Microbiology for Health Sciences
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Health Sciences provides an overview of the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on their relevance to human health and disease. The course explores the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites while emphasizing their roles in infection, immunity, and disease transmission. Students will learn about microbial metabolism, genetics, pathogenesis, laboratory identification techniques, and the mechanisms by which the human body defends itself against infectious agents. Practical applications in healthcare settings, such as sterilization, disinfection, and antibiotic resistance, are also discussed to prepare students for clinical practice in health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 4th Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) Semmelweis and Lister noted that many of their patients' deaths were due to A) fungi.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) chlorine.
D) pathogen transmission by doctors.
E) Staphylococcus.
Answer: D
Q2) Why did it take so long for humans to determine that microbes cause infectious diseases?
Answer: Microbes are too small to be seen with the naked eye, so until powerful-enough microscopes were invented, humans did not know that microbes existed. Even after humans were aware of the presence of microbes, they did not suspect them of causing disease until people such as Joseph Lister and Ignaz Semmelweis performed experiments that showed antiseptics decrease the incidence of infection.
Q3) How do microbes help in the extraction of minerals?
Answer: Several lithotrophic bacteria help in the rapid oxidation of minerals, which generates strong acids that expedite the breakdown of mineral ore. Currently, approximately 20% of the world's copper, as well as some uranium and zinc, is produced by bacterial leaching.
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) What is the MOST important property that enables a lens to magnify an image?
A) absorption
B) fluorescence
C) reflection
D) refraction
E) scattering
Answer: D
Q2) When two waves are out of phase by ________ wavelength, they produce destructive interference, canceling each other's amplitude and resulting in contrast in the image.
A) one-tenth of a
B) one-eighth of a
C) one-quarter of a
D) one-half of a
E) one
Answer: D
Q3) List and describe three common shapes of bacteria.
Answer: Bacilli (bacillus in the singular) are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci (singular, coccus) are spherical-shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are tightly coiled spirals or corkscrew-shaped bacteria.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Explain how a genetic approach can be used to understand cell division. Give an example.
Answer: First, genetic mutants are obtained that have various phenotypic variations in the cell division process, such as a loss of function. Then the defective protein can be determined. Once determined, further work can identify the exact mutation involved. For example, various mutations in ftsZ have been found that either fail to divide or form abnormal blebs. The exact amino acids changes are now known.
Q2) Which of the following is described as an attachment organelle that is a membrane-bound extension of the cytoplasm?
A) pili
B) fimbriae
C) sex pili
D) stalks
E) flagella
Answer: D
Q3) Explain how bacteria can produce proteins more quickly than eukaryotes do.
Answer: Bacteria have no membrane around the nucleoid. This transcription and translation can be coupled with no need to transport the mRNA out of a nucleus.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) You are measuring growth in a bacterial culture. The number of viable cells remains constant, and when you check the medium, you find that the carbon source has been used up. In which phase of growth is the culture?
A) lag
B) early log
C) late log
D) stationary
E) death
Q2) The shortest lag period would most likely be observed in the transfer
A) from complex medium to fresh complex medium.
B) from complex medium to minimal medium.
C) to a lower temperature.
D) to a different pH.
E) to a different salt concentration.
Q3) MacConkey medium contains bile salts, crystal violet, lactose, and the pH indicator neutral red. Some organisms can ferment lactose, producing acids as a by-product. Is this medium likely to be selective and/or differential? Explain.
Q4) Why does binary fission result in an exponential and not a linear growth rate?
Q5) Discuss some disadvantages of viable counts of microorganisms.
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) How are some organisms able to survive temporary exposures to elevated temperatures?
Q2) The proteins and cell components of halophiles have remarkably high intracellular levels of ________, which helps to maintain their cell structure.
A) oxygen
B) potassium
C) calcium
D) sodium
E) hydrogen
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true concerning irradiation of foods?
A) Food consumed by NASA astronauts is sterilized by irradiation.
B) Foods become radioactive when irradiated.
C) Viruses are resistant to doses approved for foods.
D) A higher dose of radiation is necessary to kill microbes in frozen foods.
E) It is effective in eliminating parasites and bacteria.
Q4) Why are thermophiles able to survive at temperatures that would quickly kill most mesophiles? Describe at least three adaptations.
Q5) Why do some microorganisms produce antibiotics, and how do they avoid being harmed by the antibiotics they produce?
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following is INCORRECT about a virus?
A) It may cause human pneumonia.
B) It may be as large as some bacteria.
C) It conducts DNA repair.
D) It conducts protein folding by chaperones.
E) It is a cellular particle.
Q2) David Baltimore proposed that the primary distinction among classes of viruses was the ________ composition and the route used to express messenger RNA.
A) genome
B) envelope
C) capsid
D) tegument
E) neck
Q3) All of the following are true about the measles virus EXCEPT that it
A) is encased by an envelope of membrane.
B) fuses with the host cell membrane during infection.
C) has progeny that bud out of the host cell.
D) generates a rash of red spots on the skin of infected patients.
E) is never fatal.
Q4) What determines the host range and tropism of a virus?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) The nucleoids of bacteria and most archaea, as well as the nuclear DNA of eukaryotes, are kept ________ supercoiled.
A) positively
B) neutrally
C) negatively
D) loosely
E) extra
Q2) A collection of genes and operons whose expression is controlled by a single protein is called a(n)
A) regulon.
B) monocistronic message.
C) polycistronic message.
D) intron.
E) exon.
Q3) How does a restriction-modification system avoid the destruction of a bacterium¢s own genome while breaking down foreign DNA?
Q4) Describe three practical applications of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and possible pitfalls.
Q5) What are the similarities and differences between DNA and RNA?
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The unusual bases found in tRNA are poor substrates for A) proteases.
B) polymerases.
C) ribosomes.
D) ribozymes.
E) RNases.
Q2) Which drug intercalates into DNA and inhibits transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A) streptomycin
B) actinomycin D
C) chloramphenicol
D) rifampin
E) tetracycline
Q3) ________ RNA polymerase plus sigma factor together are called ________.
A) Transcription; translation
B) Holoenzyme; core
C) Translation; transcription
D) Core; holoenzyme
E) Ribosome; rRNA
Q4) Name two antibiotics that affect translation and explain their modes of action.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) Large regions of sequence homology are required when recombining DNA molecules by ________ recombination.
A) general
B) site-specific
C) specialized
D) transposition
E) reversion
Q2) A difference between type II restriction enzyme and type I or type III restriction enzymes is that
A) type II enzymes require shorter recognition sequences.
B) type II enzymes cut at the recognition sequence rather than elsewhere.
C) type I and III cut palindromic sequences but type II does not.
D) type I and III require different proteins for methylation and cutting.
E) type II enzymes are found only in Gram-positive bacteria.
Q3) Agrobacterium can transfer DNA to ________ using its ________.
A) E. coli; LINES
B) E. coli; Ti plasmid
C) plants; LINES
D) plants; Ti plasmid
E) plants; opines
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) Glucose transport into the cell brings about a phenomenon known as inducer exclusion.
Describe how this functions with respect to the lac operon.
Q2) Which of the following is a second messenger that helps to regulate biofilm production?
A) ppGpp
B) ATP
C) cAMP
D) cGMP
E) cdiGMP
Q3) Which of the following is the favored carbon source of Escherichia coli?
A) lactose
B) galactose
C) sucrose
D) glucose
E) fructose
Q4) Explain a way that organisms sense and respond to their environment.
Q5) Explain what happens to motility when a chemoattractant is added to bacterial cells.
Q6) What is diauxic growth and why does it occur?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) Control proteins Cro and CII lead to lysis or lysogeny, respectively. What environmental signal in the host contributes to regulate the amount of CII by influencing the activity of the protease HflB?
A) Mg2+ ion concentrations
B) temperature
C) water availability
D) nutrient concentrations
E) helper phages
Q2) Integrated retroviral genomes that have accumulated mutations and can no longer generate virions are known as ________ retroviruses.
A) lysogenic
B) temperate
C) virulent
D) exogenous
E) endogenous
Q3) What types of infections are caused by herpes viruses? Describe the two possible types of replication processes that occur with the herpes viruses.
Q4) Describe the several features of lentivectors. What are their molecular sources?
Q5) What is an oncolytic virus? Give an example.
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Chapter 12: Biotechniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) In the first stage of the western blot procedure, a technique known as SDS-PAGE is used to separate proteins according to their
A) isoelectric points.
B) quaternary structures.
C) molecular weights.
D) amino acid sequences.
E) secondary structure compositions.
Q2) How is bacterial DNA cross-linked to putative binding proteins for chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP)?
A) exposure to UV light
B) treatment with formaldehyde
C) treatment with heat
D) reduction with dithiothreitol
E) reduction with b-mercaptoethanol
Q3) How do operon fusions reveal transcriptional control of a target gene?
Q4) What are translational fusions used for? How are they constructed?
Q5) How were GadE and GadX demonstrated to be transcription factors for the gadA gene?
Q6) Describe the use of a primary and secondary antibody in a western blot.
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Q7) Describe the whole-genome DNA-binding analysis using ChIP-on-chip technology.
Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) A bacterium capable of producing methane and water from carbon dioxide and hydrogen performs a type of metabolism called ________ and, given its sources of electrons, it is a ________.
A) methanogenesis; chemolithotroph
B) respiration; heterotroph
C) fermentation; chemoorganotroph
D) carbon fixation; phototroph
E) sulfur bacterium; chemolithotroph
Q2) Although ATP is the main energy carrier in living organisms, other molecules may also serve as energy carriers in metabolic reactions. Which of the following molecules does NOT carry energy?
A) nucleotides such as GTP
B) phosphoenolpyruvate
C) creatine phosphate
D) glucose
E) nucleotides such as CTP and UDP
Q3) What is substrate-level phosphorylation? Provide two examples from bacterial metabolism.
Q4) Define the human metagenome. Describe an example to demonstrate the importance of the metagenome.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy,
Phototrophy
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Q1) Some respiratory bacteria, such as the nitrate oxidizer, nitospira, pack their ETS within intracytoplasmic pockets called
A) insoluable particles.
B) mitochondrial inner membrane.
C) inner membrane space.
D) cristae.
E) lamellae.
Q2) The anammox reaction consists of __________ and, as a consequence, __________.
A) reduction of sulfate by ammonia; sulfur and nitrogen are incorporated into amino acids
B) reduction of ammonium to form nitrite; plants can absorb nitrite
C) anaerobic ammonium oxidation by nitrite; large amounts of N are released into the atmosphere
D) reduction of ammonium by water; ammonium becomes ammonia
E) reduction of N to ammonium; nitrogen atoms are incorporated into amino acids
Q3) How does Shewanella oneidensis donate electrons to oxidized minerals in marine sediments?
Q4) How does photosystem I allow Chlorobium and other green sulfur bacteria to live near deep-sea vents?
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) Two strains of E. coli were developed, each of which overproduced an amino acid, either histidine or tryptophan. When grown together in medium with adequate amino acids, they grew but did not associate with each other. When these strains were grown together in medium without histidine and tryptophan, they grew and formed ________ in order to ________.
A) carboxysomes; share the excess of the two amino acids
B) carboxysomes; provide ATP to each other to make the missing amino acids
C) nanotubes; share the excess of the two amino acids
D) nanotubes; provide ATP to each other to make the missing amino acids
E) heterocysts; share the excess of the two amino acids
Q2) Biological nitrogen fixation is energetically expensive. Assuming that NADPH is used as the reducing equivalent, how many ATPs are used in the enzymatic conversion of N to NH ?
A) 16
B) 32
C) 48
D) 64
E) none; only GTP is used
Q3) Briefly describe how NH is assimilated into biomass by bacteria.
Q4) How does the reductive or reverse TCA cycle differ from the regular TCA cycle?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) The most common food-borne cause of death in the United States is A) norovirus.
B) Salmonella enterica.
C) Campylobacter sp.
D) Clostridium botulinum.
E) Escherichia coli O157:H7.
Q2) Mold ripening refers to the secondary ________ stage of cheese production.
A) respiration
B) curd
C) contamination
D) bacterial
E) fermentation
Q3) Few bacteria are edible as isolated organisms because of their high content of A) proteins.
B) nucleic acids.
C) sugars.
D) carbohydrates.
E) lipids.
Q4) How is injera produced and why is it nutritionally better than quick-rising wheat breads?
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) The word "symbiosis" is usually understood to mean ________, a relationship in which both partners benefit and may absolutely require each other.
A) comensalism
B) parasitism
C) mutualism
D) predation
E) competition
Q2) Describe the intracellular endosymbiosis between algae of the genus Chlorella and Paramecium. Why is this symbiosis considered reversible?
Q3) Why do bacterial antibiotics have a greater effect on diminishing the effects of nematode infection caused by Brugia malayi (the etiologic agent of filariasis) than current antinematode agents?
Q4) Taxonomy can be defined as the
A) classifying of life forms into different categories with shared traits.
B) recognition of the class of a given microbe isolated in pure culture.
C) identification of a species in a sample or collection.
D) recognition of different classes of life.
E) testing of metabolic reactions to predict pathogenicity.
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) The firmicutes ________ are the only known phototrophs that produce endospores.
A) actinomycetales
B) bacillales
C) clostridiales
D) heliobacteriaceae
E) cyanobacteria
Q2) What are oligotrophs? Provide two examples of oligotrophic bacteria.
Q3) Bacteria in the genus Nitrospira
A) are Gram-negative, true lithotrophs or autotrophs.
B) possess carboxysomes, where they fix carbon dioxide or carbonate.
C) remove excess nitrite in aquatic ecosystems.
D) form symbiotic associations with other bacteria.
E) are generally found in freshwater or salt water.
Q4) The epsilonproteobacterium Helicobacter pylori is the cause of gastritis and stomach ulcers. What mechanism allows it to survive the acidic conditions of the mammalian stomach?
Q5) Describe the photosynthetic machinery of cyanobacteria.
Q6) What is unique about the genome of Borrelia species?
Q7) Describe the unique way in which spirochetes can be isolated from other environmental species. What makes this possible?
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) What are some of the unique features of archaeal gene regulation?
Q2) What novel adaptation would you expect undersea vent archaea to have versus archaea growing at a similar temperature in terrestrial hot springs?
A) barophily
B) thermophily
C) bacteriorhodopsin phototrophy
D) pseudopeptidoglycan
E) positively supercoiled genome
Q3) Sulfolobus species are referred to as double ________, meaning they require high temperature and high acidity simultaneously.
A) extremophiles
B) thermophiles
C) acidophiles
D) hyperthermophiles
E) thermoacidophiles
Q4) Why has Sulfolobus been studied so much more extensively than many archaea, and what is known about it?
Q5) Where are methanogens found in nature? What are some of the problems they can cause in these habitats?
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Which group has the widest range of form but the least diversity in terms of metabolism?
A) archaea
B) eukaryotes
C) bacteria
D) viruses
E) prokaryotes
Q2) One of the smallest eukaryotes recently discovered, the green alga Ostreococcus tauri, measures less than ________ across and its genome (8 Mb) is ________ the size of that of Escherichia coli.
A) 2 mm; barely twice
B) 500 nm; half
C) 10 mm; about
D) 1 mm; three times
E) 100 mm; five times
Q3) Compare and contrast radiolarians and foraminiferans.
Q4) Describe how the life cycle of the slime mold Dictyostelium discoideum is dependent upon prokaryotic organisms.
Q5) What are choanoflagellates and what is their importance in evolutionary studies?
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Much of the microbial fermentation in humans occurs in the A) stomach.
B) colon.
C) rumen.
D) small intestine.
E) esophagus.
Q2) The ________ region of an oligotrophic lake extends to about 10 meters below the surface.
A) neuston
B) benthic
C) epilimnion
D) hypolimnion
E) euphotic
Q3) Culturing methods often detect organisms that may be rare in the environment but prevail when nutrients appear. What are these typically called?
A) weed organisms
B) protists
C) rhizobia
D) OTUs
E) microbial dark matter
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) What do wastewater treatment plants have in common with wetland filtration (purification)?
A) The type of wastewater treated is the same.
B) The engineering designs and flow are similar.
C) They depend on microbes to remove nitrogen and carbon.
D) Chlorine is used to decontaminate pollutants.
E) They are both continually aerated.
Q2) Acid mine drainage is caused primarily by the microbial genus
A) Thalassiosira.
B) Leptothrix.
C) Prochlorococcus.
D) Acidithiobacillus.
E) Desulfovibrio.
Q3) Which of the following does bacteria use for iron uptake?
A) ferrodoxin
B) protein A
C) hemoglobin
D) siderophores
E) lipoprotein
Q4) What types of evidence suggest the past existence of water on Mars?
24
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an integral part of the inflammatory process?
A) dilation of blood vessels
B) release of histamines and prostaglandins
C) redness
D) extravasation
E) antibody synthesis
Q2) Opsonization is a process whereby the innate and adaptive immune mechanisms work together
A) to phagocytize an invader.
B) to activate complement proteins.
C) for antibody secretion.
D) to destroy cancer cells.
E) during apoptosis.
Q3) Detection of high levels of mannose-binding lectin in the blood could signify
A) the presence of an invading pathogen.
B) ongoing virus replication.
C) the activation of natural killer cells.
D) high levels of interferons.
E) in-progress differentiation of leukocytes.
Q4) Explain the distinguishing characteristics of innate and adaptive immunity.
25
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Bacteremia is a condition in which live bacteria enter the bloodstream, but not the cells of the body. Which form of processing would occur to stimulate a cell-mediated immune response?
A) bacterial peptide transported from cytoplasm to rER for presentation on MHC I
B) endocytosis by APC followed by presentation on MHC II
C) neutrophil phagocytosis with presentation on Fc receptor
D) cytotoxic T-cell endocytosis for presentation on CD8 receptor
E) B-cell capping for presentation on the B-cell receptor
Q2) Detail the benefits and predict possible risks of vaccinations.
Q3) Edward Jenner was able to demonstrate the first example of immunological cross-protection because
A) the smallpox virus was nonpathogenic.
B) the cowpox virus only affected milkmaids.
C) cowpox and smallpox viruses were metabolically different.
D) cowpox virus was structurally similar to the smallpox virus.
E) plague survivors were immune to smallpox.
Q4) X-linked hyper IgM syndrome (XHIM) is an immunodeficiency disorder caused by mutations of the gene encoding CD154. Why is this disease characterized by recurrent infections (starting in childhood) and elevated serum levels of IgM?
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Microbes can be transmitted indirectly from one person to another by inanimate objects, collectively called fomites. Describe the role of fomites in the spread of influenza.
Q2) Autophagy is used by a host cell to
A) activate G-proteins.
B) regulate phagocytosis.
C) scavenge nutrients from damaged organelles.
D) fight extracellular pathogens.
E) induce apoptosis.
Q3) Agent A has an LD of 400. Agent B has an LD of 600. Which is the more pathogenic agent, A or B? What is the relationship between this measure and microbial virulence?
Q4) Which of the following species causes whooping cough?
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Bordetella pertussis
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Mycoplasma
Q5) What are ubiquitination signals? Describe how a microbe can redirect these signals for its own purposes.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) The most common route of infection in a urinary tract infection is the ________ to the ________.
A) gallbladder; urethra
B) bladder; kidney
C) kidney; bladder
D) urethra; bladder
E) kidney; urethra
Q2) People who come down with STDs and do not get treated, frequently end up with co-STD infections. Why is this? Explain.
Q3) Giardia lamblia enters a human or other host in what form?
A) spore
B) endospore
C) cyst
D) worm
E) trophozoite
Q4) Compare and contrast the characteristic symptoms of the common cold and the flu.
Q5) What evidence suggests that Columbus did not bring syphilis back from the New World, but instead brought it from Europe to the New World?
Page 28
Q6) What makes uropathogenic Escherichia coli different from the other E. coli?
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Why is metronidazole uneffective against an aerobic bacteria like Staphylococcus aureas?
Q2) Which of the following is an antiviral that inhibits DNA synthesis?
A) Acyclovir
B) Amantadine
C) Zanamivir
D) Ribavirin
E) Raltegravir
Q3) One way a macrolide-producing organism, such as Streptomyces sp., prevents its own demise from production of the antibiotic is to
A) methylate its own RNA.
B) change its peptidoglycan linkages.
C) create an MDR pump.
D) change its DNA structure.
E) only produce the antibiotic during the death phase.
Q4) Compare and contrast the utility of the antibiotic polymyxin versus cephalosporin in clearing up an Escherichia coli skin infection that has become systemic.
Q5) Why are drug-resistant bacteria less viable in comparison with wild type?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/27338
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe what the One Health Initiative is and the role it played in the 2006 outbreak of food-borne O157:H7 in spinach.
Q2) How can reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) be used to determine the presence and viral load of HIV infection?
Q3) Which of the following criteria is NOT required in order for a mosquito-borne virus to become endemic in a new location?
A) A person infected elsewhere must travel to the new area.
B) A local mosquito must bite a person who has the disease in order to spread it to someone else.
C) The virus must move from an Aedes mosquito to another insect vector.
D) The virus must move from the local mosquito to a local animal that can then serve as a reservoir.
E) The local mosquito must bite another human in that area and give him or her the disease.
Q4) Compare and contrast the use of the serum antibody ELISA with the antigen-capture ELISA in the detection of Ebola.
Q5) How would a serum antibody ELISA work in the detection of Lyme disease?
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Page 30