Microbiology for Health Sciences Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Health Sciences introduces students to the fundamental concepts of microorganisms and their roles in human health and disease. The course covers the structure, function, physiology, and genetics of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites with an emphasis on pathogenic mechanisms and immune responses. Students learn about antimicrobial agents, infection control, and diagnostic laboratory methods commonly used in healthcare settings. The course integrates theoretical knowledge with practical applications relevant to nursing, allied health, and pre-medical fields, preparing students to understand and manage infectious diseases in a clinical context.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 1st Edition by Dave Wessner
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24 Chapters
1239 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is NOT a macromolecule?
A) a protein
B) a polypeptide
C) DNA
D) mRNA
E) an amino acid
Answer: E
Q2) A chemoautotroph:
A) obtains carbon and energy from organic molecules.
B) obtains energy from the sun and carbon from organic molecules.
C) obtains energy from the sun and carbon from inorganic molecules.
D) obtains carbon and energy from inorganic molecules.
E) obtains energy from the sun and carbon from carbon dioxide only.
Answer: D
Q3) Polypeptides are the most abundant macromolecule in the cell on a dry weight basis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) Protein channels in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria that allow the diffusion of small molecules (600 daltons or less)across the membrane into the periplasmic space are called ____.
Answer: porins
Q2) Sulfur globules are an example of inclusion bodies that may be found in some bacterial cells.What is their use?
A) They are a carbon source
B) They are used for nucleotide synthesis
C) As an energy source
D) They provide buoyancy
E) They assist in membrane synthesis
Answer: C
Q3) If cells are placed into a hypertonic solution,what reaction would you expect?
A) The cell would lose water.
B) The cell would gain water.
C) The cell would pump out ions.
D) The cell would lyse.
E) The cell would increase in size.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Saccharomyces undergoes meiosis,it forms four haploid cells called ___.
Answer: ascospores
Q2) What are the three major structures that comprise the eukaryal cytoskeleton?
A) microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments
B) centromeres, microtubules, and microfilaments
C) telomeres, centromeres, and microtubules
D) telomeres, microtubules, and microfilaments
E) telomeres, centromeres, and microfilaments
Answer: A
Q3) Which of these best describes chemiosmosis?
A) The movement of water across a biological membrane into or out of a cell.
B) The movement of protons across a biological membrane for energy production.
C) The movement of organic nutrients across a biological membrane into or out of a cell.
D) The movement of inorganic nutrients across a biological membrane into or out of a cell.
E) The production of energy as a result of the reactions occurring in the glycolytic pathway.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does Methanobrevibacter smithii use to reduce formate in order to make methane?
A) glucose
B) oxygen
C) nitrogen
D) carbon dioxide
E) hydrogen
Q2) What is the minimum salt requirement of a halophile?
A) 10 mM
B) 100 mM
C) 250 mM
D) 750 mM
E) 1.5 M
Q3) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.
Q4) All members of the Archaea domain contain a cell wall.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Halobacterium salinarum possess the red-colored protein ___ that absorbs light energy to pump protons across the membrane to create a proton motive force.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) All viruses that cause hepatitis in humans belong to the same virus family.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The field of virology started in the late _______ after Dimitri Ivanovski demonstrated that the infectious agent that caused disease in a tobacco plants could pass through a filter small enough to exclude any known bacterium.
A) 1500s
B) 1600s
C) 1700s
D) 1800s
E) 1900s
Q3) What is the most common way for non-enveloped viruses to enter animal cells?
A) The virion fuses itself to the cell membrane.
B) The virion directly injects its nucleic acid.
C) Endocytosis of the virion.
D) Through lysis of the cell.
E) Via a hole in the cell membrane.
Q4) Describe the coevolution hypothesis of viral origin.What evidence supports this hypothesis?
Q5) What is a prophage and how is the prophage established in a bacterial cell?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Q1) Which one of the following is NOT a physical factor that affects the growth rate of cells?
A) nutrient concentration
B) temperature
C) pressure
D) light intensity
E) radiation
Q2) Generation time is the average time it takes an actively growing cell in a population to divide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is the best definition of an antiseptic?
A) A chemical agent that is applied to hospital equipment to kill or inhibit microbes.
B) A chemical agent that is applied to living tissue to kill and inhibit microbes.
C) An antibiotic that is applied to living tissue.
D) A physical agent that is used to sterilize hospital equipment.
E) A physical agent that is used on human tissue to inhibit microbial growth.
Q4) A device used for the continuous culturing of bacteria is called a _________.
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8
Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are micro RNAs?
A) mRNAs that encode for regulatory proteins
B) small regulatory RNAs
C) tRNAs
D) rRNAs
E) small mRNAs
Q2) In the same bacterial cell,different sigma factors are able to control the expression of large blocks of genes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The mRNA of bacterial cells is often polycistronic.What does this term mean?
A) It can be translated more than once.
B) It contains the code for multiple peptides.
C) It can be translated from either end.
D) It is transcribed from multiple sites on the chromosome.
E) The translated protein may be modified in different ways.
Q4) Describe the process of DNA replication initiation in Bacteria.
Q5) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence on a mRNA is recognized by the __________ of the 30S ribosome.
Q6) Why is the genetic code considered degenerate?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) AZT is a nucleotide analog used to treat people infected with A) herpes virus.
B) HIV.
C) papilloma virus.
D) influenza virus.
E) polio virus.
Q2) Most non-enveloped viruses enter the host cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis.The virus or its nucleic acid is able to leave the endosome and enter the cytoplasm
A) through the production of a lipase to lyse the endosome membrane.
B) as a result of digestive enzymes found in the endosome.
C) through the fusion of the capsid proteins with endosome proteins by digesting the endosomal membrane.
D) through pores formed from viral capsid proteins.
E) as a result of extreme alkaline conditions which develop in the endosome.
Q3) What are the functions of the retrovirus enzymes reverse transcriptase and integrase for the replication of the virus?
Q4) Antibodies produced in response to a viral infection may specifically bind to the virus particle to effectively block _______________ to the host cell.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first plasmid cloning vectors required some restriction enzyme sites that were present in only one copy on the plasmid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The process of molecular cloning was mainly brought about through the discovery of these.
A) bacteriophages
B) transposons
C) transformations
D) restriction enzymes
E) conjugation events
Q3) Suppose a strain of Escherichia coli is identified as an Hfr strain.In a conjugational experiment between the donor Hfr strain and a recipient E.coli strain that is F ,what would you expect to result?
A) The recipient to become F .
B) The recipient to become an Hfr strain.
C) The recipient to remain F .
D) The donor to become F .
E) The donor to transfer the entire F-plasmid.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microarray analysis may be used to study:
A) gene expression in cells grown under different conditions.
B) protein expression in cells grown under different conditions.
C) rate of chromosomal replication in cells.
D) enzyme activity in cells.
E) growth rate of cells when grown under different conditions.
Q2) Explain how % G + C analysis of a genome can detect horizontal gene transfer.
Q3) The pH at which a protein's charge is completely neutral is the protein's ______________ point.
Q4) Suppose it is observed that a small section of a microorganism's chromosome varies significantly in GC content from the majority of the chromosome.What likely caused this?
A) spontaneous mutations
B) induced mutations
C) horizontal gene transfer
D) vertical gene transfer
E) site-directed mutagenesis
Q5) An open-reading frame (ORF)is the non-translated part of a gene.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) The two component regulatory system typically consists of a histidine kinase and a response regulator.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term for a large group of genes whose expression is under the control of a single regulatory system.
A) operon
B) super operon
C) regulon
D) transcriptome
E) biome
Q3) Which autoinducer is used by many Gram-negative bacteria?
A) a homoserine lactone derivative
B) an activator protein
C) a repressor protein
D) a metabolic intermediate
E) allolactose
Q4) RNA polymerase uses different ______ ________ for the global regulation of large blocks of genes.
Q5) Repressor proteins bind to the control region of a gene called the ___________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In industry,fermentation must be done anaerobically.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Expression of eukaryal DNA in bacterial cells requires the insertion of _______ into the plasmid expression vector.
Q3) Why might butanol be a better biofuel than ethanol?
A) Butanol has a higher octane rating.
B) Butanol is easier to produce.
C) Butanol contains more energy per unit volume.
D) Butanol can be produced from cheaper feedstocks.
E) Butanol costs less to produce.
Q4) Although plant biomass is plentiful for use as biofuel,which major problem needs to be overcome?
A) Increasing the efficiency of breakdown of cellulose into glucose.
B) Decreasing the cost of production of plant biomass.
C) Increasing the production of cars that can run on ethanol.
D) Polluting by-products of the conversion of glucose to ethanol.
E) Increasing use of biofuels may drive crop prices down.
Q5) Why are microalgae an attractive source of biodiesel?
Q6) The first recombinant protein produced for human use was ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes increase the rate of a biochemical reaction by lowering the _________ _________ of the reaction.
Q2) Which of these occurs in anaerobic respiration,but not in aerobic respiration?
A) A fermentation product is produced.
B) The terminal cytochrome oxidase is replaced by a cytochrome reductase.
C) Glucose is only partially oxidized to CO .
D) NADH dehydrogenase is replaced by NADH oxidase.
E) Glycolysis.
Q3) Distinguish between anaerobic respiration and fermentation.
Q4) Fermentation can most accurately be described by which of these?
A) The reoxidation of NADH by an electron transport chain.
B) A process that occurs in the absence of oxygen.
C) An energy producing process found in all anaerobes.
D) The direct reoxidation of NADH by an internal organic molecule.
E) The use of a terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen.
Q5) The -oxidation pathway is used for the breakdown of nucleotides for use as carbon source.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Organism that use light as energy sources are called _____________.
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.
Q2) The oxidation state of nitrogen in dinitrogen (N )is +1.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process of denitrification is an anaerobic process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of these is true regarding soil humus?
A) It is quickly broken down by microorganisms.
B) It is a minor component of organic carbon in the soil.
C) It is degraded very slowly over time.
D) It is primarily inorganic in composition.
E) It is a polymer of glucose.
Q5) Which one of the following is NOT a reservoir for oxygen?
A) the atmosphere
B) carbon dioxide
C) nitrate
D) ammonia
E) water
Q6) The oxidation state of the carbon atom in methanol (CH OH)is ______.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) A community of organisms living in a specified area that are interacting with each other and their environment is called a(n)________________.
Q2) Describe the beneficial relationship that exists between plants and microorganisms.
Q3) The depth of a stratified lake that is characterized by a rapid decrease in temperature and oxygen is called the ________________
Q4) Lignocellulose is primarily mineralized by this group of organisms during plant decomposition.
A) fungi
B) Gram positive bacteria
C) Gram negative bacteria
D) Archaea
E) slime molds
Q5) Which of these regulates the formation of biofilms?
A) photosynthesis
B) quorum sensing
C) water availability
D) catabolite repression
E) end product repression
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) Food storage temperature is an ____________ factor that affects the rate at which a food will spoil.
Q2) All of the following microbes play an important role in the production of fermented milk products except for
A) Lactobacillus.
B) Leuconostoc.
C) Lactococcus.
D) Saccharomyces.
E) Streptococcus.
Q3) The most common food preservation method used in US households is A) canning.
B) curing meat.
C) refrigeration.
D) heating.
E) freeze-drying.
Q4) The addition of salt to certain food for preservation has been used for hundreds of years.Salt helps to preserve food by lowering the water activity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a feature of a primary endosymbiont?
A) They all have reduced genomes.
B) They are found in specialized cells called bacteriocytes.
C) They provide the host with nutrients.
D) They are passed on maternally.
E) They are required for survival or fertility.
Q2) Plaque on human teeth is considered a biofilm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the process of rumen fermentation and nutrient acquisition by ruminants.
Q4) Lichens reproduce asexually by ___________,which are hyphal -packaged algae cells.
A) soredia
B) ascus
C) conidia
D) zygospores
E) sporozoites
Q5) A group of microorganisms that are interdependent on one another for the stability of the community is called a/an__________________
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The emergence of HIV/AIDS disease was most likely a result of:
A) an increase in virulence of an existing human retrovirus.
B) a change in human behavior that allowed the virus to spread.
C) a mutation in an existing retrovirus that allowed for increased spread between humans.
D) a rare zoonotic transfer of a retrovirus strain to humans.
E) an increase in homosexual activity among humans.
Q2) What often determines the host range of a pathogen?
A) It's ability to replicate inside a host cell.
B) The exit strategy of the pathogen.
C) The ability of pathogen to attach to a host cell.
D) It's ability to destroy antibody.
E) Nutrient availability.
Q3) The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a specific period of time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Borrelia burgdorferi,the agent of Lyme disease,is found in nature in the white-footed mice and deer.Mice and deer are said to be _______________ for this pathogen.
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Q1) In vertebrates,TLRs are found on the surface of many types of cells.On which of these cells would you NOT expect to find TLRs?
A) red blood cells
B) monocytes
C) macrophages
D) neutrophils
E) dendritic cells
Q2) All of the following are clinical signs of inflammation at the site of injury EXCEPT: A) swelling.
B) heat.
C) constriction of blood vessels.
D) redness.
E) formation of pus.
Q3) What is the action of the granzymes released by Natural Killer cells?
A) To lyse pathogen infected cells.
B) To induce apoptosis in pathogen infected cells.
C) To enhance phagocytosis.
D) To produce pores in the pathogen membrane.
E) To destroy parasitic worms.
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Which of these best describes an antigen?
A) A receptor on an immune cell.
B) An immune receptor that binds to a ligand.
C) Any component that can be specifically bound by an immune receptor.
D) Any type of ligand.
E) Any type of immunogen.
Q2) Which of these are B cell receptors (BCR)able to bind? (Choose the most complete answer.)
A) Only proteins.
B) Only polysaccharides.
C) Only lipids.
D) Only proteins and polysaccharides.
E) Proteins, polysaccharides, and lipids.
Q3) Which of these is true of B cell receptors (BCRs)?
A) They are able to bind soluble antigen.
B) They present processed antigen to T cells.
C) They comprise the MHC complex of B cells.
D) They are different from antibody produced by the B cell.
E) They activate naïve T cells.
Q4) Describe how a CD8 cell can recognize and kill a virus infected cell.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Survival in the Host
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Q1) Cytolysins are cytotoxins that act on the ________ membrane to lyse the cell.
Q2) Cattle may serve as a reservoir for E.coli strain O157:H7 because this strain does not cause any disease in cattle.This strain of E.coli can cause a potentially lethal Shiga toxin-mediated hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)in humans.Why don't cattle develop HUS?
A) The shiga toxin is not expressed in cattle.
B) E. coli is unable to effectively colonize the bovine intestine.
C) A protease in the cattle destroys the toxin.
D) Bovine kidney cells do not have a shiga toxin receptor.
E) They produce antibody against the shiga toxin.
Q3) For most pathogenic bacteria,what is the first step it takes to facilitate entry into its host?
A) attachment
B) toxin production
C) protease production
D) sequestering iron
E) lysis of the host cell
Q4) Enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus are weak superantigens.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) Viruses may cause some autoimmune diseases.This may occur when:
A) a viral infection causes cells to go into apoptosis.
B) viral toxins are produced that kill cells.
C) tissue destruction occurs as a result of an over-exaggerated cell mediated immune response.
D) viral antigens resemble host antigens and cross react with effector cells and antibodies.
E) viruses destroy certain types of tissues, like nerves.
Q2) The polio virus and hepatitis A virus are both spread by a ___________ route of transmission.
A) respiratory
B) sexual
C) blood-borne
D) fecal-oral
E) vector-borne
Q3) RNA viruses have much higher spontaneous mutation rates than DNA viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The transmission of a virus from mother to fetus is referred to as ___________ transmission.
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) When an Anopheles mosquito feeds on a person with malaria,it ingests the ___________ form of the parasite.
A) gametocyte
B) sporozoite
C) merozoite
D) oocyst
E) zygote
Q2) How do many phytopathogenic fungi obtain nutrients from plant host cells?
A) By excreting enzymes to breakdown plant cell walls.
B) By excreting exotoxins to kill plant cells.
C) By stimulating the host cells to excrete sugars.
D) By stimulating the plant to increase photosynthesis.
E) By producing proteins to scavenge nutrients away from the plant.
Q3) How is Trypanosoma brucei gambiense,transmitted to humans?
A) By a water-borne route.
B) By an aerosol route.
C) Through the bite of a tsetse fly.
D) By direct contact.
E) Through sexual contact.
Q4) Describe the life cycle of the parasite Giardia lamblia.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The use of antimicrobial drugs is directly linked to the development of antibiotic resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Modern vaccines elicit effective immune responses in everyone that is vaccinated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many aminoglycosides are toxic to humans because they _____.
A) interfere with lipid synthesis in human cells.
B) disrupt kidney function.
C) interfere with protein synthesis in human cells.
D) cause the heart to beat abnormally.
E) block DNA replication in human cells.
Q4) A person is prescribed antibiotics for a bacterial infection.After taking the drug for a few days the person stops taking the drug.Two weeks later the person develops the same infection.This time the bacterial isolate is resistant to the antibiotic.What type of resistance,mutational or acquired has occurred,and why?
Q5) Azidothymidine (AZT)is an antiviral drug used to treat a(n)_________ infection.
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