Microbiology for Health Sciences Exam
Practice Tests
Course
Introduction
Microbiology for Health Sciences provides an in-depth understanding of microorganisms and their roles in human health and disease. The course covers the structure, classification, and physiology of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, emphasizing their impact on public health and clinical practice. Students will learn about mechanisms of infection, host immune responses, antimicrobial resistance, and laboratory techniques used in microbial identification. Applications in disease prevention, infection control, and the development of therapeutic interventions are highlighted to prepare students for careers in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 3rd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can safely be ingested to fight bacterial infections?
A) antiseptics
B) disinfectants
C) phenol
D) chlorine
E) antibiotics
Answer: E
Q2) Carl Woese's discovery replaced the classification scheme of five kingdoms with a scheme of three:
A) phyla
B) domains
C) classes
D) orders
E) genera
Answer: B
Q3) Robert Koch's postulates have not been used to prove HIV as the causative agent of AIDS. Why not?
Answer: Answers may vary, but a major reason is that humans cannot be injected with HIV to see if they develop AIDS!
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fluorescence microscopy using labeled antibodies is referred to as:
A) immunofluorescence
B) autofluorescence
C) confocal microscopy
D) phase-contrast microscopy
E) dark-field microscopy
Answer: A
Q2) A(n) __________ acts to vary the diameter of the light column in a light microscope.
A) condenser
B) objective
C) ocular
D) diaphragm
E) lens
Answer: D
Q3) List and describe three common shapes of bacteria.
Answer: Bacilli (bacillus in the singular) are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci (singular, coccus) are spherical-shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are tightly coiled spirals or corkscrew-shaped bacteria.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) How could you use green fluorescent protein as a reporter gene to compare production of a specific protein in a cell culture when the culture is growing under different environmental conditions?
Answer: The gene for green fluorescent protein could be fused to the gene that encodes the protein of interest. If that protein is produced when the cells are growing under specific conditions, the cells will also produce the green fluorescent protein. If that protein is not produced under certain growth conditions, the cells will not appear fluorescent green. The cell cultures could be grown using the different test conditions, and the degree of fluorescence compared.
Q2) How can some prokaryotes double in as little as ten minutes?
Answer: Transcription and translation occur in a coordinated fashion as the DNA is being replicated. As soon as a ribosome-binding site is exposed, a ribosome binds and begins translating. Multiple ribosomes can translate a single mRNA concurrently. This provides all the necessary information to produce progeny. More importantly, the chromosome is replicated bidirectionally. Before replication is completed, new replication forks begin at the ori. Even though the speed of replication could not replicate a chromosome in that short a time, since there are multiple forks replicating, it ensures that a cell will get a full copy of the genome.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of all biofilms?
A) They only contain a single species.
B) The EPS may be protein or polysaccharide.
C) Cells in the biofilm are dormant until the bacteria leave the biofilm.
D) The EPS is secreted by the bacteria.
E) It is a continuous monolayer surface deposit.
Q2) Explain the difference between electrogenic and electroneutral coupled transport and give an example of each.
Q3) Which of the following is the best technique for counting only viable cells?
A) direct microscopic count
B) spread plate
C) spectrophotometer
D) chemostat
E) dry weight measurements
Q4) How do some cyanobacteria fix nitrogen while growing aerobically?
A) They don't, because nitrogenase is destroyed by oxygen.
B) They use special cells called heterocysts that protect the enzyme.
C) They use cysts that protect the enzyme.
D) They do it using no special structures or mechanisms.
E) They live symbiotically with other organisms that protect the enzyme.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organism that requires full oxygen tensions of 21% for growth is:
A) aerobic
B) microaerophilic
C) aerotolerant
D) anaerobic
E) facultative
Q2) At the bottom of the ocean, hydrostatic pressure averages a crushing 400 atm (atmospheres) and can go as high as:
A) 700 atm
B) 1,000 atm
C) 1,500 atm
D) 3,000 atm
E) 3,500 atm
Q3) Piezophile is another term for:
A) acidophile
B) halophile
C) psychrophile
D) barotolerant
E) barophile
Q4) Describe three mechanisms organisms use to reduce osmotic stress.
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes for the capsid proteins are found in the:
A) plasmid
B) bacterial chromosome
C) envelope
D) ribosome
E) viral genome
Q2) The primary factor determining the life cycle of an animal virus is the physical form of the:
A) envelope
B) capsid
C) genome
D) receptor
E) burst
Q3) Compare and contrast the Baltimore classification of viruses to the proteomic analysis of bacteriophages. Which more accurately reflects the significant impact of phage evolution?
Q4) The myxovirus was introduced to Australia to control the rabbit population. How does the virus keep the rabbit population relatively low without killing all of the rabbits?
Q5) What determines the host range and tropism of a virus?
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Archaea resemble eukaryotes in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) nuclear membrane
B) DNA-packing proteins
C) RNA polymerase
D) ribosomal components
E) DNA polymerase
Q2) Differentiate between topoisomerase type I and topoisomerase type II. What is the role they play in bacterial chromosome structure?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about histones?
A) They are rich in arginine and lysine.
B) They bind to negatively charged DNA.
C) They are positively charged.
D) They are used to control expression of bacterial operons.
E) They form units with DNA called nucleosomes.
Q4) Describe the similarities and differences between DNA and RNA.
Q5) Describe two ways that the study of bacteria and their processes has led to the development of molecular biology and revolutionized genetics.
Q6) What determines when DNA replication begins?
Q7) Describe three functions of DNA polymerase III.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peptidyl transferase is present in the __________ ribosomal subunit.
A) 30S
B) 50S
C) 5S
D) 16S
E) 80S
Q2) After __________, each polypeptide must be properly folded and placed at the correct cellular or extracellular location.
A) replication
B) transcription
C) translation
D) degradation
E) conjugation
Q3) __________ RNA polymerase plus sigma factor together are called
A) Transcription; translation
B) Holoenzyme; core
C) Translation; transcription
D) Core; holoenzyme
E) Ribosome; rRNA
Q4) How do sigma factors regulate major physiological responses?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the differences in the transformation process in Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms.
Q2) __________ is the process of moving a genetic element within or between DNA molecules.
A) Conjugation
B) Transduction
C) Transformation
D) Transposition
E) Reversion
Q3) Restriction enzymes are categorized into three types based on all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the number of subunits in the enzyme
B) the phages that are susceptible to their activity
C) the cofactors required for activity
D) where the DNA cleavage sites are located
E) whether the enzyme methylates the host DNA
Q4) When a nonpermissive strain of Salmonella was infected with a P22 phage carrying a tetracycline resistance gene, the Salmonella still became resistant at a high frequency. How did this happen and what suggested this was the case?
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which molecule is used for hybridization to DNA bound on a DNA microchip?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) mRNA
D) cDNA
E) any of the above
Q2) How is sigma H degradation controlled by temperature, and why is this important to the cell?
Q3) The role of the Hin recombinase is to:
A) recombine specific segments of the DNA of Haemophilus influenzae
B) recombine specifc segments of flagellin genes in Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) recombine specific segments of MCP genes in Salmonella enterica
D) recombine specific segments of flagellin genes in Salmonella enterica
E) repair damage in DNA
Q4) The AraC-like regulators share homology with each other at which locations?
A) both their C-terminal end and their N-terminal end
B) neither their C-terminal end nor their N-terminal end
C) their C-terminal end only
D) their N-terminal end only
E) the center
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do highly virulent strains of the influenza virus appear periodically?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a picornavirus?
A) poliovirus
B) coxsackievirus
C) influenza virus
D) rhinovirus
E) aphthovirus
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an accessory protein found in HIV that regulates its cell cycle?
A) Nef
B) Vpu
C) Tat
D) Rev
E) Gag
Q4) A fusion peptide is associated with which influenza virus protein?
A) hemagglutinin
B) neuraminidase
C) matrix
D) nuclear-packaging protein
E) cap-stealing protein
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Chapter 12: Bio-techniques and Synthetic Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the conceptual basis of the primer extension technique?
Q2) Infection of potato crops by the fungus Phytophthora infestans is a constant menace to farmers. A biotechnological approach to prevent the recurrence of such an infestation is:
A) cloning of a wild potato gene that conveys resistance to P. infestans into commercial potato breeds
B) frequently spraying potato plants with fungicide throughout the growing season
C) watering plants with a trickling mechanism to avoid excessive dampness
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Describe the whole-genome DNA-binding analysis using ChIP-on-chip technology.
Q4) When using a luminescent reaction as part of the detection system in a western blot, released photons may be revealed by:
A) UV illumination
B) phosphoimaging
C) colorimetry
D) spectrophotometry
E) none of the above
Q5) How can a protein be detected on a western blot?
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria synthesize ribose for nucleotides using which pathway?
A) Embden-Meyerhoff-Parnas
B) Entner-Doudoroff
C) pentose phosphate shunt
D) tricarboxylic acid cycle
E) all of the above
Q2) The enzyme pyruvate kinase catalyzes the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate; the phosphate group is transferred to ADP to form ATP. This reaction is an example of:
A) ATP synthesis by substrate-level phosphorylation
B) the use of a proton concentration gradient by [H<sup>+</sup>]-ATPases to synthesize ATP
C) ATP coupled to FADH<sub>2</sub> oxidation
D) a P-Type ATPase activity
E) none of the above
Q3) What is substrate-level phosphorylation? Provide two examples from bacterial metabolism.
Q4) What is mixed-acid fermentation? Provide examples of industrial uses of its products.
Q5) How can a technique such as calorimetry be used to measure \(\Delta\)G?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) Bacterial activity in Earth's crust may have deposited most of the gold through the process of:
A) reduction of hydrosoluble Au<sup>3+</sup>
B) oxidation of Au<sup>3+</sup>
C) oxidation of gold ores
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) The F<sub>o</sub> portion of Escherichia coli ATP synthase that rotates while translocating protons is:
A) the \(\gamma\) drive shaft
B) the \(\alpha\) proton channel
C) a ring of 12 c subunits
D) an \(\alpha\)\(\beta\)-subunit
E) none of the above
Q3) The F<sub>1</sub>F<sub>o</sub> ATP synthase is a remarkably complex enzyme, its subunit structure highly conserved across life domains. Is it possible to use this enzyme as an antibiotic target?
Q4) What are facultative phototrophs? Provide an example and its possible use in biotechnology.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "genome degeneration" refers to:
A) the loss of a particular biosynthetic pathway when an organism becomes dependent on other species in the environment
B) catabolic
C) the genetic regulatory mechanisms triggered after bacteria are exposed to UV
D) irreversible
E) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding secondary metabolites produced by free-living microbes?
A) Many of them are used as antibiotics.
B) Some secondary metabolites can inhibit the growth of competitor microbes.
C) They are sources of carbon, nitrogen, and other elements in anabolic pathways.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q3) Briefly describe the reductive acetyl-CoA pathway. What is its relevance for methanogens?
Q4) How does the reductive or reverse TCA cycle differ from the regular TCA cycle?
Q5) Briefly describe the biosynthetic pathway for arginine.
Q6) How is fatty acid biosynthesis regulated in bacteria?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) With respect to an industrial process, what are upstream and downstream processing methods, and how do they differ?
Q2) Production of traditionally fermented foods typically relies on __________ flora, whereas commercial fermentation generally relies on __________.
A) starter cultures; normal
B) normal; indigenous
C) starter cultures; indigenous
D) indigenous; starter cultures
E) indigenous; chemicals
Q3) Which of the following is the most common cause of food-borne deaths in the United States?
A) norovirus
B) Salmonella
C) Campylobacter
D) Clostridium botulinum
E) coli O157:H7
Q4) Describe several physical means of food preservation.
Q5) Why are wines different colors if they are all made from grapes?
Q6) What is pidan and how is it made?
18
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) The ancestral organism that gave rise to the modern-day chloroplast was:
A) a lichen
B) a cyanobacterium
C) Wolbachia
D) a rhizobial bacteroid
E) a methanogen
Q2) Explain how studying the evolutionary rate of RNA viruses in comparison to DNA viruses can help explain the evolutionary rate in the early Earth?
Q3) What type of laboratory medium and conditions would you need in order to culture the secondary symbiont alga Guillardia theta?
Q4) The term "pan-genome" can best be defined as:
A) the world DNA genomic databank
B) the sum of all expected genetic sequence variations found within a given species
C) genomic islands found in pathogenic organisms
D) the entire genomic sequence of all known organisms
E) differences in RNA transcription between species
Q5) How could catalytic activity in enzyme proteins have evolved from catalytic RNA?
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) The cell wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis contains:
A) mycolyl-arabinogalactan-peptidoglycan
B) mycolic acids
C) phenolic glycolipids
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) A bacterial phylum is a group of organisms that share a common ancestor that diverged early from other bacteria, based on:
A) small-subunit (16S) rRNA sequences
B) the presence of certain plasmids
C) their genomic size
D) having 70S or 80S ribosomes
E) the presence or absence of a cell wall
Q3) The phylum Deinococcus-Thermus contains organisms that thrive in very different environments. Compare and contrast Deinococcus species and Thermus species. Why are these organisms assigned to the same phylum?
Q4) How do Bacteroides fragilis and B. thetaiotaomicron contribute to 15% of human caloric intake? Are there other benefits provided by these microbes to human health? Are they potentially pathogenic?
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Nitrosopumilus maritimus is able to oxidize:
A) nitrate
B) ammonia
C) sulfide
D) sulfate
E) methane
Q2) Some archaea contain genomes with positive superturns generated by __________, which protect DNA from high temperatures.
A) helicase
B) polymerase
C) primase
D) reductase
E) reverse gyrase
Q3) Laboratory isolation of Nanoarchaeum equitans requires the presence of:
A) fatty acids
B) oxygen
C) Ignicoccus
D) sunlight
E) horse cell culture
Q4) Crenarchaeol is a biosignature for Thaumarchaeota. Describe its structure.
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Of the choices listed below, which domain has the LEAST diversity in terms of metabolism?
A) Archaea
B) Eukarya
C) Bacteria
D) Monera
E) Prokarya
Q2) Trypanosomes are a group of organisms that share which of the following characteristics?
A) free-living aquatic parasites, round cell, no flagellum
B) intestinal parasites, shelled cell structure with pseudopodia
C) opportunistic parasites, multicellular with paired flagellum and unique chloroplast
D) obligate parasites, elongated cell with single flagellum and unique kinetoplast
E) anaerobic parasites, single cellular structure with cilia
Q3) Organisms categorized as Metamonad are considered to be highly degenerative parasites. What does this mean and why did they evolve this way?
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22
Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) What does it mean when one says that a particular fluorescent dye intercalates into DNA? Provide an example of how epifluorescence has been used.
Q2) Lignin decomposition forms:
A) arbuscules
B) detritus
C) fruiting bodies
D) humus
E) rhizopus
Q3) Synechococcus, a cyanobacterium, is a free-living marine organism that fixes CO<sub>2</sub> into biomass while producing molecular oxygen utilized by swarms of heterotrophic bacteria. Its biomass provides food for protists and predators. What is the niche of this organism?
A) phototroph in the open ocean
B) base of the food chain
C) nitrogen assimilation for the ocean environment
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) How do microbes live if their metabolic process to generate energy has a positive \(\Delta\)G?
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) On which of the following planets does humankind expect to find life because of the similarity of its geology to that of Earth?
A) Jupiter
B) Venus
C) Mars
D) Jupiter's moon Europa
E) Pluto
Q2) Which of the following would be more problematic in Kansas than Florida?
A) mercury-contaminated fish
B) nitrite-induced blue baby syndrome
C) uranium-contaminated soil
D) iron-corroded pipes
E) sulfur-contaminated coal
Q3) Discuss the concept of iron fertilization to remove excess CO<sub>2</sub> from the atmosphere. Who is the well-known musician supporting this research?
Q4) Describe the wetland system set up by a hog farmer to treat his hog-farm waste.
Q5) Household septic systems include a tank that collects sludge and a porous leaching field that receives clarified effluent. How is this similar to or different from municipal wastewater treatment plants?
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) How does eating sugar cause dental caries and cavities?
Q2) An organism found on human skin that derives benefit from, but does NOT harm, the host is described as a(n):
A) parasite
B) commensal
C) opportunist
D) pathogen
E) mutualist
Q3) The aerobe to anaerobe ratio showing the greatest difference in concentrations occurs in the:
A) intestinal tract
B) mouth
C) skin
D) respiratory tract
E) genitourinary tract
Q4) What explains the ability of Helicobacter pylori to defy stomach acidity?
Q5) How is it that Gram-positive cells are more resistant to complement than Gram-negative cells?
Q6) Discuss two methods by which bacteria resist or evade killing by phagocytosis.
Q7) Explain how the small polypeptide bradykinin promotes edema and pain.
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic, inflammatory autoimmune disorder affecting the skin, joints, kidneys, and other organs. A hallmark of lupus is the production of an array of autoantibodies. Some scientists believe that the autoantibody formation seen in lupus is a result of Epstein-Barr virus molecular mimicry. What do these scientists believe has happened in the case of lupus? Give one example as evidential support.
Q2) A 30-year-old woman presents in the emergency room with hives. After a full examination, it is determined that the zoo she visited that morning caused the reaction. What was the most likely cause of this response?
A) type I hypersensitivity reaction
B) type II hypersensitivity reaction
C) type III hypersensitivity reaction
D) type IV hypersensitivity reaction
E) type V hypersensitivity reaction
Q3) Why is type AB blood considered to be the "universal recipient"? Explain what this means in terms of the antigens and antibodies present in blood types.
Q4) How can a person who has taken penicillin for a childhood ear infection later develop an allergy to penicillin when prescribed that drug again?
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Mycobacterium, Trypanosomia and Leishmania spp. are all unique in that, once they are intracellular, they down-regulate the IFN-gamma receptor, causing:
A) immune-response suppression
B) opsonization
C) complement activation
D) superantigen reactions
E) high fever responses
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an intracellular bacterial pathogen?
A) HIV
B) Streptococcus mutans
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Bacillus anthracis
Q3) Helicobacter pylori survives in stomach acid due to what gene product?
A) type IV pilus
B) intimin
C) DNase
D) E3 ligase
E) urease
Q4) Define a fomite and give at least two specific examples.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Rubeola measles is caused by __________ virus.
A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) paramyxovirus
D) rhinovirus
E) adenovirus
Q2) People who come down with an STD and do not get treated frequently end up with co-STD infections. Why is this? Explain.
Q3) __________ diseases are often called spongiform encephalopathies.
A) Meningitis
B) Cytotoxin
C) Neurotoxin
D) Prion
E) Virus
Q4) What makes uropathogenic Escherichia coli different from the other E. coli?
Q5) Describe the replication cycle of Chlamydia.
Q6) What is the reservoir for Trichomonas vaginalis? Explain how it causes disease in the acidic vagina of females.
Q7) Describe epigenetic silencing and the role it plays in malaria.
Page 28
Q8) Compare and contrast the characteristic symptoms of the common cold and the flu.
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Which of the following is a clinically important lung bacteria that kills approximately 2 million people annually and is becoming increasingly multidrug resistant?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Staphylococcus aureas
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Escherichia coli
E) Plasmodium falciparum
Q2) Novel ideas for new antibiotic drug development do NOT include which of the following?
A) interfering with quorum-sensing mechanisms
B) "corking" the type II secretion apparatus
C) use of photosensitive chemicals to generate reactive oxygen species
D) continuing to chemically modify beta-lactams
E) use of nanotubes to poke holes in bacterial membranes
Q3) Several antifungal therapeutic agents act to inhibit sterol synthesis. Explain why this does not affect mammalian systems.
Q4) Why is the newly discovered antibiotic class called pyronins considered to be a class of antibiotics that will be hard for a bacteria to become resistant to?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) A person exhibiting glomerular nephritis and rheumatic fever must have had what type of previous infection?
A) Shigella sonnei
B) Escherichia coli
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q2) Of the following body sites, which could contain microbes in a healthy individual?
A) blood
B) urine
C) cerebrospinal fluid
D) nasopharynx
E) bladder
Q3) Describe the general protocol you would use to diagnose a patient with a Salmonella Typhimurium infection (from collection to testing).
Q4) Describe what the One Health Initiative is and the role it played in the 2006 outbreak of food-borne O157:H7 in spinach.
Q5) How would a serum antibody ELISA work in the detection of Lyme disease?
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Chapter 29: What Do Winning Organizations Do Well
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Q1) Define the marketing mix. Use Snap-on Tools as an example, explaining how it creates customer value through its marketing mix strategies.
Q2) Increasing awareness of the brand is a typical problem faced by non-profit organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Factors that a business can control include
A) price of raw materials.
B) implementation.
C) governmental regulations.
D) competitive activity.
E) technological advances.
Q4) Snap-on Tools provides their customers with flexible financing mechanisms to help pay for an expensive tool. This is an example of a
A) product strategy.
B) channel strategy.
C) marketing communications strategy.
D) sales execution strategy.
E) pricing strategy.
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Chapter 30: Understanding Customer Needs
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Q1) Manufacturers often naively believe that their only competitors are
A) national brands.
B) heavily advertised brands.
C) in the same country.
D) in the same city.
E) in the same industry.
Q2) Winning companies create new markets by focusing on offering the same value as competitors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A process where the researcher actively participates with the customer to gain insights is referred to as
A) a focus group.
B) a depth interview.
C) a mall intercept survey.
D) secondary research.
E) participant observation.
Q4) Focus groups are an inflexible technique.
A)True
B)False
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Choosing Which Customers to Serve
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Q1) Explain why segmenting customers by demographic variables is rarely effective.
Q2) Dell differentiated itself from the competition by segmenting the market based on where computers were bought and by pioneering the direct-to-customer model.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In selecting target customers, businesses should analyze
A) feedback from the sales force.
B) customer attractiveness.
C) competitive activity.
D) segmentation methodology.
E) emerging segments.
Q4) Without market segmentation, salespeople
A) do not know what to offer customers.
B) increase prices.
C) charge for the value they create.
D) withhold too much from the customer.
E) determine the marketing communications strategy.
Q5) If not all customers are created equal, then explain how they differ.
Q6) What is the Values and Lifestyles (VALS) program?
Q7) List and describe three common pitfalls in segmenting customers.
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Chapter 32: Developing a Strong Marketing Plan
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Q1) One common mistake in developing a marketing plan is
A) thinking that the marketing plan template is directional.
B) questioning the need for data.
C) spending too much time on key issues.
D) trying to take on too much.
E) forgetting that the marketing plan is set in stone.
Q2) What are the characteristics of a good executive summary?
Q3) While it is true that without a marketing plan a business tends to drift, it does not necessarily follow that the marketing plan should be set in stone. Discuss this statement.
Q4) Although Arbol Industries' senior management had developed a rolling five-year strategic plan, the marketing manager knew the next step ought to be
A) conducting research.
B) segmenting the market.
C) investing in new product development.
D) setting financial targets.
E) developing a marketing plan.
Q5) What is the consequence of not developing a marketing plan? Provide an example.
Q6) What are the four major areas that the sections of a marketing plan fall into?
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Chapter 33: Product and Brand Strategies
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Q1) Businesses that adopt a tactical view of brand building
A) develop true innovations.
B) create customer value.
C) make minor changes to existing product offerings.
D) create a brand identity.
E) refresh the brand.
Q2) The world's best innovators know that _________ determines the culture of an organization.
A) the sales force
B) the customer
C) the marketing strategists
D) the CEO
E) the research and development team
Q3) D-Base Transformers Inc. learned that customers do not buy product features or attributes; they buy
A) the core product.
B) the functional product.
C) the augmented product.
D) the potential product.
E) the product warranty.
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Chapter 34: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) Since tract home builders are price-sensitive because they cannot charge price premiums over their competitors, Arbol Industries charged this segment prices based on
A) a commodity index.
B) a premium pricing strategy.
C) a bundled offering.
D) competitors' prices.
E) cost-plus pricing.
Q2) A short-term tactic in which a company sets a high initial price for a product to recoup its investment is referred to as
A) cost-plus pricing.
B) value-based pricing.
C) price skimming.
D) target costing.
E) price penetration.
Q3) The right way to approach the pricing decision is to look at costs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the three main reasons why price is a key marketing decision.
Q5) What impact does price have on profits?
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Chapter 35: Channel Strategies
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Q1) In order to compete with companies that have larger advertising budgets or greater resources, smart companies look to their
A) marketing mix.
B) advertising.
C) public relations.
D) product development.
E) channels.
Q2) Devices alone are not enough anymore; consumers want a complete experience.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Formulating channel strategy often results in conflict among channel members.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An important part of any channel strategy is
A) mitigating conflict.
B) segmenting customers.
C) identifying new opportunities.
D) focusing on low-cost channels.
E) conducting customer research.
Q5) What is examined when calculating channel economics?
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Chapter 36: Marketing Communications Strategies
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Q1) In many organizations, the budget devoted to marketing communications is based on
A) competitive activity.
B) a percentage of sales.
C) agency fees.
D) an incremental increase over the previous year's budget.
E) the size of the brand portfolio.
Q2) Advertising is very useful for generating new customer leads.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is very hard to directly measure the impact of community involvement activities such as sponsorship of community events.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Companies should always measure the impact of market communications no matter how small their budget.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and briefly describe the five steps for developing winning marketing communications.
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Chapter 37: Delivering Customer Value
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Q1) One reason the misalignment between marketing and sales exists is because A) marketing and sales roles are clearly defined.
B) both functions share equal ownership of the customer.
C) they have different views on an organization's strategy.
D) a process has been put in place to link them.
E) they share resources.
Q2) Profiling a customer based on needs and willingness to pay provides the sales force with a clear understanding of A) marketing communications strategies.
B) the total cost of ownership.
C) what can and cannot be offered to the customer.
D) brand preferences.
E) resource requirements.
Q3) The purpose of a sales force is not just to communicate the value created by marketing, but also to play an active role in A) developing marketing strategies.
B) executing marketing communications tactics.
C) segmenting the audience.
D) performing competitive analysis.
E) creating value.
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Chapter 38: Building a Customer-Focused Business
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Q1) Customer focus is redefining how success is measured in an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the key building blocks in building a customer-focused business is the use of revised financial metrics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Essentially, customer focus means collecting and disseminating data on the customer using customer relationship management (CRM) tools.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The organizational focus of a product-centric company is A) external.
B) internal.
C) relationship oriented.
D) based on customer satisfaction.
E) on its portfolio of customers.
Q5) How did Arbol Industries realign the organization to make it a customer-focused company?
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Chapter 39: Customer Attraction, Satisfaction, and Retention Strategies
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Q1) Negative critical incidents, if handed properly, can enhance customer satisfaction and loyalty.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Intention to repurchase or willingness to recommend a firm is usually measured through
A) social media.
B) marketing communications research.
C) complaint forms.
D) customer satisfaction surveys.
E) advertising recall.
Q3) In the final step of sustaining improvement, Air Products and Chemicals Inc.
A) listens to customers.
B) drives more customer-segment-based information and actions.
C) classifies customers on a loyalty index.
D) focuses on opportunities.
E) communicates customer classifications to employees.
Q4) Traditional segmentation methods do not work on the internet.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 40: Building the Marketing Organization of the Future
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Q1) Which factors force reductions in marketing spending and accelerate the transfer of funds and responsibilities to the field sales organization?
Q2) When we plot the cost to serve versus net price paid by the customer for an industrial packaging materials supplier, this percentage of customers can be classified as "aggressive."
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 31%
D) 40%
E) 46%
Q3) Marketing can track return on investment (ROI) by instituting A) metrics.
B) objectives.
C) a budget.
D) marketing research.
E) financial planning.
Q4) Explain the relationship between marketing metrics and the framework of a purchasing funnel.
Q5) What are the four prime areas that drive marketing productivity?
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