Microbiology for Health Sciences
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces students to the fundamental concepts of microbiology with a focus on their relevance to health sciences. Topics include the structure and function of microorganisms, the role of pathogens in human disease, principles of infection and immunity, antimicrobial therapy, and methods for controlling microbial growth. Emphasis is placed on understanding the interactions between microbes and their human hosts, epidemiology of infectious diseases, and laboratory techniques essential for identifying microorganisms. This course is designed to provide foundational knowledge for students pursuing careers in nursing, allied health, or biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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Q1) The most prevalent worldwide infectious diseases are A)AIDS-related diseases.
B)diarrheal diseases.
C)malaria diseases.
D)measles.
E)respiratory diseases.
Answer: E
Q2) Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all A)nucleic acids.
B)carbohydrates.
C)polysaccharides.
D)amino acids.
E)enzymes.
Answer: A
Q3) A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis
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Q1) A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified,and their precise concentrations known and reproducible,would be termed
A)complex.
B)reducing.
C)enriched.
D)chemically defined.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Answer: D
Q2) Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar along with some colonies on the surface?
A)streak plate
B)spread plate
C)pour plate
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria in the genus Mycoplasma and bacteria called L-forms lack cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid,tubular appendages called
A)flagella.
B)cilia.
C)fimbriae.
D)periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
E)sex pili.
Answer: E
Q3) Microscopic analysis revealed the presence of gram-negative bacilli in the patient's stool.Based upon this information,you picture in your mind which of the following images?
A)red spheres in chains
B)purple rods
C)purple spheres in clusters
D)red rods
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are helminths except A)pinworms.
B)flukes.
C)trypanosomes.
D)roundworms.
E)tapeworms.
Q2) Larval development of helminths occurs in which host?
A)primary host
B)intermediate (secondary)host
C)definitive host
D)transport host
E)Mating takes place in all hosts.
Q3) The size of a eukaryotic cell ribosome is A)30S.
B)40S.
C)50S.
D)70S.
E)80S.
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Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Life Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses mutate and some have not been discovered.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called A)viroids.
B)prions.
C)bacteriophages.
D)satellite viruses.
E)All of the choices infect bacteria.
Q3) New,nonenveloped virus release occurs by A)lysis.
B)budding.
C)exocytosis.
D)both lysis and budding.
E)both budding and exocytosis.
Q4) Viruses are the most common cause of acute infections that do not result in hospitalization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because a hypertonic environment forces water to move out of a cell,it is said to have high osmotic A)pressure.
B)diffusion.
C)tension.
D)leverage.
Q2) Nutrient absorption is mediated by the A)cell wall.
B)peptidoglycan layer.
C)proteins in the periplasmic space.
D)cell membrane.
E)nuclear membrane.
Q3) The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally governed by the generation time of the inoculated species.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine the size.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Important components of coenzymes are A)vitamins.
B)metallic ions.
C)active sites.
D)substrates.
E)ribozymes.
Q2) When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation,how many ATP are generated?
A)2 ATP
B)3 ATP
C)24 ATP
D)36 ATP
E)38 ATP
Q3) The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of _____ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction.
A)cofactors
B)vitamins
C)enzymes
D)ATP
E)coenzymes
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires
A)repressor alone bound to operator.
B)substrate bound to repressor.
C)substrate bound to promoter.
D)corepressor and repressor binding to operator.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?
A)add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
B)cool DNA to between 50<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C and 65<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
C)add primers
D)heat target DNA to 94<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
E)repeat the cycle of heating and cooling
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with a bacterial ribosome?
A)is a 70S
B)has a peptide (P)site
C)has an exit site
D)small unit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds
E)has an amino acid (A)site
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Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacterium in a capped culture tube?
A)ultraviolet (germicidal)light
B)gamma rays
C)12<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
D)160<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C for 2 hours
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Ethylene oxide is a sterilizing gas.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the
A)thermal death point (TDP).
B)thermal death time (TDT).
C)sporicidal time.
D)death phase point.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q4) Pseudomonas is resistant to soaps.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug,this serious side effect is called a superinfection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sulfa drugs work on
A)nucleic acid biosynthesis.
B)ribosome biosynthesis.
C)peptidoglycan biosynthesis.
D)folic acid biosynthesis.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) You provide education to the patient regarding sulfasoxazole,a sulfonamide that targets folic acid synthesis.The synthesis of which of the following products is affected by inhibition of folate metabolism?
A)DNA
B)RNA
C)DNA and RNA
D)DNA,RNA,and amino acids
Q4) Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an infected person is in the incubation period,that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission?
A)fomites
B)water
C)droplet nuclei
D)aerosols
E)droplets
Q3) Mucinase has the greatest effect on the A)respiratory system.
B)gastrointestinal system.
C)urinary system.
D)genital system.
E)skin.
Q4) Koch's postulates are easily satisfied for viral diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur in the body.
A)heat
B)pain
C)chill
D)sweat
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) All of the following pertain to platelets except they
A)contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
B)function primarily in hemostasis.
C)originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes.
D)function in blood clotting and inflammation.
E)are not whole cells but are pieces of cells.
Q3) The most numerous WBCs that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A)basophils.
B)eosinophils.
C)neutrophils.
D)monocytes.
E)lymphocytes.
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following explanations tells you why Joseph became infected with chickenpox in the first place?
A)Joseph should not have been infected because he had passive natural immunity from breastfeeding as a baby.
B)His mother should have had gamma globulin administered so he would have passive artificial immunity.
C)There is no way Joseph could have been protected from the infection,since he did not receive active artificial immunity through the form of a vaccine.
D)Joseph probably has a primary immunodeficiency disease,otherwise there is no reason humans should be infected with chickenpox.
Q2) Which of the following is not a property of B cells?
A)produce plasma cells and memory cells
B)low numbers circulating in the blood
C)require antigen presented with MHC proteins
D)receptors called immunoglobins
E)mature in the bone marrow
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n)
A)isograft.
B)autograft.
C)allograft.
D)xenograft.
E)hypograft.
Q2) Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage,shock,and death.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is
A)humoralpathology.
B)hemopathology.
C)epidemiology.
D)immunopathology.
E)histopathology.
Q4) A viral infection can cause type I diabetes mellitus. A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) When minute samples of DNA need to be genetically analyzed for identification purposes,which test can be effectively used?
A)direct fluorescence antibody
B)Widal
C)Weil-Felix reaction
D)PCR
E)direct antigen reaction
Q2) Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification?
A)morphology
B)Gram stain reaction
C)acid-fast reaction
D)antibody response
E)endospores
Q3) Phage typing is useful in identifying
A)Treponema pallidum.
B)Mycobacterium leprae.
C)Streptococcus.
D)Salmonella.
E)Clostridium.
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Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is A)enterotoxin.
B)hemolysin.
C)toxic shock syndrome toxin.
D)exfoliative toxin.
E)erythrogenic toxin.
Q2) The integument includes all of the following except A)skin.
B)hair.
C)nails.
D)sweat glands.
E)surface capillaries.
Q3) Keratitis is usually caused by A)Streptococcus pyogenes.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)herpes simplex.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?
A)Listeria monocytogenes
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Neisseria meningitidis
D)Cryptococcus neoformans
E)Streptococcus agalactiae
Q3) The best defense against arborviruses is
A)prophylactic rifampin.
B)vector control.
C)vaccination.
D)prompt treatment with acyclovir.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Some cases of CJD may be caused by a mutation of the PrP gene.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following requires direct contact with infected body fluids?
A)yellow fever
B)dengue fever
C)Q fever
D)Lassa fever
E)trench fever
Q2) Suzanne wants to know the risk of her child being HIV positive.What is the risk?
A)The child will be HIV positive because Suzanne is HIV positive,and there is no way to prevent transmission.
B)Since HIV is passed through the father,the child will be HIV negative.
C)It is impossible to know if HIV will be passed on to the child,but you can decrease the chances by vigilant antiretroviral therapy.
D)Fetal immunity will ward off HIV during pregnancy,but the child should not breast-feed.
Q3) Rifampin is the drug of choice for malaria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drug-resistant strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are now treated with A)penicillin v.
B)eryrthromycin.
C)tetracyline.
D)vancomycin.
E)cefotaxime.
Q2) Respiratory syncytial virus is a major cause of global respiratory infection outbreaks in infants 6 months of age or younger.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Legionella pneumophila
A)is easily killed by chlorine.
B)often lives intracellularly in amoebas.
C)is transmitted through the soil.
D)always causes a severe pneumonia.
E)is a gram-positive bacterium.
Q4) Treatment for diphtheria requires only penicillin or erythromycin.
A)True
B)False
21
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most antihelminth medications act only against the worms,not the human host.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Escherichia coli infections
A)are often transmitted by fecal-contaminated water and food.
B)have been due to undercooked meat.
C)involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.
D)can be self-limiting with the only treatment being rehydration.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is
A)water and electrolyte replacement.
B)antimicrobials.
C)antitoxin.
D)surgery.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q4) In the absence of dietary carbohydrates,bacteria do not cause tooth decay.
A)True
B)False
22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
A)the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.
B)the cause of gonorrhea.
C)called the gonococcus.
D)virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) All of the following are true for HSV-2 except
A)becomes latent in sacral ganglion.
B)virus is only shed from active lesions.
C)is reactivated by bacterial infections.
D)can infect oral mucosa.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Lactobacillis in the female reproductive tract
A)is protective.
B)is indicative of underlying infection.
C)is the causative agent in common yeast infections.
D)can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease.
E)can contribute to STDs.
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Chapter 22: One Health: The Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other
Animals
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Q1) Most of the oil released into the Gulf of Mexico during the Deepwater Horizon explosion was biodegraded by microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called A)decomposition.
B)synergism.
C)mineralization.
D)bioremediation.
E)recycling.
Q3) The most prominent Water-borne pathogens of recent times include all except A)Giardia.
B)Cryptosporidium.
C)Campylobacter.
D)Salmonella.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The presence of fecal matter means that the body of water must be avoided,regardless of filtration.
A)True
B)False
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