Microbiology for Health Sciences
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth introduction to the fundamentals of microbiology with a focus on the roles and impacts of microorganisms in human health and disease. Students will explore the structure, function, metabolism, and genetics of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa, while examining principles of infection, immunity, and epidemiology. Laboratory exercises reinforce concepts related to aseptic technique, microbial identification, and clinical diagnostics. Emphasis is placed on the significance of microbes in healthcare settings, disease prevention, antimicrobial therapies, and public health. This course is intended for students pursuing careers in health sciences, offering foundational knowledge essential for understanding the microbial world and its relevance to human health.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 9th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the area of biology that states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time.
Answer: Evolution
Q2) When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called A)bioremediation.
B)genetic engineering.
C)epidemiology.
D)immunology.
E)taxonomy.
Answer: B
Q3) Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of the same kingdom.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms.
Answer: carbon
Q3) Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded
A)identical atoms.
B)carbon atoms.
C)ions.
D)atoms of different electronegativity.
E)atoms of identical electronegativity.
Answer: D
Q4) All proteins are enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth.
Answer: incubated
Q2) How will E. coli appear if the mordant is not applied?
A) Gram-positive
B) Gram-negative
C) Gram-variable
D) Colorless
E) None of these
Answer: B
Q3) Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) At the end of the Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has A)fimbriae.
B)capsule.
C)mesosomes.
D)flagella.
E)metachromatic granules.
Q2) Which of the following, pertaining to prokaryotic cell membranes, is mismatched?
A)internal folds - mesosomes
B)sterols present - mycoplasmas
C)form a bilayer - phospholipids
D)unique hydrocarbon present - cyanobacteria
E)function - regulates transport of nutrients and wastes
Q3) What is the correct sequence for a Gram stain?
A)Gram's iodine, Crystal Violet, Alcohol, Safranin
B)Crystal Violet, Safranin, Alcohol, Gram's iodine
C)Crystal Violet, Gram's iodine, Alcohol, Safranin
D)Safranin, Crystal Violet, Gram's iodine, Alcohol
E)Alcohol, Crystal Violet, Safranin, Gram's iodine
Q4) Compare the following: bacterial species, bacterial strain, and bacterial type. Explain the relationship and development of strains and types to a species.
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stacks of thylakoids in a chloroplast are called A)grana.
B)stroma.
C)mesosomes.
D)cristae.
E)packages.
Q2) Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of A)protozoa. B)algae. C)helminths.
D)fungi.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a _____.
Q4) Plankton are floating communities of helminths. A)True B)False
Q5) Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells are called _______.
Q6) The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called _____.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect?
A)inclusions in the nucleus
B)multinucleated giant cells
C)inclusions in the cytoplasm
D)cells round up
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except
A)type of nucleic acid.
B)type of capsid.
C)presence of an envelope.
D)biochemical reactions.
E)nucleic acid strand number.
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
A)envelope
B)capsomers
C)capsid
D)nucleic acid
E)genome
Q4) A naked virus does not have a(n) _____.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a(n)
A)Extremophile
B)Thermophile
C)Psychrophile
D)Facultative psychrophile
E)Thermoduric
Q2) In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated.Each _____ represents one _____ from the sample.
A)Cell, cell
B)Cell, colony
C)Colony, cell
D)Species, colony
E)Generation, cell
Q3) Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes that catalyze moving a phosphate from one substrate to another are called
A)Phosphotransferases
B)Oxidoreductases
C)Decarboxylases
D)Aminotransferases
E)Ligases
Q2) Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts of prokaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The reactions of fermentation function to produce _____ molecules for use in glycolysis.
A)Pyruvic acid
B)ATP
C)NAD
D)NADH
E)Glucose
Q4) Exoenzymes from pathogens are called virulence factors.
A)True
B)False
10
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype?
A)Is inherited
B)Are structural genes coding for proteins
C)Are genes coding for RNA
D)Are regulatory genes controlling gene expression
E)Are the expressed traits governed by the genes
Q2) DNA gyrase
A)Unwinds DNA
B)Supercoils DNA
C)Cleaves DNA
D)Joins free DNA ends
E)None of the choices are correct
Q3) The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in
A)Bacterial conjugation
B)Transformation
C)Generalized transduction
D)Specialized transduction
E)All of the choices are correct
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Q1) Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are
A)genetic engineering.
B)biotechnology.
C)recombinant DNA.
D)gel electrophoresis.
E)gene probes.
Q2) Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host.
Q3) The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.
Q4) Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are
A)palindromes.
B)reverse transcriptases.
C)restriction endonucleases.
D)ligases.
E)DNA polymerases.
Q5) Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are:
A)naked viruses.
B)vegetative bacteria and fungi.
C)endospores.
D)protozoan cysts.
E)Mycobacterium and Staphylococcus.
Q2) The chemical agent that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O<sub>2</sub> gas is:
A)Cidex.
B)Cationic detergents.
C)Hydrogen peroxide.
D)Chlorhexidine.
E)Iodophors.
Q3) All of the following are phenols or phenolics, except: A)Lysol.
B)Hexachlorophene.
C)Triclosan.
D)Cresols.
E)Chloramines.
Q4) _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat.
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host-The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following will influence a physician's decision to prescribe an antimicrobial?
A)patient age
B)pregnancy
C)liver function
D)alcohol use
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which bacteria does Levaquin target?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Moraxella catarrhalis
D)Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
E)All of the choices are correct
Q3) Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for AZT?
A)It is a thymine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis.
B)It directly binds to reverse transcriptase and prevents reverse transcription of HIV RNA.
C)It inhibits the assembly of HIV particles.
D)It inhibits fusion of the viral envelope and host cell envelope.
E)It prevents the viral DNA from integrating in the host chromosome.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection, Disease, and Epidemiology
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Q1) _____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.
Q2) Nosocomial infections involve all the following, except
A)they are only transmitted by medical personnel.
B)they often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions.
C)the patient's resident flora can be the infectious agent.
D)Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents.
E)medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.
Q3) A student has their teeth cleaned.The hygienist nicks their gum tissue.The student develops endocarditis due to Streptococcus.What kind of pattern of infection is this?
A)Localized
B)Mixed Infection
C)Focal
D)Systemic
E)All of the choices are correct
Q4) Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.
Q6) _____ are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following can be recognized by toll-like receptors, except A)single-stranded viral RNA.
B)flagellin.
C)host cell membrane proteins.
D)lipoteichoic acid.
E)lipopolysaccharide.
Q2) Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor.This means A)redness.
B)pain.
C)loss of function.
D)warmth.
E)swelling.
Q3) The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as A)Lymph nodes.
B)Thymus.
C)Spleen.
D)GALT.
E)Tonsils.
Q4) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for A)asthma.
B)Chron's disease.
C)breast cancer.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail.He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot.What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive?
A)Natural active immunity
B)Artificial passive immunity
C)Natural passive immunity
D)Artificial active immunity
E)None of the choices will help him.
Q3) Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the major histocompatability complex with regard to its: a) location, b) composition, c) relationship to specific cell markers, and d) role in regulation of immune reactions.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A)autoantibodies.
B)delayed hypersensitivity.
C)congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
D)failure of B cell development and maturity.
E)a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.
Q2) Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Allergic _________ is a seasonal reaction to inhaled pollen or molds.
Q4) Contact dermatitis involves
A)a sensitizing and provocative dose.
B)allergen entering the skin.
C)T lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines.
D)itchy papules and blisters.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) The practice of delaying the introduction of solid foods has no validity in preventing allergies in children.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Describe three possible sampling sites and methods of collection for clinical laboratories.
Q2) When antigen-antibody reactions are used to read a _____, they determine the quantity of antibodies in the serum.
Q3) Describe the indirect ELISA test that is used as a screening test for HIV (AIDS) and include the following: a) sequence of procedures, b) reagents used, and c) detection and interpretation of a positive test.
Q4) Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test?
A)First antigen and antibody are allowed to react.
B)Purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube.
C)Sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture.
D)Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q5) Soluble antigens are detected in which type of test?
A)cross-reactions
B)agglutination
C)precipitation
D)specificity
E)sensitivity
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Local Staphylococcus aureus infections often involve formation of an abscess.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections, except:
A)they often from an endogenous source.
B)they typically occur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices.
C)catheterization can introduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infection.
D)the organism is coagulase negative.
E)the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.
Q3) The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is:
A)erysipelas.
B)impetigo.
C)necrotizing fasciitis.
D)scarlet fever.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Discuss in detail why strep sore throat must be diagnosed and treated rapidly.
Q5) Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group _____ streptococci. B
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Q6) The two important hemolysins of Group A streptococci are _____ and _____.
Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) The granulomas that develop in the lung tissue during tuberculosis are termed _____.
Q2) Diphtherotoxin targets cells in the _____ and _____.
Q3) Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the causative agent of Farmer's Lung and Bagossis?
A)Actinomyces israelii
B)Nocardia brasiliensis
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D)Bacillus anthracis
E)Clostridium perfringens
Q5) Swimming pool granuloma is caused by:
A)Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC).
B)Mycobacterium kansasii.
C)Mycobacterium scrofulaceum.
D)Mycobacterium fortuitum complex.
E)Mycobacterium marinum.
Q6) Thoracic _____ is a complication of a burst appendix or gunshot wound. Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Escherichia coli infections
A)are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.
B)include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains.
C)involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.
D)can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Although Burkholderia cepacia could be very useful in bioremediation programs, it is not feasible to use it.Why?
A)Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract.
B)Because it cannot be cultured in the lab to necessary numbers.
C)Because it is too expensive at this time to grow it.
D)It encourages the overgrowth of fungus in the environment, which is not desirable.
E)It produces a foul odor making it a poor choice for most situations.
Q3) Which is mismatched?
A)H antigen - fimbriae
B)K antigen - capsule
C)O antigen - cell wall, somatic
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) When plaque becomes mineralized with calcium and phosphate crystals, it becomes a hard, porous substance called _____.
Q2) Chlamydia trachomatis causes
A)nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males.
B)cervicitis in females.
C)congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis.
D)ocular trachoma.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?
A)gram negative
B)produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea
C)curved rods
D)lives in the stomach
E)produces urease that buffers stomach acidity
Q4) Which of the following characteristics is NOT true of Treponema pallidum?
A)Requires mammalian host
B)Microaerophilic
C)Causative agent of syphilis
D)Solely utilizes glycolysis for energy
E)Grows well on chocolate agar in the laboratory
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called
A)fungal virulence.
B)parasitism.
C)dimorphism.
D)dermatophytes.
E)opportunistic fungi.
Q2) Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics, except A)commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia
B)a capsulated yeast
C)in high numbers in soil containing pigeon droppings
D)usually enters body by inhalation
E)primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, and diabetes
Q3) Oral thrush is caused by A)Cryptococcus neoformans.
B)Candida albicans.
C)Malassezia furfur.
D)Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Diseases caused by fungi are termed _____.
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which parasite is carried by Cyclops, an arthropod commonly found in still water?
A)Schistosoma mansoni
B)Dracunculus medinesis
C)Fasciola hepatica
D)Taenia saginata
E)Toxoplasma gondii
Q2) Schistosomiasis involves
A)a blood fluke.
B)eggs from humans enter water and develop into miracidium.
C)snails allow development into cercaria.
D)cercariae enter hair follicles and pass to the blood and then the liver.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Boiling will not kill Giardia lamblia cysts in contaminated water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person carrying one gene for sickle-cell hemoglobin will be resistant to Plasmodium infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Q1) Compare and contrast Hepatitis B virus, Hepatitis A virus, and Hepatitis C virus with regard to: a) virus characteristics, b) reservoir, c) transmission, d) incubation, e) symptoms, f) complications, and g) immunization.
Q2) Polyomaviruses:
A)cause common asymptomatic to mild infections.
B)cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy.
C)cause problems in renal transplant patients.
D)include the JC virus and BK virus.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following may cause reactivation of varicella-zoster virus as shingles?
A)developing malignancy
B)X-ray treatments
C)immunosuppressive conditions
D)surgery
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using at least three examples, summarize how HPV can be prevented.
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with:
A)croup.
B)mumps.
C)influenza.
D)measles (rubeola).
E)rubella.
Q2) A client displays symptoms of fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, neurological changes and enlarged lymph nodes.The client thought they had the flu because they felt ill, then felt better over the last 5 years.However, this cycle of feeling tired has led to fever, fatigue, sore throat, and night sweats with a rash.The patient also has thrush.Among various blood tests, which result indicates the causative agent of AIDS?
A)High level of CD4 T cells
B)Positive level of HIV antigen
C)Positive isolation of Candida albicans
D)Positive isolation of Herpes simplex ulcers
E)Positive isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q3) The influenza virus uses _____ spikes to bind to host cells.
Q4) An antigenic _____ occurs when there is a minor change in antigenicity caused by small mutations in a single influenza virus strain.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) A group of organisms of the same species within a community is called a A)niche.
B)habitat.
C)population.
D)community.
E)biome.
Q2) In a synergistic relationship, the action of one microbe favorably affects another, but the first microbe receives no benefit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide are believed to be _____ gases that could disrupt the temperature balance of the earth.
Q4) Indicator bacteria are A)coliforms.
B)gram-negative rods.
C)evidence of fecal contamination.
D)used in water quality tests.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) Discuss and give several examples of the use of microbes in bioremediation.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Compare and contrast the starting materials, processing steps, and microbes used in brewing beer and making wine.
Q2) __________ metabolites are by-products of metabolism and essential to the microbe's function.
Q3) Downstream processing includes all the following except A)recovery
B)purification
C)packaging
D)growth of the microorganism
E)It includes all of the above.
Q4) Implementation of the HAACP procedures has increased the concentration of alcohol in distilled liquors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Draw and label a generic microbial growth curve, including the points at which metabolites are formed.
Q6) A _____ is a device used for growing mass cultures.
Q7) Why are cases of food borne illnesses escalating in the United States despite our knowledge of how to prevent outbreaks?
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