifidobacterium.

B) Eubacterium.

C) Eggerthella.

D) Clostridium.

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43

Chapter 42: Mycobacteria

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Sample Questions

Q1) What quantity of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is considered sufficient for the detection of tuberculous meningitis?

A) 1 mL

B) 5 mL

C) 10 mL

D) 20 mL

Q2) Quality control is performed to test the validity of catalase production at 68° C.M.fortuitum and M.tuberculosis are used, which yield a positive and negative reaction, respectively.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) Both organisms were most likely incubated at the wrong temperature.

B) Both organisms were most likely incubated on the wrong media before testing.

C) The catalase reagent is most likely expired.

D) No discrepancy is present. M. fortuitum is catalase-positive and M. tuberculosis is catalase-negative at 68° C.

Q3) Optimal conditions for the recovery of M.haemophilum from specimens include:

A) inoculation to a sheep blood agar plate.

B) incubation at 35° to 42° C.

C) placement of an X-factor disk on the media.

D) microaerophilic environment with low humidity.

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Page 44

Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents

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Q1) Which of the following vectors transmit scrub typhus?

A) Lice

B) Ticks

C) Fleas

D) Chiggers

Q2) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligates intracellular parasitism is:

A) Rickettsia.

B) Ehrlichia.

C) Calymmatobacterium.

D) Coxiella.

Q3) The drug of choice for the treatment of granuloma inguinale, which is a major cause of genital ulcers in India, New Guinea, and part of South America, is:

A) clindamycin.

B) doxycycline.

C) imipenem.

D) gentamycin.

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Page 45

Chapter 44: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

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Q1) Caution should be taken when culturing blood in suspected cases of Mycoplasma infections since the organism is inhibited by which anticoagulant commonly found in commercial blood culture media?

A) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)

B) Sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)

C) Heparin

D) Sodium citrate

Q2) The definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?

A) Chlamydia trachomatis

B) Mycoplasma hominis

C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

D) Mycoplasma genitalium

Q3) The natural habitat of Mycoplasma spp., which causes infectious disease in humans, can best be described as the:

A) mucous membranes of humans.

B) aquatic environment.

C) natural environment.

D) genitourinary tract of animals.

Page 46

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Chapter 45: The Spirochetes

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Q1) A nontreponemal flocculation serologic test in which soluble antigen particles are coalesced to form larger particles that are visible as clumps when they are aggregated by antibody is called the __________ test.

A) nontreponemal flocculation (NTF)

B) FTA-ABS

C) VDRL

D) TP-PA

Q2) Long, slender, helically curved, gram-negative bacilli with hooked ends are identified as belonging to which species?

A) Treponema

B) Leptospira

C) Borrelia

D) Coxiella

Q3) Long, slender, helically curved, gram-negative bacilli with tight coils are identified as belonging to which species?

A) Treponema

B) Leptospira

C) Borrelia

D) Coxiella

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic

Infections: Overview

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Q1) Babesia spp.is transmitted via the bite of a tick and can cause severe disease in patients who have been splenectomised or who are immunocompromised.To diagnose accurately these patient populations, the specimen of choice is: A) stool. B) urine.

C) genital sample. D) blood.

Q2) The permanent stained smear protocol of the O&P examination:

A) requires freshly passed, unpreserved stool.

B) is designed to allow the detection of protozoan cysts, coccidian oocysts, microsporidial spores, and helminth eggs and larvae.

C) is microscopically examined at low, high dry, and oil immersion magnifications. D) is designed to facilitate the identification of intestinal protozoa.

Q3) Wuchereria, Brugia, Loa, and Onchocerca are all classified as:

A) intestinal cestodes.

B) tissue nematodes.

C) filarial nematodes.

D) blood trematodes.

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Chapter 47: Intestinal Protozoa

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Q1) When cooking meat, an internal temperature of ____° C must be reached to kill organisms such as Toxoplasma and Sarcocystis.

A) 38

B) 48

C) 58

D) 68

Q2) The Isospora belli organism, which contains two sporocysts with four sporozoites each, is recovered from fecal specimens and has also been implicated in traveler's diarrhea.The drug of choice to treat infection caused by I.belli is:

A) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination.

B) tetracycline.

C) albendazole.

D) flagyl.

Q3) Asexual amplification, called merogony, is associated with the life cycle of which organism?

A) Cyclospora

B) Cryptosporidium

C) Toxoplasma

D) Sarcocystis

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Chapter 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa

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Q1) Stage I of trypanosomiasis characteristically involves systemic trypanosomiasis infection without central nervous system (CNS)involvement.Lymphadenopathy is also a feature of this disease.The trypomastigotes of which protozoa are involved?

A) Trypanosoma cruzi

B) T. rangeli

C) T. brucei rhodesiense

D) T. brucei gambiense

Q2) P.falciparum

A)Normal shape and size

B)Normal shape; size may be normal or slightly smaller

C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal; oval to normal

D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval

Q3) Delicate ring forms and crescent-shaped gametocytes are the only forms normally observed in the peripheral blood of which Plasmodium spp.?

A) P. vivax

B) P. malariae

C) P. falciparum

D) P. ovale

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Chapter 49: Other Protozoa

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Q1) The troph of the motile Trichomonas vaginalis organism measures 7 to 23 microns long and 5 to 15 microns wide.The recommended treatment of choice for this urogenital infection is:

A) tetracycline.

B) metronidazole.

C) penicillin.

D) ketoconazole.

Q2) Tachyzoites

A)Crescent-shaped

B)Oocysts from cat feces

C)Tissue cysts

Q3) Sporozoites

A)Crescent-shaped

B)Oocysts from cat feces

C)Tissue cysts

Q4) Laboratory diagnosis of Trichomonas gondii is confirmed by:

A) Giemsa stain.

B) tissue culture.

C) serologic testing.

D) Western blot.

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Chapter 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms

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Q1) Rhabditiform larvae measuring 275 mmicrons with a long buccal capsule and a small genital primordium was identified as hookworm.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) A technical error occurred in identification.

B) The larvae characteristics represent Strongyloides stercoralis; therefore the organism was incorrectly reported out.

C) The larvae characteristics represent pinworm; therefore the organism was incorrectly reported out.

D) No error occurred. Hookworm is the correct identification for an organism with these characteristics.

Q2) The most common and largest roundworm encountered is:

A) Trichuris trichiura.

B) Strongyloides stercoralis.

C) Ascaris lumbricoides.

D) Necator americanus.

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Chapter 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms

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Q1) A child is believed to have a Toxocara cati infection in his eye, which he acquired after playing with a stray cat for several weeks.A serum titer was performed, which revealed a titer of 1:8.This laboratory value can be interpreted as:

A) normal.

B) insignificant.

C) diagnostic.

D) negative.

Q2) Humans acquire infection with Trichinella tissue nematode by ingesting undercooked meat that contains the infective encysted larvae.In which tissue do these larvae encyst?

A) Brain

B) Meninges

C) Myocardium

D) Striated muscle

Q3) Copepods

A)Dracunculus medinensis

B)Parastrongylus cantonensis

C)Trichinella spp.

D)Parastrongylus costaricensis

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Chapter 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes

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Q1) A 36-year-old man who has been traveling through the orient is experiencing a tender region in the inguinal region.A blood film is made, and sheathed microfilariae with four to five subterminal nuclei and two terminal nuclei in the tail are identified using Giemsa stain.The organism is most likely:

A) Wuchereria bancrofti.

B) Onchocerca volvulus.

C) Loa loa.

D) Brugia malayi.

Q2) Chyluria is a result of lymphatic rupture and fluid entering the urine.Another lymphatic condition caused by Wuchereria bancrofti is:

A) calabar swelling.

B) elephantiasis.

C) river blindness.

D) pruritic rash.

Q3) The definitive host and reservoir for Wuchereria bancrofti is:

A) mosquito.

B) microfilaria.

C) humans.

D) tabanid fly.

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Page 54

Chapter 53: Intestinal Cestodes

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Q1) A stool specimen is examined, and the following characteristics are observed: 15 to 18 lateral branches on each side

Scolex with four suckers

No hooklets

The intermediate hosts of this tapeworm are:

A) cattle.

B) humans.

C) cats.

D) swine.

Q2) The mode of infection for which of the following organisms is the ingestion of cysticercoid in an infected arthropod or by the direct ingestion of the egg? Autoinfection may also occur.

A) Diphyllobothrium latum

B) Hymenolepis nana

C) Taenia saginata

D) Taenia solium

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Chapter 54: Tissue Cestodes

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Q1) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?

A) Taenia solium

B) Echinococcus granulosus

C) Spirometra mansonoides

D) Echinococcus multilocularis

Q2) Epileptic seizures, headaches, and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:

A) positive direct fluorescent antibody test.

B) observance of eggs in the stool.

C) positive India ink stain.

D) identification of cysts in tissue.

Q3) The Taenia multiceps tapeworm is 5 to 6 cm long and consists of 200 to 250 segments.It has four suckers in its scolex and a proboscis with 22 to 32 hooks arranged in two rows.This organism causes which condition?

A) Coenurosis

B) Cysticercosis

C) Hydatid disease

D) Sparganosis

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Chapter 55: Intestinal Trematodes

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Q1) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces is best described as:

A) cercariae, miracidium larva, metacercariae, and redia.

B) redia, metacercariae, cercariae, and miracidium larva.

C) miracidium larva, redia, cercariae, and metacercariae.

D) metacercariae, miracidium larva, cercariae, and redia.

Q2) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm, which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore, has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs, cats, and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater:

A) snails.

B) fish.

C) crabs.

D) shrimp.

Q3) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A) fish.

B) snails.

C) crabs.

D) crayfish.

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Chapter 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes

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Q1) Chinese liver fluke

A)Opisthorchis viverrini

B)Fasciola spp.

C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis

D)Paragonimus westermani

Q2) Sheep liver fluke

A)Opisthorchis viverrini

B)Fasciola spp.

C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis

D)Paragonimus westermani

Q3) Which second intermediate host ingests the cercariae of Clonorchis and Opisthorchis?

A) Snail

B) Crustacean

C) Copepod

D) Freshwater fish

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58

Chapter 57: Blood Trematodes

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Q1) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?

A) S. mansoni

B) S. japonicum

C) S. haematobium

D) S. mekongi

Q2) The only intermediate host required in the life cycle of blood flukes is a:

A) copepod.

B) crustacean.

C) freshwater snail.

D) freshwater fish.

Q3) An egg of the organism of Schistosoma mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel; however, his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) Metrifonate should have been administered.

B) Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.

C) Steroids should have been initially administered.

D) A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.

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Page 59

Chapter 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies

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Q1) An example of a thermally monomorphic mold is:

A) Penicillium marneffei.

B) Sporothrix schenckii.

C) Epidermophyton.

D) Histoplasma capsulatum.

Q2) A 28-year-old woman was gardening when a rose thorn pricked her finger, which later became infected.A sample is taken of the exudate and sent to the microbiology laboratory.Small, round, cigar-shaped structures are microscopically observed.She is most likely infected with which type of fungi?

A) Malassezia furfur

B) Histoplasma capsulatum

C) Sporothrix schenckii

D) Fonsecaea pedrosoi

Q3) A capsule and phenoloxidase melanin synthesis are virulence factors contributing to the pathogenicity of which of the following organisms?

A) Aspergillus spp.

B) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

C) Blastomyces dermatitidis

D) Cryptococcus neoformans

Page 60

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Chapter 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes,

Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses

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Q1) A pulmonary fungus ball and external otomycosis and onychomycosis are all infections caused by which genera?

A) Fusarium

B) Penicillium

C) Paecilomyces

D) Aspergillus

Q2) Which rapidly growing Aspergillus spp.(2 to 6 days)best describes a mold that produces a fluffy-to-granular, white-to-blue green colony?

A) A. niger

B) A. flavus

C) A. fumigatus

D) A. terreus

Q3) Budding yeast resembling a "mariner's wheel"

A)Blastomyces dermatitidis

B)Coccidioides immitis

C)Histoplasma capsulatum

D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

E)Penicillium marneffei

F)Sporothrix schenckii

Page 61

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Chapter 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds

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Q1) Mycetoma is a subcutaneous infection that involves the lower extremities but may also occur in any part of the body.Swelling, purplish discoloration, and tumorlike deformities of the subcutaneous tissue are all symptoms associated with mycetoma.Which organism can cause this disease?

A) Bipolaris spp.

B) Exserohilum spp.

C) Pseudallescheria boydii

D) Exophiala dermatitidis

Q2) Tinea nigra

A)Exophiala jeanselmei

B)Pseudallescheria boydii

C)Piedraia hortae

D)Hortaea werneckii

E)Alternaria

Q3) Black piedra

A)Exophiala jeanselmei

B)Pseudallescheria boydii

C)Piedraia hortae

D)Hortaea werneckii

E)Alternaria

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Chapter 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis

Jiroveci

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Q1) The cell membrane of Pneumocystis jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______, which differentiates it from other fungi.

A) sterols; cholesterol

B) ergosterol; sterols

C) cholesterol; ergosterol

D) sitosterol; sterols

Q2) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify Pneumocystis jirovecii but is not yet available in commercial kits?

A) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)

B) Strand displacement amplification (SDA)

C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)

D) Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Q3) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?

A) Metronidazole

B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination

C) Aminoglycosides with fluconazole

D) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)

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Chapter 62: The Yeasts

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Q1) Creamy, white patches

A)Trichosporon spp.

B)Candida albicans

C)Malassezia furfur

D)Cryptococcus neoformans

Q2) Blood cultures are drawn on a patient suspected of having a fungemia.Positive cultures reveal the presence of chlamydoconidia on cornmeal agar.In addition, the yeast is germ-tube positive.The most likely identification of the fungal agent is:

A) C. glabrata.

B) C. tropicalis.

C) Cryptococcus neoformans.

D) C. albicans.

Q3) Polysaccharide capsule

A)Trichosporon spp.

B)Candida albicans

C)Malassezia furfur

D)Cryptococcus neoformans

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64

Chapter 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention

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Q1) Is a glucan synthesis inhibitor

A)Amphotericin B

B)Griseofulvin

C)5-Fluorocytosine

D)Echinocandin

E)Azole

Q2) A patient is diagnosed with an invasive Aspergillosis infection.The antifungal therapy that should be administered is:

A) nystatin.

B) griseofulvin.

C) amphotericin B.

D) fluconazole.

Q3) Inhibits protein synthesis

A)Amphotericin B

B)Griseofulvin

C)5-Fluorocytosine

D)Echinocandin

E)Azole

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Chapter 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Amie's, Leibovitz-Emory, and Stuart's are all types of:

A) cell lines.

B) cell culture media.

C) automated systems.

D) transport media.

Q2) Which enzyme is incorporated into the master mix in the PCR reaction?

A) Endonuclease

B) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) polymerase

C) Protease

D) Helicase

Q3) Hemadsorption

A)RSV

B)HIV

C)CMV

D)Adenovirus

E)HSV

F)Pediatric respiratory virus

G)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

H)Influenzas A and B

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Chapter 65: Viruses in Human Disease

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Q1) A 45-year-old man living in the western United States begins experiencing headache, fever, and body aches, which he attributes to the flu.His symptoms, however, become worse, and he later develops kidney disease and acute respiratory failure.He is most likely infected with which virus?

A) Rabies virus

B) Adenovirus

C) Norovirus

D) Hantavirus

Q2) Burkitt lymphoma

A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1

B)HSV type 2

C)Zoster

D)Varicella

E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

F)CMV

G)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8

Q3) Myocarditis

A)Coxsackie A

B)Coxsackie B

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Page 67

Chapter 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the 1920s, an instrument known as an "iron lung" was developed to fight breathing difficulties associated with which infection?

A) Rubella

B) Measles

C) Poliomyelitis

D) Cytomegalovirus

Q2) When performing antiviral susceptibility testing, a standard inoculum must be used.If the inoculum quantity is too large, then the isolate will appear:

A) susceptible.

B) intermediate.

C) resistant.

D) indeterminate.

Q3) If a physician prescribes Tamiflu to a patient, the patient is most likely infected with which virus?

A) HIV

B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

C) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

D) Influenza

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Chapter 67: Bloodstream Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) Saponin, polypropylene glycol, SPS, and ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)are all components in which blood culture system?

A) BACTEC system

B) BacT/ALERT system

C) ESP system

D) Lysis centrifugation system

Q2) A consequence of sepsis is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is characterized by numerous small blood vessels becoming clogged with clotted blood and bleeding as a result of the depletion of coagulation factors.Although any circulating pathogen can cause DIC, it is most often a consequence of ________ sepsis.

A) fungal

B) viral

C) gram-positive

D) gram-negative

Q3) Brucella infections usually result in which type of bacteremia?

A) Transient

B) Intermittent

C) Continuous

D) Spontaneous

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Chapter 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract

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Sample Questions

Q1) Adenoviruses are one of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among:

A) previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.

B) adults younger than 30 years of age.

C) community-acquired pneumonia in adults.

D) school-age children.

Q2) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infection among:

A) previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.

B) adults younger than 30 years of age.

C) community-acquired pneumonia in adults.

D) school-age children.

Q3) The most common etiologic agent of lower respiratory tract infection among adults younger than 30 years of age is:

A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae.

B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

D) Haemophilus influenzae.

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Chapter 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other

Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck

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Sample Questions

Q1) Rhinitis

A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses

B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma

C)Haemophilus influenzae

D)Streptococcus pyogenes

E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci

F)Herpes simplex virus

G)Candida spp.

H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes

Q2) An infection of the pharynx that is normally called sore throat, whose presentation includes erythematous and swollen tissue and which is characterized by inflammatory exudates, vesicles, and mucosal ulceration or by nasopharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia, is:

A) laryngitis.

B) epiglottitis.

C) pharyngitis.

D) Vincent angina.

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Page 71

Chapter 70: Meningitis, Encephalitis, and Other Infections of the Central

Nervous System

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Q1) An inflammation of the brain parenchyma that is usually a result of viral infection is:

A) meningoencephalitis.

B) aseptic meningitis.

C) encephalitis.

D) meningitis.

Q2) A condition characterized by concomitant meningitis that occurs with encephalitis is called:

A) meningoencephalitis.

B) aseptic meningitis.

C) encephalitis.

D) pleocytosis.

Q3) An increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis)in the CSF and negative bacterial and fungal cultures is referred to as:

A) meningoencephalitis.

B) aseptic meningitis.

C) encephalitis.

D) pleocytosis.

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Chapter 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses

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Q1) Keratitis

A)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae

B)Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice

C)Staphylococcus aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D)Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic

E)Chlamydia

F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium

G)S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

Q2) Orbital cellulitis

A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria

B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal

C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema

D)Infection of the cornea

Q3) Canaliculitis

A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria

B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal

C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema

D)Infection of the cornea

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Chapter 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract

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Q1) Acute urethral syndrome

A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract

B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection

C)Infection of the bladder

D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency, but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture

E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis

Q2) Mucosal antibacterial properties, a valvelike mechanism, host immune responses, and defensins are all host defense mechanisms found in the ______ tract.

A) digestive

B) upper respiratory

C) urinary

D) genital

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Chapter 73: Genital Tract Infections

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Q1) Bacterial vaginosis

A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora

B)Chlamydia trachomatis

C)Gardnerella, Prevotella spp., Porphyromonas spp., Peptostreptococcus spp.,

Mobiluncus spp.

D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae

E)Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis

F)Escherichia coli and other enteric organisms

G)Mumps virus

Q2) Infections that are acquired during sexual activity are referred to as:

A) endogenous infections.

B) pyelonephritis.

C) exogenous infections.

D) upper tract infections.

Q3) An infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy is called:

A) PID.

B) bartholinitis.

C) cervicitis.

D) chorioamnionitis.

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Page 75

Chapter 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections

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Q1) Stool received for routine culture in most clinical laboratories in the United States should be examined for the presence of at least:

A) Campylobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella spp.

B) Salmonella and Shigella spp.

C) Campylobacter and Vibrio spp.

D) Salmonella, Shigella, and Vibrio spp.

Q2) Cultures for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli should be incubated in:

A) a capnophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.

B) a microaerophilic atmosphere at 35° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.

C) regular room air at 35° C and examined at 48 and 72 hours.

D) a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.

Q3) MacConkey agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species

B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens

D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

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Chapter 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections

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Q1) Progressive bacterial synergistic gangrene

A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents

B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue

C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin

D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery

Q2) The most predominant anaerobe isolated in animal bites is:

A) Veillonella spp.

B) Clostridium spp.

C) Prevotella spp.

D) Fusobacterium spp.

Q3) The causative agents of lumpy jaw are:

A) Clostridium spp.

B) Bacteroides spp.

C) Prevotella spp.

D) Actinomyces spp.

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Marrow, and Solid Tissues

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Q1) Any tissues received in the clinical microbiology laboratory should be minced and homogenized in a biosafety cabinet.If lung tissue is sent and processed, then which organism should be examined using direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)testing?

A) Listeria

B) Legionella

C) Leishmania

D) Leptospira

Q2) Pericardial fluid may be inoculated in blood culture broth and processed as a blood culture, provided the broth contains which anticoagulant?

A) Heparin

B) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)

C) Citrate

D) Coumadin

Q3) Which fungal condition is most often detected in the bone marrow?

A) Brucellosis

B) Histoplasmosis

C) Tuberculosis

D) Leishmaniasis

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Chapter 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory

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Q1) Examination and workup of a culture and interpretation of results by the microbiologist would pertain to which step in the quality assurance process?

A) Preanalytic

B) Analytic

C) Postanalytic

D) Analytic review

Q2) Defining the process from the patient's perspective, which is what the patient knowingly pays for, or the attributes of service

A)Value

B)Value stream

C)Flow

D)Pull

E)Continuous improvement

Q3) Occurring continuously through the remaining value-added steps

A)Value

B)Value stream

C)Flow

D)Pull

E)Continuous improvement

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Chapter 78: Infection Control

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Q1) A patient should be placed in a private room that has monitored negative air pressure if he or she is infected with which organism?

A) Haemophilus influenza

B) Mycoplasma pneumonia

C) Parvovirus B19

D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Q2) A phenotypic technique that examines the ability of bacteriophages, which are viruses capable of infecting and lysing bacterial cells, to attack certain strains is:

A) biotyping.

B) antibiograms.

C) bacteriocin typing.

D) bacteriophage typing.

Q3) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing unique biologic or biochemical characteristics of the organism of interest is: A) biotyping.

B) antibiograms.

C) serotyping.

D) bacteriophage typing.

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Chapter 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism

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Q1) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):

A) covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.

B) covert event is announced, and an overt event is not announced.

C) overt event is announced, and a covert event is not announced.

D) overt event is one that is carried out in the air.

Q2) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:

A) horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.

B) microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.

C) microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.

D) living beings to wage war in peacetime.

Q3) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:

A) biosecurity.

B) biocrime.

C) microterrorism.

D) cactiterrorism.

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