Microbiology for Health Sciences
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth introduction to microbiology with a focus on concepts relevant to the health sciences. Students will explore the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa, and examine their roles in human health and disease. Emphasis is placed on the mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity, the immune response, modes of transmission, principles of infection control, and the impact of emerging infectious diseases. Laboratory skills, aseptic techniques, and the use of microscopes and diagnostic tests are also covered to prepare students for healthcare-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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Chapter 1: What is Microbiology and Why Does it Matter?
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of how a pathogen is transmitted to a new host is via
A)Air
B)Food
C)Water
D)Insects
E)All of the choices
Answer: E
Q2) In early June of 2013,people in the Middle East were worried about a new coronavirus which at that time had led to about 50 confirmed cases,30 of whom had died.The virus could spread from patient to patient in hospitals and soon patients arriving from the Middle East were spreading it to Europe.Give your best guess as to the means by which the virus is transmitted.
Answer: The coronavirus in this case was Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-Cov).Some transmission possibilities include hand-to-hand contact,droplets in coughs and sneezes,close contact such as kissing,and through inanimate objects like door knobs and toys.
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Q1) All 20 amino acids have three common chemical components attached to a central carbon.Which of the following is not attached?
A)Hydrogen
B)Carboxyl group
C)Glucose
D)Amino group
Answer: C
Q2) In the context of structure and function,explain why lowering the pH of a solution would inhibit an enzyme's activity.
Answer: The vast majority of enzymes are proteins made up of amino acids held together by peptide bonds.The weak bonds that stabilize secondary,tertiary,and quaternary structure that are responsible for the three-dimensional structure of enzymes are destabilized by alterations in pH,causing denaturation.If an enzyme becomes denatured its active site may adopt a different conformation that will no longer be able to bind to reactants.Therefore,changing the structure of an enzyme disrupts its function.
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding eukaryotic electron transport is true?
A)Electron transport occurs in the cytoplasm
B)A consequence of electron transport is the formation of a concentration gradient of protons
C)Generates a concentration gradient of electrons
D)NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub> are reduced during electron transport
Answer: B
Q2) Which is an example of an oxidation reaction?
A)Amino acids to protein
B)DPN to DPNH
C)DPNH to DPN
D)Glycogen to glucose
E)Glucose to phosphoglucose
Answer: C
Q3) Enzymes catalyze reactions when they increase the energy of activation of the reaction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) An organism whose cells lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound structures is a (n)
A)Organelle
B)Eukaryote
C)Human
D)Prokaryote
E)Plasmid
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)peroxisomes; fatty acid degradation
B)nucleus; DNA and RNA synthesis
C)Nucleolus; ribosomal RNA synthesis
D)Proteasome; protein synthesis
E)Mitochondria; ATP synthesis
Q3) Flagella are very difficult to observe microscopically because
A)They are very thin
B)They resist basic dyes
C)They resist acidic dyes
D)They do not adhere to glass slides
Q4) What is the endosymbiont theory? Provide an example of this process.
Q5) Describe three types of endocytosis in eukaryotic cells.
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) Which is a portal of entry?
A)Mucous membrane
B)Skin surface
C)Gums
D)Skin cut
E)All of the choices
Q2) Which of the following pathogens are virulent only if encapsulated?
A)Klebsiella pneumoniae
B)Bacillus anthracis
C)Yersinia pestis
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae
E)All of the choices
Q3) Which of the following toxins inhibits the release of acetylcholine from neuromuscular junctions?
A)Botulinum toxin
B)Diphtheria toxin
C)Anthrax toxin
D)Tetanus toxin
E)Endotoxin
Q4) How does tooth brushing protect teeth from cavity formation?
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) What is the mode of transmission for cholera?
A)Droplets
B)Mosquito
C)Flea
D)Drinking water
E)Direct contact
Q2) The likelihood that a particular host will succumb to an infectious microorganism depends on many factors.Identify and describe at least five different circumstances that contribute to disease susceptibility in a host.
Q3) What is achieved when widespread vaccination is administered to a population as a means of protecting unvaccinated potential hosts?
A)Immunosuppression
B)Super-vaccination
C)Multi-drug resistance
D)Quarantine
E)Herd immunity
Q4) Explain how global warming could affect the spread of infectious diseases.
Q5) What are potential sources of nosocomial infections? List at least six.
Q6) How does morbidity rate differ from incidence rate?
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is the definition for latent disease?
A)Pathogens use blood or lymph to access all organs
B)Symptoms reappear long after initial infection
C)Symptoms immediately follow a primary infection
D)Rapid symptom development and rapid subsequent improvement
E)Symptoms are between those of acute and chronic disease
Q2) The presence of bacteria in the blood is referred to as
A)Toxemia
B)Septicemia
C)Primary infection
D)Focal infection
E)Bacteremia
Q3) Diseases that take a long period to develop and also remain for long periods are referred to as
A)Sub-acute
B)Acute
C)Chronic
D)Subclinical
E)Nosocomial
Q4) List and describe the five specific periods of infection.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) SARS is transmitted by all of the following mechanisms except A)Droplet
B)Fomite
C)Direct contact
D)Mosquitoes
E)Aerosol
Q2) A new virus has been identified by DNA sequencing methods in a remote location in the South Pacific.The World Health Organization is very concerned because infection with this virus has a death rate of 20% of all infected individuals and no vaccine is available.This is an example of a(n)_____ disease.
A)Re-emerging infectious
B)Latent
C)Prion
D)Emerging infectious
E)Vector-borne
Q3) Name and describe four different transition patterns that emerging diseases have followed through history.Provide an example for each.
Q4) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates recruitment by chemokines?
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates production of edema?
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Gram-negative organisms contain teichoic acid
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain why endospores are attractive agents for bioterrorism.Provide an example.
Q3) Which is not an example of the way Neisseria use basal body pili modification during an infection?
A)Secretion of S pili
B)Post-translational modification
C)Phase variation
D)Secretion of pili-specific proteases
E)Antigenic variation
Q4) Comparing eukaryotic to prokaryotic electron transport,only eukaryotic electron transport
A)Yields energy to generate ATP
B)Produces more energy than glycolysis
C)Occurs in the plasma membrane
D)Occurs in the mitochondria
E)Uses FAD and NAD
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Pathogens of humans are chemoautotrophs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: Pathogens of humans can be facultative anaerobes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a method used to count viable bacteria?
A)Flow cytometry
B)Spectrophotometry
C)Measurement of biomass
D)Plate count
Q4) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Growth at low pH values; acidophiles
B)Obligate halophile; requires high salt conditions for growth
C)Facultative anaerobes; require oxygen for growth
D)Selective medium; prohibits growth of some organisms
Q5) While ailment is attributed to Helicobacter pylori? Explain how H.pylori is able to withstand conditions found in the stomach.
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Q1) Rearrange the following events in the order in which they occur during DNA proofreading.Which is the last event?
A)Nuclease activity catalyzes nucleotide removal
B)The elongating DNA strand leaves the exonuclease site
C)The elongating DNA strand slides to the exonuclease active site
D)DNA polymerase action slows
Q2) The region of the DNA to which RNA polymerase binds during transcription is known as the
A)Promoter
B)Codon
C)Anticodon
D)Leading strand
E)Origin of replication
Q3) The term used to describe the orientation of the two strands of DNA is
A)Polarity
B)Complementary
C)Antiparallel
D)Supercoiled
E)Forked
Q4) Explain how RNA differs from DNA in structure and function.
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) The _____ is the protein that is located between the capsid and the nucleocapsid of some enveloped viruses.
A)Glycoprotein spike
B)Icosahedron
C)Helix
D)Tegument
E)Nucleic acid-binding protein
Q2) Why is the capsid an important part of the structure of the virus?
A)It allows for the virion to withstand harsh environments until it infects a cell
B)It is easily shed when the virion enters into the host cell
C)It selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter into the virion
D)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and is easily shed when it enters the host cell
E)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter the virion
Q3) How does a simple icosahedral virus differ from a complex icosahedral virus?
Q4) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the matrix protein?
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Q1) What is virulence and what factors have an effect on the virulence of viral infections?
Explain why host susceptibility is such an important consideration in viral virulence.
Q2) Why is vaccination the most promising approach to the control of viral epidemics?
Describe the three classes of viral vaccine administered to humans and provide examples of each.
Q3) Active viremia describes
A)Replication of viruses and the initial site of entry
B)Replication of viruses in secondary organs
C)Replication of viruses in the blood
D)Replication of viruses in the next host after viral transmission
Q4) Virus that use the digestive tract as a site of entry can become systemic by
A)Entering the blood and lymph through abrasions of the intestinal epithelium
B)Direct transfer into the intestinal lymph system
C)Using M cells to enter the blood and lymph
D)Degrading cell membranes and entry into the bloodstream
Q5) Explain why an individual who has had a prior infection with a rhinovirus is quite likely to experience another episode of rhinovirus infection at a later date.Why do we not immunize against rhinovirus?
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Q1) The American form of trypanosomiasis is called
A)Chagas' disease
B)Amebiasis
C)Sleeping sickness
D)Enterobiasis
E)Ascariasis
Q2) All of the following are examples of diseases caused by trematodes except
A)Enterobiasis
B)Clonorchiasis
C)Schistosomiasis
D)Paragonimiasis
Q3) Which of the following symptoms are common in an infection with Toxoplasma gondii?
A)Pain, vaginal discharge, and dysuria
B)A chancre and swollen lymph nodes
C)Tissue cysts in skeletal muscle
D)Nausea, abdominal pain, and diarrhea
E)Fever accompanied by worms vomited up or passed in the stool
Q4) Identify and describe three categories of pathogenic fungal infection.
Q5) Explain how genetic recombination occurs in fungi.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Q1) All of the following describe the activity of mast cells except
A)Increase effector cell recruitment to sites of infection
B)Proliferate in tissues as part of a replacement process
C)Rapidly release inflammatory mediators including histamine and chemokines
D)Release perforin and granzyme to kill target cells
E)Influence adaptive immune responses
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: Endogenous pyrogens are pathogen-specific inducers of fever.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Yersinia pestis resists digestion in the phagolysosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Low pH is associated with all of the following except
A)Stomach acid
B)Tears
C)Sebum
D)Urine
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) All of the following are consequences of macrophage activation except
A)The enhancement of phagosome to lysosome fusion
B)The production of oxygen free radicals
C)Elevated levels of class II MHC
D)The release of perforin
E)Increased expression of cytokine receptors
Q2) The production of effector T cells is made possible by all of the following except
A)Macrophages
B)Mast cells
C)Dendritic cells
D)B cells
Q3) _____ is the first antibody made during a primary immune response,and it consists of _____ antigen-binding sites.
A)IgG; two
B)IgA; two
C)IgA; four
D)IgM; two
E)IgM; ten
Q4) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) The "AIDS dementia" that some people with HIV get is most associated with what body system?
A)Nervous system
B)Lymphatic system
C)Circulatory system
D)Cranial system
Q2) Some people are resistant to HIV infection because of mutations in _____ on the surface of host cells.
A)CD4
B)Co-stimulatory molecules
C)Co-receptors
D)Class II MHC molecules
E)CD8
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Reverse transcriptase: cDNA
B)Co-receptor: CD4
C)Sub-acute encephalitis: AIDS dementia
D)Opportunistic pathogen: Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
E)Integrase: long terminal repeats
Q4) Describe the three phases of HIV infection.
19
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) A bacteriostatic agent is one that
A)Kills the microbe
B)Inhibits the growth of the microbe
C)Creates static electricity when used
D)Is chemically unstable
Q2) The microbial death rate associated with antimicrobial agents is
A)Sporadic
B)Logarithmic
C)Latent
D)Linear
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A)A chemical agent with a phenol coefficient of 2.0 is less effective than phenol
B)The acronym QUATS stands for quaternary aldehyde compounds
C)The thermal death time for endospores is shorter when moist heat is used than when dry heat is used
D)Eating irradiated food poses risks of developing cancer
Q4) Explain what happens when a protein becomes denatured and why this process is likely to be detrimental to microbes.Provide three examples of how proteins can be denatured.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following is not a drug used for fungal infections?
A)Azoles
B)Foscarnet
C)Pentamidine
D)Amphotericin B
E)Flucytosine
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Acyclovir (nucleoside analog): herpes simplex virus
B)Zanamivir (neuraminidase inhibitor): cytomegalovirus
C)Azidothymidine (AZT; nucleoside analog): HIV
D)Ribavirin (nucleoside analog): respiratory syncytial virus
E)Amantadine (viral un-coating inhibitor): influenza A
Q3) Disruption of DNA synthesis occurs if _____ is targeted by antibiotics.
A)Bacterial RNA polymerase
B)N-acetylglucosamine
C)Bacterial topoisomerase
D)The A site of the bacterial ribosome
Q4) Discuss selective toxicity as it relates to antimicrobials.
Q5) The treatment of malaria has changed since quinine was first used in the 1600s.What has changed and why?
21
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Antibiotic resistance genes account for 20 percent of the total S. aureus genome
B)The chromosome of MRSA contains 3-4 resistance islands
C)The mecA gene confers resistance to vancomycin
D)Mobile genetic elements in MRSA carry fewer than 15 resistance-conferring gene clusters
Q2) The process used to generate thousands of drugs daily with the aid of computer programs is referred to as
A)High-throughput screening
B)Bioinformatics
C)Combinatorial chemistry
D)Genome sequencing
E)Mechanism-based screening
Q3) Explain the testing process through which potential new antibiotics must pass before therapeutic use in humans is considered.
Q4) Describe six approaches being used to identify novel microbial structures or functions that may be potential new antibiotic targets.
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is not associated with atypical pneumonia?
A)Chlamydophila pneumoniae
B)Legionella pneumophila
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Coxiella burnetii
E)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q2) A child diagnosed with "croup" most probably has a(n)_____ infection.
A)Diphtheria
B)Parainfluenza
C)Mycoplasma
D)Pertussis
E)Influenza
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: HIV infection has had a significant role in the increase of tuberculosis,because HIV and tuberculosis are transmitted together.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe three ways in which host defenses can be breached,leading to predisposition to respiratory tract infections.
Q5) Identify and describe the three stages of a pertussis infection.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which family of viruses does Hepatitis B belong to?
A)Hepadnaviridae
B)Flaviviridae
C)Reoviridae
D)Picornaviridae
E)Caliciviridae
Q2) Which family of viruses does Hepatitis C belong to?
A)Hepadnaviridae
B)Flaviviridae
C)Reoviridae
D)Picornaviridae
E)Caliciviridae
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Tooth destruction occurs because of the organic acids produced as a part of the metabolic activity of bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how hepatitis B produces a partly double-stranded DNA genome.
Q5) Explain why hepatitis D is referred to as a satellite virus.Describe the conditions under which hepatitis D is replicated.
24
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) The most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis is attributed to infection by
A)Treponema pallidum
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Candida albicans
E)Gardnerella vaginalis
Q2) Infants delivered vaginally by a woman with an active Chlamydia trachomatis infection usually develop
A)Oral thrush
B)Skin rashes
C)Pneumonia
D)Urethritis
E)Conjunctivitis
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding infections of the urinary tract?
A)Urinary tract infections often present with inflammatory cells in the urine
B)Indwelling catheterizations are associated with urinary tract infections in clinical settings
C)Infections are seen in men more commonly than in women, leading to prostatitis
D)The most commonly associated pathogens include bacteria and yeast
E)Infections confined to the urethra are classified as urethritis
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Exotoxins produced by _____ have an affinity for the central nervous system.
A)Neisseria meningitidis
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Salmonella enteritidis
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae
E)Haemophilus influenzae type b
Q2) Which of the following is not a property of prions?
A)Contain single-stranded DNA
B)Transmissible between different species
C)Resistant to proteases
D)Spongiform encephalopathy
E)Are proteins
Q3) Which of the following is not a route used by bacteria for central nervous system (CNS)infections?
A)From infected sinuses and mastoid air spaces
B)From the respiratory system across a fracture at the base of the skull
C)Via peripheral sensory nerves
D)From the bloodstream across the blood-brain barrier
E)Via anatomical defects in structures encasing the CNS
Q4) How do the effects on the nervous system differ between botulism and tetanus?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Arbovirus infections can be classified as fever infections because this symptom is always present.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Filariasis is caused by
A)Trypanosoma cruzi
B)Brugia malayi and Trypanosoma brucei
C)Trypanosoma brucei
D)Wuchereria bancrofti
E)Brugia malayi and Wuchereria bancrofti
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because the ID<sub>50</sub> for tularemia is large there are many routes to tularemia infection. A)True
B)False
Q4) Name three different ticks in the United States known to harbor Rickettsia rickettsii.Explain how R.rickettsii are able to continue their propagation in ticks without adverse effects to their life cycle or survival.
Q5) Explain the difference between bubonic plague and pneumonic plague.
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: HPV infection is a lifelong infection even after wart removal because the virus is still associated with the tissue adjacent to where a wart was removed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare cutaneous to inhalation anthrax.Which is transmitted as spores?
A)Cutaneous anthrax
B)Inhalation anthrax
C)Both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax
D)Neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax
Q3) Which of the following is the best match for smallpox?
A)Variola major
B)Dermal warts
C)Scarring of conjunctiva
D)MMR vaccine
E)Latency in nerve ganglia
Q4) What is the etiological agent of gas gangrene? Explain the sequence of events leading to the development of this condition and the associated pathology.How is gas gangrene treated?
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