Microbiology for Health Sciences
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on human health and disease. Topics include the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites; their roles in health and disease; methods of controlling microbial growth; and basic immunology. Emphasis is placed on the clinical significance of infectious agents, the host-pathogen relationship, the transmission and prevention of infectious diseases, and laboratory techniques relevant to health sciences. This course is designed for students pursuing careers in nursing, allied health, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World and You
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Sample Questions
Q1) The microbial process of converting sugars to alcohol is known as A)fermentation.
B)pasteurization.
C)tyndallization.
D)lyophilization.
E)alcoholism.
Answer: A
Q2) Who was the first scientist to pursue a "magic bullet" that could be used to treat infectious disease?
A)Jenner
B)Pasteur
C)Ehrlich
D)Lister
E)Semmelweis
Answer: C
Q3) All pathogens known to infect humans have been identified at this point in time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemical Principles
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Q1) The antimicrobial drug imidazole inhibits sterol synthesis.This would most likely interfere with
A)bacterial cell walls.
B)fungal cell walls.
C)eukaryotic plasma membranes.
D)prokaryotic plasma membranes.
E)genes.
Answer: C
Q2) Radioisotopes are frequently used to label molecules in a cell.The fate of atoms and molecules in a cell can then be followed.Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisotope ³ S.After a 48-hour incubation,the ³ S would most likely be found in the S.cerevisiae's
A)carbohydrates.
B)nucleic acids.
C)water.
D)lipids.
E)proteins.
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to
A)remove the simple stain.
B)make the bacterial cells larger.
C)make the flagella visible.
D)prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.
E)make gram-negative cells visible.
Answer: D
Q2) Which microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution?
A)compound light microscope
B)phase-contrast microscope
C)darkfield microscope
D)fluorescence microscope
E)electron microscope
Answer: E
Q3) Cells viewed in darkfield microscopy appear similar to those stained with the negative stain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
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Q1) What is a biofilm and what role does biofilm play in disease?
Q2) Small,hydrophobic molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily by simple diffusion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The terms "run" and "tumble" are generally associated with A)cell wall fluidity.
B)taxic movements of the cell in response to attractants or repellents.
C)clustering properties of certain rod-shaped bacteria.
D)cell membrane synthesis.
Q4) In a hypertonic solution,a bacterial cell will typically A)lyse.
B)burst.
C)stay the same.
D)plasmolyze.
E)osmolyze.
Q5) Compare and contrast gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls with regard to (a)sensitivity to antimicrobial agents,(b)resistance to phagocytosis,(c)chemical composition,and (d)decolorization by alcohol.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) In Figure 5.8,where is ATP produced?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q2) In noncyclic photophosphorylation,O is released from A)CO .
B)2H O.
C)C H O . D)sunlight. E)chlorophyll.
Q3) Carbon fixation occurs during the light-independent phase of photosynthesis. A)True B)False
Q4) The pentose phosphate pathway can be characterized as an anabolic pathway. A)True B)False
Q5) Summarize energy production in cells in a single sentence.
Q6) Explain the overall purpose of metabolic pathways.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Microbial Growth
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Q1) During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?
A)lag phase
B)log phase
C)death phase
D)stationary phase
E)The culture is equally susceptible during all phases.
Q2) Assume you inoculated 100 cells,with a generation time of 20 minutes,into 100 ml of nutrient broth.You then inoculated 100 cells of the same species into 200 ml of nutrient broth.After incubation for 3 hours,you can reasonably expect to have
A)more cells in the 100 ml.
B)more cells in the 200 ml.
C)the same number of cells in both.
D)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q3) Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Control of Microbial Growth
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Q1) All of the following are effective for destroying prions EXCEPT
A)boiling.
B)incineration.
C)NaOH + autoclaving at 134°C.
D)proteases.
E)None of the answers are correct;each of these will destroy prions.
Q2) A kitchen countertop has a spill of vegetable oil that was wiped up but a film remains.What should be the next step in disinfecting this surface?
A)10% bleach
B)spray a disinfectant that contains a heavy metal
C)warm soapy scrub
D)isopropanol
E)chlorhexidine containing solution
Q3) Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?
A)dry heat
B)pasteurization
C)autoclave
D)supercritical fluids
E)ethylene oxide
Q4) How is hydrogen peroxide antimicrobial?
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) In Figure 8.3,if enzyme A is a repressible enzyme,compound C would
A)always be in excess.
B)bind to Enzyme A.
C)bind to the corepressor for Gene a.
D)bind to RNA polymerase.
E)bind directly to gene a.
Q2) The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the lac operon is
A)catabolite repression.
B)translation.
C)DNA polymerase.
D)repression.
E)induction.
Q3) In Figure 8.3,if enzyme A is an inducible enzyme,
A)compound C would bind to the repressor for Gene a.
B)compound A would bind to the repressor for Gene a.
C)compound B would bind to enzyme A directly.
D)compound A would react with enzyme B directly.
E)compound C would react with gene a directly.
Q4) What is the survival value of the semiconservative replication of DNA?
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Dna Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A restriction fragment is A)a gene.
B)a segment of DNA.
C)a segment of mRNA.
D)a segment of tRNA.
E)cDNA.
Q2) The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognizes the sequence G AATTC.Which of the following is TRUE of DNA after it is treated with EcoRI?
A)All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in AA.
B)All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in G.
C)Some of the DNA will have single-stranded regions ending in AA and others will end in G.
D)All of the DNA will have blunt ends.
E)All of the DNA will be circular.
Q3) The local public health agency has received reports of an outbreak of Salmonella gastroenteritis among attendees at a city-sponsored chili cook-off.What techniques from recombinant DNA technology would the agency likely use to investigate this outbreak? Describe the expected results from these techniques.
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Chapter 10: Classification of Microorganisms
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Q1) When building a cladogram,the length of the horizontal branch is based on the calculated percent similarity between organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are studying a type of bacteria isolated from the acidic water runoff of a mining operation.You subject two batches of the same bacteria type to different environmental growth conditions.One batch is grown at pH 2,while the other is grown at pH 7.All other environmental parameters are kept identical between the two batches.You then collect their proteins and run a Western blot using an antibody that binds to a proton efflux pump protein (which actively expends energy to pump protons out of a cell).How would you characterize the information obtained in this experiment? What does it tell you,and why is that potentially valuable information?
Q3) Phage typing is based on the fact that
A)bacteria are destroyed by viruses.
B)viruses cause disease.
C)bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species.
D)Staphylococcus causes infections.
E)phages and bacteria are related.
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Chapter 11: The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following can survive in phagocytic cells and grows in refrigeration temperatures?
A)Borrelia burgdorferi
B)Mycoplasma hominis
C)Mycobacterium leprae
D)Clostridium botulinum
E)Listeria monocytogenes
Q2) All of the following bacteria are gram-positive.Which does NOT belong with the others?
A)Actinomyces
B)Gardnerella
C)Corynebacterium
D)Listeria
E)Mycobacterium
Q3) Bacterial predators such as Bdellovibrio are members of the betaproteobacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The deinococci can be categorized as extremophiles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Helminths
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)tick - Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B)tick - Lyme disease
C)mosquito - malaria
D)mosquito - Pneumocystis
E)mosquito - encephalitis
Q2) Infecting more than 2 billion people worldwide,________ are the most common causes of chronic infectious diseases.
A)intestinal tapeworms
B)intestinal roundworms
C)fungi
D)algae
E)protozoa
Q3) In the microscope,you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores.This is a(n)
A)ascomycete.
B)cellular slime mold.
C)Euglenozoa.
D)tapeworm.
E)plasmodial slime mold.
14
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Chapter 13: Viruses,viroids,and Prions
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene?
A)capsid proteins
B)DNA polymerase
C)envelope proteins
D)spike proteins
E)lysozyme
Q2) The morphological types of viruses illustrated in Figure 13.1 are ultimately determined by the
A)nucleic acid.
B)envelope.
C)capsomeres.
D)viroids.
E)membrane spikes.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?
A)biochemical tests
B)morphology
C)nucleic acid
D)size
E)number of capsomeres
Q4) Explain the steps involved in bacteriophage DNA entering a bacterial cell.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
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Q1) Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT
A)antibiotic resistance.
B)climatic changes.
C)new strains of previously known agents.
D)ease of travel.
E)The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.
Q2) The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that
A)microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.
B)diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another.
C)microorganisms can be cultured.
D)microorganisms cause disease.
E)microorganisms are the result of disease.
Q3) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
A)endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population
B)epidemic: a disease that is constantly present across the world
C)pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time
D)sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally
E)incidence: number of new cases of a disease
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Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endotoxins are
A)associated with gram-positive bacteria.
B)molecules that bind nerve cells.
C)part of the gram-negative cell wall.
D)excreted from the cell.
E)A-B toxins.
Q2) All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies EXCEPT
A)antigenic changes.
B)IgA proteases.
C)invasins.
D)membrane-disrupting toxins.
E)inducing endocytosis.
Q3) Most pathogens that gain access through the skin
A)can penetrate intact skin.
B)just infect the skin itself.
C)enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.
D)must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate.
E)must be injected.
Q4) Antibiotics can kill gram-negative bacteria,but symptoms of fever and low blood pressure can persist.Why?
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Chapter 16: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?
A)basophils
B)eosinophils
C)lymphocytes
D)monocytes
E)neutrophils
Q2) Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?
A)increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
B)increased margination of phagocytes
C)increased diapedesis of phagocytes
D)inflammation
E)cytolysis
Q3) Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT
A)phagocytosis.
B)inflammation.
C)production of antibody.
D)production of interferon.
E)activation of complement.
Q4) Describe and differentiate between the three pathways of activating complement.
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Chapter 17: Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) When an antibody binds to a toxin,the resulting action is referred to as A)agglutination.
B)opsonization.
C)ADCC.
D)apoptosis.
E)neutralization.
Q2) Can natural killer cells successfully perform duties without antibodies? Explain.
Q3) NK cells do all of the following EXCEPT
A)bind to Fc regions of bound antibodies.
B)kill cells not expressing MHCI.
C)participate in antibody dependent cell cytotoxicity.
D)become activated by TH-2 cells.
E)comprise 10-15% of circulating lymphocytes.
Q4) Which of the following statements about cytokines is FALSE?
A)They are soluble proteins or glycoproteins.
B)They are produced by immune cells in response to a stimulus.
C)Some have multiple functions.
D)They are chemical communication between cells.
E)There are 10 types.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Practical Applications of Immunology
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Q1) A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an antigen-antibody reaction is called a(n)
A)agglutination reaction.
B)complement fixation.
C)immunofluorescence.
D)neutralization reaction.
E)precipitation reaction.
Q2) Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Western blotting uses DNA probes to detect specific sequences in a mixture of proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A positive complement-fixation test is indicated by the lysis of the sheep red blood cells added in the indicator phase of the test.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Disorders Associated With the Immune System
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Q1) Which of the following statements about type IV reactions is FALSE?
A)Reactions are primarily due to T cell proliferation.
B)Reactions are not apparent for a day or more.
C)Cytokines initiate tissue damage.
D)Allergic contact dermatitis is an example.
E)Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example.
Q2) Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction?
A)Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens.
B)Antibodies are not made.
C)Cells are killed.
D)Immune complexes form.
E)Mediated by T cells.
Q3) Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B,Rh ?
A)anti-A,anti-B,anti-Rh
B)anti-A,anti-Rh
C)anti-A
D)anti-B,anti-Rh
E)anti-B
Q4) Differentiate type II from type III hypersensitivity reactions.
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) In Table 20.1,the minimal inhibitory concentration of antibiotic X is
A)2 g/ml.
B)10 g/ml.
C)15 g/ml.
D)25 g/ml.
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q2) Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis?
A)uracil
B)thymine
C)flucytosine
D)guanine
E)penicillin
Q3) From the data in Table 20.1,you can predict that the effect of the drug on a different microbe
A)will be the same.
B)will be weaker.
C)will be stronger.
D)can't be predicted from the information provided.
Q4) Explain why penicillin was called the "miracle drug" when it was first used in the 1940s.
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Chapter 21: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Describe the protective characteristics of the skin and mucus membranes and the ways pathogens may circumvent these to cause infections.
Q2) The majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of acne?
A)It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet.
B)It is often due to the action of Propionibacterium.
C)Drugs that inhibit sebum formation are useful in treating inflammatory acne.
D)Mild cases are treated with topical agents.
E)Antibiotics may be prescribed for moderate cases.
Q4) A patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face,throat,and lower back.She most likely has A)measles.
B)mumps.
C)chickenpox.
D)rubella.
E)smallpox.
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) A pathologist detects Negri bodies while examining a brain section taken at autopsy.What was the cause of death?
A)rabies
B)meningococcal meningitis
C)eastern equine encephalitis
D)Hansen's disease
E)poliomyelitis
Q2) CSF contains high levels of complement and circulating antibodies,as well as a patrolling group of specialized T lymphocytes,to prevent infection of the brain and spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because
A)no medications exist for treatment of these infections.
B)antibiotics damage nervous tissue.
C)many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
D)the infections move along peripheral nerves.
E)it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe.
Q4) There is an antitoxin for botulism.Why,then,is the outcome of botulism often fatal?
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Scrapings from a patient's rash reveal cercariae.The disease is most likely
A)Lyme disease.
B)Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
C)relapsing fever.
D)swimmer's itch.
E)Chagas' disease.
Q2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)cat-scratch disease - malignant pustule developing into septicemia
B)brucellosis - a temperature of 40°C each evening
C)tularemia - a localized infection appearing as a small ulcer
D)Borrelia - rash and flulike
E)toxoplasmosis - congenital brain damage
Q3) Which of the following CANNOT be transmitted to humans from domestic cats?
A)toxoplasmosis
B)plague
C)Chagas' disease
D)Bartonella
E)None of the answers is correct;all of these diseases can be transmitted to humans from domestic cats.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which one of the following diseases has a cutaneous form,especially in individuals over 30 years of age?
A)coccidioidomycosis
B)diphtheria
C)legionellosis
D)scarlet fever
E)psittacosis
Q2) The patient is suffocating because of an inflamed epiglottis.What is the etiology of the symptoms?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Haemophilus
C)Bordetella
D)Mycobacterium
E)RSV
Q3) Which one of the following does NOT cause otitis media?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Moraxella catarrhalis
E)Coxiella burnetii
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Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE?
A)It is a bacterial infection.
B)Severity of disease depends on number of organisms ingested.
C)A healthy carrier state exists.
D)The mortality rate is high.
E)It is often associated with poultry products.
Q2) Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with A)antitoxin.
B)penicillin.
C)water and electrolytes.
D)quinacrine.
E)thorough cooking.
Q3) Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by
A)biological vectors.
B)contaminated food and water.
C)unpasteurized milk.
D)the respiratory route.
E)exposure to contaminated soil.
Q4) Describe the process of periodontal disease.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which one of the following recurs at the initial site of infection?
A)gonorrhea
B)syphilis
C)genital herpes
D)chancroid
E)LGV
Q2) A patient is experiencing profuse greenish-yellow,foul-smelling discharge from her vagina.She is complaining of itching and irritation.What is the most likely treatment?
A)metronidazole
B)cephalosporins
C)acyclovir
D)miconazole
E)No treatment is available.
Q3) Most UTI infections in the population are a result of catheterization in a hospital setting.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Would you expect reported cases of urethritis to be higher than pyelonephritis?
Explain.
Chapter 27: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Bacteria can increase the Earth's temperature by
A)generating a great deal of heat in metabolism.
B)producing CH ,which is a greenhouse gas.
C)using the greenhouse gas CO .
D)providing nutrients for plant growth.
E)oxidizing CH .
Q2) Which of the following terms describes step III in Figure 27.1?
A)ammonification
B)denitrification
C)nitrification
D)nitrogen fixation
E)assimilation
Q3) Bioaugmentation involves
A)adding nitrogen and phosphorus to an area in need of remediation.
B)adding specialized microbes to an area in need of remediation.
C)producing humus from plant waste.
D)producing a methane by-product for powering facility equipment.
E)using microbes to filter out impurities from leach water.
Q4) Differentiate endomycorrhizae from ectomycorrhizae and give an example of each.
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Chapter 28: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) All of the following foods are produced using microbial fermentations EXCEPT
A)sauerkraut.
B)ketchup.
C)sour cream.
D)yogurt.
E)coffee.
Q2) Spoilage of canned foods due to inadequate processing,NOT accompanied by gas production,is
A)thermophilic anaerobic spoilage.
B)flat sour spoilage.
C)spoilage by mesophilic bacteria.
D)caused by acid-tolerant fungi.
E)putrefactive anaerobic spoilage.
Q3) Industrial canning,as opposed to home canning,is achieved using a pressure cooker which operates in a manner similar to an autoclave.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Vessels used for industrial fermentation reactions are known as bioreactors.Explain the difference between batch production and continuous flow production using a bioreactor.
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