Microbiology for Health Sciences
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Health Sciences provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts in microbiology with a particular emphasis on the role of microorganisms in human health and disease. The course covers the classification, structure, and function of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, along with the mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity and host immune responses. Topics such as sterilization, disinfection, antimicrobial agents, and the principles of epidemiology are explored to highlight their significance in clinical and public health settings. Designed for students pursuing careers in health sciences, this course equips learners with essential knowledge to understand infectious diseases, laboratory diagnostics, and effective strategies for infection control.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology with Diseases by Body System 5th Edition by Robert W. Bauman
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26 Chapters
1927 Verified Questions
1927 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Brief History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An explanation of observations and data supported by the experimental results of many scientists for many years is
A) a theory.
B) a hypothesis.
C) scientific method.
D) popular opinion.
E) a control group.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following contribute to the successful application of Koch's postulates?
A) the development of the compound microscope
B) the theory of abiogenesis
C) the ability to record the appearance of bacteria photographically
D) the development of simple bacterial staining techniques
E) the development of techniques for sterile transfer of bacteria
Answer: E
Q3) The work of Albert Kluyver and C. B. van Niel contributed to the development of (biochemistry/epidemiology/etiology).
Answer: biochemistry
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The folding of a polypeptide into a three-dimensional shape is its (secondary/tertiary/quaternary) structure.
Answer: tertiary
Q2) Synthesis reactions are commonly ________ reactions.
A) endothermic
B) exchange
C) exothermic
D) anabolic
E) hydrolytic
Answer: A
Q3) A(n) ________ is an arrangement of atoms found in a variety of macromolecules.
A) buffer
B) isotope
C) salt
D) stereoisomer
E) functional group
Answer: E
Q4) A chemical reaction in which a water molecule is a reactant is known as a (dehydration/endothermic/hydrolysis) reaction.
Answer: hydrolysis
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fibrous structures with three "arms" some archaea use for attachment to surfaces are (fimbriae/hami/pili).
Answer: hami
Q2) Eukaryotic ribosomes are composed of 50S and 30S subunits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The accumulation of glucose 6-phosphate inside a bacterial cell via phosphorylation of glucose is an example of A) facilitated diffusion.
B) group translocation.
C) osmosis.
D) plasmolysis.
E) diffusion.
Answer: B
Q4) A higher concentration of solutes corresponds to a (higher/lower) concentration of water in a given solution.
Answer: lower
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Chapter 4: Microscopy, Staining, and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of a lens to gather light is referred to as its A) resolution.
B) numerical aperture.
C) refraction.
D) contrast.
E) magnification.
Q2) The three domains proposed by Carl Woese and George Fox are the Archaea, the Eukarya, and the Protista.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The function of a mordant in staining procedures is to
A) fix the specimen to the slide.
B) provide contrasting color.
C) decrease the solubility of dye molecules.
D) remove dye from certain structures.
E) damage cellular structures so they take up dyes better.
Q4) The endospore stain reveals internal structures within cells of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteriochlorophyll a absorbs ________ light.
A) 350 nm, ultraviolet
B) 425 nm, violet
C) 660 nm, red
D) both 425 & 660 nm (violet and red)
E) all visible
Q2) Which of the following is associated with the Calvin-Benson cycle?
A) acetyl-CoA
B) TMAO
C) RuBP
D) FADH
E) PABA
Q3) Where is the majority of ATP generated in prokaryotic cells?
A) in the cytoplasmic membrane
B) in the cytosol
C) in the thylakoids
D) in the inner mitochondrial membrane
E) on ribosomes
Q4) Cells can use (active/allosteric/substrate) sites to regulate enzyme activity and thereby control their metabolism.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The events of binary fission are
I. the cell doubles in size
II. the DNA is replicated
III. the cell forms a septum
IV. the cell separates from its offspring
The CORRECT order of these events is
A) I, III, II, IV.
B) II, III, I, IV.
C) IV, I, III, II.
D) II, I, III, IV.
E) I, II, IV, III.
Q2) Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are
A) obligate aerobes.
B) facultative anaerobes.
C) aerotolerant anaerobes.
D) obligate anaerobes.
E) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes.
Q3) The (peroxide/superoxide/hydroxyl) radical is formed during the incomplete reduction of O during electron transport in aerobes.
Q4) Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH (11.5/10/7.0).
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In generalized transduction, viruses carry random DNA sequences from one cell to another.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Typical eukaryotic genomes are composed of ________ chromosomes.
A) multiple linear
B) multiple circular
C) a single circular
D) a single linear
E) both linear and circular
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning transcription in bacteria is FALSE?
A) It occurs in the nucleoid region.
B) Sigma factors are parts of RNA polymerase that recognize promoter regions.
C) Different RNA polymerases are required for synthesis of mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA.
D) Termination is either self-induced or due to the presence of Rho protein.
E) There are a variety of sigma factors that affect transcription.
Q4) A (missense/nonsense/silent) mutation of a gene usually produces a nonfunctional polypeptide.
Q5) Errors made during replication are primarily corrected by (base-excision/mismatch/nucleotide-excision) repair.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A northern blot differs from a Southern blot in the A) type of probe used.
B) presence or absence of a nitrocellulose membrane.
C) size of the genetic sequences involved.
D) number of genetic sequences detected.
E) type of nucleic acid being isolated.
Q2) Single-strand DNA molecules are fixed to a glass slide or nylon membrane for the production of A) microarrays.
B) DNA clones.
C) real time PCR probes.
D) FISH assays.
E) templates for Sanger sequencing.
Q3) A DNA (library/microarray/screen) may be used to study the complex, changing patterns of mRNA production in an organism.
Q4) Short nucleic acid molecules used to locate complementary sequences in a larger population of molecules are called (probes/primers/vectors).
Q5) Restriction (enzymes/proteases/polymerases), first isolated from bacterial cells, cut DNA molecules at specific sites.
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Chapter 9: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell walls of mycobacteria make them vulnerable to water soluble chemical agents.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Protozoan cysts are resistant to many disinfection methods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A student is shopping for antibacterial hand cleansers and is trying to decide which one to buy. One is a "waterless" hand gel containing 70% isopropanol, the second is an "antibacterial" hand soap containing triclosan (a phenolic), and the third is a wipe that lists benzethonium chloride (a synthetic quaternary ammonium salt) as the active ingredient. Compare and contrast these cleansers in terms of the action of the antimicrobial ingredient and the level of disinfection (degerming, germistatic, germicidal).
Q4) The phenol coefficient is one of the most widely used measurements of an antimicrobial agent's effectiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The physical removal of microbes is called (antisepsis/degerming/disinfection).
Page 11
Q6) The microbial death rate is (constant/nonlinear/variable) over time.
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Chapter 10:Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain mycolic acid?
A) vancomycin
B) penicillin
C) methicillin
D) isoniazid
E) bacitracin
Q2) Which of the following can result when antibiotic therapy disrupts the normal microbiota?
A) anaphylactic shock
B) black hairy tongue
C) pseudomembranous colitis
D) thrush
E) both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush
Q3) Organs that are commonly affected by drug toxicity include the kidneys and the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Competition between beneficial microbes and potential pathogens is called microbial (antagonisms/synergy/toxicity).
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Chapter 11: Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycoplasmas are pleomorphic because they
A) have no cell walls.
B) are low G + C content Gram-positive bacteria.
C) exhibit snapping division.
D) have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes.
E) produce endospores.
Q2) The classification of prokaryotes in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is largely based on
A) Gram stain reaction.
B) habitat.
C) type of electron receptor used in cellular respiration.
D) rRNA sequences.
E) cellular morphology.
Q3) Members of which of the following genera are the most common sexually transmitted bacteria in the United States?
A) Bacteroides
B) Rickettsia
C) Chlamydia
D) Helicobacter
E) Treponema
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Chapter 12: Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water molds are currently classified as a type of A) fungus.
B) protozoan.
C) insect.
D) algae.
E) slime mold.
Q2) Protozoa are eukaryotic organisms that lack a cell wall and can be unicellular or multicellular.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Apicomplexa are named for their apical complexes which allow them to A) be motile by means of multiple flagella.
B) penetrate the cytoplasmic membranes of host cells.
C) undergo schizogony.
D) carry out photosynthesis.
E) attach to surfaces.
Q4) True fungi differ from slime molds because they have (cell walls/motility/tubular mitochondria).
Q5) The (fungi/algae/lichens) are so sensitive to pollutants that they are used as indicators of environmental conditions.
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Chapter 13: Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A viral infection which does not result in the production of new virions is ________ infection(s).
A) a lytic
B) a latent
C) a persistent
D) a lysogenic
E) either latent or lysogenic
Q2) The process known as ________ is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses.
A) lytic replication
B) persistent infection
C) metastasis
D) latency
E) budding
Q3) Viruses cause most human cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Another term for a lysogenic phage is a (temperate/latent/prophage) phage.
Q5) Viral capsids are composed of subunits called (capsomeres/nucleocapsids/prions).
15
Q6) The combination of a virus's protein coat and nucleic acid core is called the (capsid/virion/nucleocapsid).
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Koch's postulates can be applied to every infectious disease to identify its causative pathogen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a member of the normal human microbiota?
A) Candida
B) Lactobacillus
C) E. coli
D) Bacteroides
E) Microsporum
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis?
A) bacteria in the human colon
B) tapeworm in the human intestine
C) tuberculosis in the human lung
D) protozoa in termites
E) microbes crossing the placenta to the fetus
Q4) Nausea is an example of a (sign/symptom/syndrome) of disease.
Q6) Compare and contrast endotoxins and exotoxins. Page 17
Q5) Compare and contrast analytical, descriptive and experimental epidemiology.
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Page 18
Chapter 15: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells increase in number during an infection with parasitic worms?
A) basophils
B) macrophages
C) neutrophils
D) eosinophils
E) lymphocytes
Q2) What is phagocytosis? What does it involve?
Q3) TLRs are
A) phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs.
B) the coatings of pathogens by complement.
C) molecules that damage cells, resulting in cell lysis.
D) present in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc.
E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
Q4) The (epithelial/goblet/mucous) cells in the tracheal mucous membrane produce mucus.
Q5) White blood cells known as (basophils/lymphocytes/neutrophils) are the main cells involved in the third line of defense.
Q6) What are macrophages, and what are their functions?
Page 19
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Chapter 16: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of interleukins?
A) chemotaxis of leukocytes
B) production of virally infected cells
C) ensuring production of enough leukocytes
D) signaling between leukocytes
E) complement activation
Q2) T lymphocytes mature in the (bone marrow/lymph node/thymus).
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE?
A) They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen.
B) They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter.
C) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites.
D) Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR.
E) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 10¹¹ different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs.
Q4) Activation of B lymphocytes produces (antibody-mediation/cell-mediated/innate) immune responses.
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Page 20
Chapter 17: Immunization and Immune Testing
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Q1) Anti-antibodies are used in indirect antibody assays.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The presence of fungus in patient specimens can be detected by the ________ test.
A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) indirect fluorescent antibody
C) hemagglutination
D) complement fixation
E) ELISA
Q3) Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from A) human serum.
B) animal serum.
C) hybridomas.
D) human B cells in culture.
E) both human and animal serum
Q4) Passive immunotherapy does not result in immunological memory.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins).
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Chapter 18: Immune Disorders
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Q1) Describe the tuberculin response and identify the type of response involved.
Q2) The mechanism of action of RhoGAM is to (activate/neutralize/prevent) an anti-Rh immune response.
Q3) All autoimmune diseases have a genetic cause.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a disease resulting from accumulation of immune complexes in various organs and tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The effectiveness of ART is determined by (ELISA/IFA/PCR) testing.
Q6) A small amount of antigen is injected under the skin of a patient. After 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. This type of response is due to
A) type I hypersensitivity.
B) type II hypersensitivity.
C) type III hypersensitivity. D) type IV hypersensitivity. E) immunodeficiency.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because
A) the outer layers of cells are dead.
B) the surface is covered in salt.
C) it is well supplied with blood vessels to flush microbes from the surface.
D) no microbes are able to survive on the surface.
E) the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.
Q2) The ________ are Gram-positive pleomorphic bacteria commonly found on the skin.
A) Clostridia
B) diphtheroids
C) Staphylococci
D) Streptococci
E) Pseudomonads
Q3) Clostridium perfringens may cause necrotizing fasciitis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The syndrome known as cat scratch disease results when (Bartonella/Pseudomonas/Rickettsia) is introduced into a wound.
Q5) Ringworm is the result of skin infection with (Madurella/Microsporum/Mycobacterium).
Q6) Explain why Pseudomonas aeruginosa is described as a "medical puzzle."
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Chapter 20: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System and Eyes
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Q1) An intracellular parasite primarily transmitted as an STD is the agent of ________, which may cause enough damage to result in blindness.
A) primary amebic meningoencephalopathy
B) trachoma
C) rabies
D) tetanus
E) cryptococcal meningitis
Q2) The form of botulism known as (foodborne/infant/wound) is an intoxication disorder.
Q3) A child is brought to the hospital with a high fever, nausea, and vomiting, and complaining of headache. The cerebrospinal fluid collected by spinal tap is cloudy and contains spherical cells which stain Gram-positive. These signs and symptoms are consistent with
A) primary amebic encephalitis caused by Naegleria.
B) cryptococcal meningitis due to infection with Cryptococcus neoformans.
C) bacterial meningitis probably due to Streptococcus.
D) tetanus resulting from infection with Clostridium botulinum.
E) aseptic meningitis from infection with Neisseria meningitidis.
Q4) The normal habitat for Naegleria is (birds/mammals/water).
Page 24
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Chapter 21: Microbial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lyme disease becomes chronic because
A) Borrelia changes its surface antigens frequently.
B) Borrelia can lie dormant in liver cells.
C) the bacterium resists phagocytosis.
D) Borrelia is an intracellular parasite of erythrocytes.
E) the bacterium resists phagocytosis and "hides" erythrocytes.
Q2) Cytomegalovirus may be latent for years and reactivate when immunosuppression occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cytomegalovirus infection of the retina is now treated with (interferon/fomivirsen/ganciclovir), the first antisense RNA drug.
Q4) Epstein-Barr virus causes the cells it infects to become immortal because it suppresses (apoptosis/cytolysis/oncogenesis).
Q5) The release of bacterial toxins into the blood leads to (bacteremia/septicemia/toxemia).
Q6) Lymph is produced in the lymph nodes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as Streptococcus pyogenes) are distinguished from non-pathogenic streptococci by
A) alpha hemolytic activity.
B) beta hemolytic activity.
C) no hemolytic activity.
D) the absence of a capsule.
E) the presence of a lysogenic phage.
Q2) Elongation factor, a protein required for eukaryotic (transcription/translation/expression), is the cellular target of the toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
Q3) Neutrophils are inhibited from gathering at the site of infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis by what virulence factor of the pathogen?
A) mycolic acid
B) cord factor
C) kinase
D) the capsule
E) hemolysin
Q4) A key diagnostic sign of diphtheria is the presence of the (pseudomembrane/pharyngitis/rash/tubercle).
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following conditions usually results in severe acute liver damage?
A) co-infection with hepatitis A and hepatitis B viruses
B) superinfection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses
C) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses
D) superinfection with hepatitis A and hepatitis E viruses
E) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis C viruses
Q2) Chronic infection with ________ may progress to hepatic cancer.
A) HAV
B) HBV
C) HCV
D) HEV
E) both HBV and HCV
Q3) Complete recovery from hepatitis A infection occurs 99% of the time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The form of infection with Entamoeba histolytica that is frequently asymptomatic is known as (extraintestinal/dysentery/luminal) amebiasis.
Q5) Vomiting is a common sign of viral gastroenteritis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The presence of (bacillus/clue/streptococcal) cells is an important aspect of the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis.
Q2) A small, red, hard but painless lesion is a sign of infection with (gonorrhea/herpes/syphilis).
Q3) Neisseria gonorrhoeae of the reproductive tract in women
A) is usually initially asymptomatic.
B) produces severe inflammation of the vagina and cervix.
C) results in the formation of curd-like discharge.
D) results in the production of a yellow-greenish frothy discharge.
E) produces painful ulcerations.
Q4) A lesion known as a whitlow is the result of infection with (chlamydia/herpes/syphilis).
Q5) Which of the following can mimic gonorrhea infections?
A) syphilis
B) genital herpes
C) trichomoniasis
D) chlamydia
E) candidiasis
Page 28
Q6) The yeast infection (candidiasis/trichomoniasis/vaginosis) can become systemic in AIDS patients.
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Chapter 25: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) The fermentation product known as silage is
A) a step in the production of brandy.
B) a means of food preservation.
C) a means of making plant materials more appealing to livestock.
D) a meat product.
E) made from milk.
Q2) Sulfur dioxide is added to "must" in the production of wine to
A) improve the flavor.
B) allow more control over the fermentation process.
C) provide a necessary nutrient for the fermentation process.
D) prevent tannins from leaching out of wood into the fermenting wine.
E) both enhance flavor and promote fermentation.
Q3) Pickling is an effective means of food preservation involving
A) increasing oxygen content.
B) increasing salt concentration.
C) reducing pH.
D) reducing oxygen content.
E) increasing salt concentration or reducing pH or both.
Q4) Botryococcus braunii is an alga that produces hydrocarbons at (10/20/30) percent of its dry weight and could be harvested in the future as an alternative fuel.
Page 30
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Chapter 26: Microbial Ecology and Microbiomes
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Q1) Which of the following is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium that forms associations with the roots of plants?
A) anaerobic Bacillus species
B) Clostridium species
C) Rhizobium species
D) Azotobacter species
E) cyanobacteria
Q2) Biomining takes advantage of prokaryotes ability to ________ metals.
A) reduce
B) reduce the solubility of
C) oxidize
D) directly solubilize
E) bioaccumulate
Q3) Some microbes can (dissimilate/oxidize/reduce) hydrogen sulfide to elemental sulfur.
Q4) Without the activities of microorganisms, the functioning of earth's ecosystems would cease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Anaerobic oxidation of (methane/rubisco/plastics) produces carbon dioxide.
Page 31
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