Microbiology for Health Professions Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Health Professions introduces the fundamental principles of microbiology with a special focus on organisms and processes relevant to human health. This course covers the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Students will explore microbial genetics, growth, and the role of microbes in disease, immunity, and public health. Emphasis is placed on infection control, diagnosis, and the prevention and treatment of infectious diseases in clinical settings. Through laboratory and theoretical study, students gain practical skills and an understanding of the significance of microbiology in health care professions.
Recommended Textbook
Nesters Microbiology A Human Perspective 8th Edition by Denise G. Anderson
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25 Chapters
1645 Verified Questions
1645 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Humans and the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria are good models to use because they
A)are large in size.
B)share many biochemical/physiological properties with more complicated organisms.
C)can be assembled into multicellular organisms.
D)have complicated growth requirements.
Answer: B
Q2) Which group(s)below contain single-celled and multicellular organisms?
A)Algae
B)Fungi
C)Protozoa
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)Algae AND Fungi
Answer: E
Q3) The idea of spontaneous Generation postulated that
A)organisms could evolve into the next generation of organisms.
B)organisms could spontaneously combust.
C)organisms could spontaneously arise from other living organisms.
D)living organisms could spontaneously arise from non-living material.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water
A)is a polar molecule.
B)is referred to as a universal solvent.
C)makes up over 70% (by wt.)of an organism.
D)is often a product or reactant in chemical reactions.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?
A)Adenine
B)Ribose
C)Thymine
D)Uracil
E)Ribose AND Uracil
Answer: E
Q3) The helices and sheets of amino acids form a protein's
A)primary structure.
B)secondary structure.
C)tertiary structure.
D)quaternary structure.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two magnifying lenses found in a light microscope are the A)basic and transverse.
B)small and large.
C)ocular and objective.
D)simple and phase.
Answer: C
Q2) Extrachromasomal DNA is found in ____________________________.
A)mitochondria
B)plasmids
C)nucleoid
D)nucleoli
E)mitochondria AND plasmids
Answer: E
Q3) Electron microscopes differ from light microscopes in that A)electrons replace light.
B)electromagnets replace glass lenses.
C)resolution is higher.
D)magnification is higher.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Dynamics of Prokaryotic Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the bacterial cells that result from the replication of a single original bacterial organism are said to be a A)population.
B)pure culture.
C)lag culture.
D)mutant culture.
Q2) You are in charge of water quality for your city's water treatment plant.Of the methods at your disposal,which will be the most efficient and cheapest method of determining the number of viable bacteria in the water coming out of your plant?
A)Direct counts using a microscope and a counting chamber.
B)Using a Coulter counter machine.
C)Performing serial dilutions of your samples and doing spread plate counts.
D)Using membrane filtration followed by placing the membrane in a growth medium for colony counts after incubation.
E)Biochemical analysis of secondary metabolites in the water that are given off by bacteria.
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Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hexachlorophene has been particularly effective against
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Micrococcus aureus.
C)Escherichia coli.
D)Enterobacter aerogenes.
Q2) Boiling is very effective at removing most common waterborne pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a sterilization method?
A)Hot air oven
B)Autoclave
C)Pasteurization
D)Filtration
Q4) Quaternary ammonium compounds are
A)cationic detergents that help wash surfaces.
B)attracted to the negative charge on the microbial cell surface.
C)used as a 37% aqueous solution.
D)very effective against Pseudomonas.
E)cationic detergents that help wash surfaces AND attracted to the negative charge on the microbial cell surface.
7
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Fueling Cell Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The small,non-protein molecules that can be readily separated from an enzyme and are responsible for transfer of atoms from one molecule to another are referred to as A)vitamins.
B)enzymes.
C)hormones.
D)coenzymes.
Q2) The readily usable energy currency of cells is A)electricity.
B)the electron transport system.
C)ATP.
D)CTP.
E)the electron transport system AND CTP.
Q3) In the phototrophic production of energy,the oxygen originates from A)carbon dioxide.
B)water.
C)glucose.
D)hydrogen peroxide.
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Chapter 7: The Blueprint of Life, From DNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 3' end of DNA
A)refers to the end that has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 3 carbon of deoxyribose.
B)attaches to the 5' phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide.
C)always has thymine attached to it.
D)usually has guanine attached to it.
E)refers to the end that has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 3 carbon of deoxyribose AND attaches to the 5' phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide.
Q2) The scientists responsible for the idea that RNA can act as a catalyst were
A)Watson and Crick.
B)Beadle and Tatum.
C)Altman and Cech.
D)Lederberg and Stanley.
Q3) RNA is characterized by which one of the following features?
A)Deoxyribose
B)Thymine
C)Ribose
D)Double-stranded
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clever technique that streamlines the identification of auxotrophic mutants is A)gas chromatography.
B)replica plating.
C)direct selection.
D)reversion.
Q2) The largest group of chemical mutagens consists of A)radiation.
B)base analogs.
C)nitrous acid.
D)alkylating agents.
Q3) Plasmids often carry the information for antibiotic resistance. A)True
B)False
Q4) Bacteria that have properties of both the donor and recipient cells are the result of A)UV light.
B)SOS repair.
C)frame shift mutations.
D)genetic recombination.
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Recombinant DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using lacZ containing vectors,colonies containing intact vector turn blue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dideoxynucleotides
A)are useful in nucleic acid sequencing.
B)have two additional hydroxyl groups at the 2' and 3' carbons.
C)act as chain initiators.
D)act as chain terminators.
E)are useful in nucleic acid sequencing AND act as chain terminators.
Q3) Digestion of DNA by restriction enzymes
A)produces sticky ends.
B)produces blunt ends.
C)cuts both strands of the DNA molecule.
D)generates restriction fragments.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The polymerase chain reaction is used to
A)amplify certain sections of DNA.
B)amplify mRNA.
C)produce proteins.
D)produce long polymers of carbohydrates to be used in electrophoresis.
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Chapter 10: Identification and Classification of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) API<sup>TM</sup>,Enterotube<sup>TM</sup>,and Vitek<sup>TM</sup> are all
A)methods for extracting DNA from bacteria.
B)used to measure gas production.
C)commercially available methods used to identify bacteria.
D)used to show the presence of bacteria in a sample.
Q2) Phage typing
A)is useful for determining eukaryotic cell types.
B)is used to extract DNA from cells.
C)is used to distinguish bacterial strains.
D)is dependent on the type of eukaryotic cell.
E)is used to distinguish bacterial strains AND is dependent on the type of eukaryotic cell.
Q3) Serological methods
A)are useful in identifying bacteria.
B)rely on the specificity of an antibody-antigen interaction.
C)may be simple and rapid.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Based on DNA hybridization,humans and chimpanzees are the same species.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Diversity of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The skin and oral cavity may have anaerobic microenvironments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anoxygenic phototrophs grow photosynthetically only under aerobic conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Relatively little is known about many obligate anaerobes.Why might this be so?
A)The obligate aerobes are far more numerous,and also far more interesting.
B)It's much harder to provide the right atmospheric environment to cultivate obligate anaerobes,so it's been harder to study them.
C)Only obligate aerobes cause disease,so we've had little reason to study obligate anaerobes.
D)The majority of obligate anaerobes are very nutritionally fastidious,which has slowed their study.
Q4) Azotobacter
A)forms endospores.
B)forms cysts.
C)fixes carbon dioxide.
D)are used as an indicator of fecal pollution.
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Chapter 12: The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Typically arthropods serve as vectors of disease,while helminths directly cause disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fungi are particularly adept at infecting A)protozoans.
B)algae.
C)animals.
D)plants.
Q3) Mycorrhizae
A)are vital for the survival of lichens.
B)are vital for the survival of many plants.
C)increase the absorptive ability of roots.
D)are used in the production of wine,beer,and bread.
E)are vital for the survival of many plants AND increase the absorptive ability of roots.
Q4) Algae may directly infect humans and cause disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure of plant,animal,and bacterial viruses are each,fundamentally,very different from one another.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is it virtually impossible to stamp out a disease caused by a zoonotic virus?
A)You'd have to drive the vector organism extinct to do so.
B)Many vector organisms have multiple stages of their life cycle that can carry a zoonotic virus,which complicates controlling the vector-borne transmission.
C)Many viruses transmitted in this manner may utilize more than one vector organism.
D)Many zoonotic viruses may be able to reside in more than one host organism,complicating control measures.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Which does not refer to the shape of a virus?
A)Icosahedral (isometric)
B)Helical
C)Complex
D)Bacillus
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Chapter 14: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complement
A)may be activated through three pathways.
B)disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells.
C)is part of the specific defense system.
D)is a group of blood proteins.
E)may be activated through three pathways,disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells,AND is a group of blood proteins.
Q2) The cellular organelle responsible for the digestion of ingested infectious agents is the
A)endoplasmic reticulum.
B)Golgi apparatus.
C)phagolysosome.
D)lysosome.
Q3) Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body?
A)Erythrocyte
B)Neutrophil
C)Megakaryocyte
D)T cell
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Chapter 15: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antibodies is a pentamer?
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgM
D)IgE
Q2) CD8 cells are
A)T helper cells.
B)natural killer cells.
C)T cytotoxic cells.
D)macrophages.
Q3) The immunoglobulin that is important in hypersensitivity reactions is A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgG.
D)IgE.
Q4) The function of the secretory component of the IgA molecule is
A)to protect IgA from being destroyed by proteolytic enzymes.
B)to coat the antigen.
C)opsonization.
D)to fix IgA to the antigen.
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Chapter 16: Host-Microbe Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A human fetus has no resident microbial population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The connection between a particular organism and a specific disease was first made by A)Jenner.
B)Pasteur.
C)Koch.
D)Leeuwenhoek.
Q3) Which of the following may be considered virulence factor(s)?
A)Edhesins
B)Capsules
C)Endotoxins
D)Proteases
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The spread of toxin via circulation is called A)septicemia.
B)bacteremia.
C)sepsis.
D)toxemia.
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Chapter 17: Immunologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding a mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen,both
A)result in destruction of red blood cells by the foreign antigen.
B)utilize complement to destroy red blood cells.
C)utilize antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity to destroy the red blood cells.
D)result in destruction of only leukocytes.
E)utilize either complement or antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity to destroy red blood cells.
Q2) Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is an example of an autoimmune disease that involves
A)sensitized T cells.
B)cytotoxic T cells.
C)antibodies.
D)IgD.
Q3) A defect in which of the following systems leads to granulomatous disease?
A)lymphatic system
B)circulatory system
C)oxidase system
D)Golgi system
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Chapter 18: Applications of Immune Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The procedure developed by the Chinese to protect against smallpox was called A)Oriental poxination.
B)humoral immunity.
C)variolation.
D)naturally acquired immunity.
Q2) Recombinant vaccines and inactivated vaccines typically require several shots to be effective.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in A)direct fluorescent antibody tests.
B)indirect ELISA.
C)Western blot.
D)indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
E)indirect ELISA,Western blot AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
Q4) If a positive reaction is last observed at a dilution of 1:256,the titer is A)128.
B)1/512.
C)1/256.
D)256.
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Chapter 19: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another are termed A)symptomatic.
B)clinical.
C)acute.
D)latent.
E)communicable.
Q2) If the number of people who become ill during an epidemic rises and falls rapidly,this is called a(n)
A)propagated epidemic.
B)promulgated epidemic.
C)common source epidemic.
D)index epidemic.
Q3) When an infectious disease cannot spread in a population because it lacks a significant number of susceptible hosts,the phenomenon is referred to as A)protected population.
B)active immunity.
C)passive immunity.
D)herd immunity.
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diffusion bioassay
A)determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to kill a bacteria.
B)determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to inhibit growth of a bacteria.
C)is similar in principle to the Kirby-Bauer test.
D)determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.
E)is similar in principle to the Kirby-Bauer AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.
Q2) If drugs are less effective when taken together than when each is taken separately,they are called
A)energetic.
B)antagonistic.
C)additive.
D)synergistic.
Q3) Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically key on
A)peptidoglycan precursors.
B)penicillin-binding proteins.
C)ribosomes.
D)porin proteins.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The conjuctivae
A)have few resident bacteria.
B)are often covered with bacteria.
C)are populated with S.aureus.
D)are populated with S.pyogenes.
Q2) If you are a 20-year-old healthy young adult and you have to CHOOSE a type of pneumonia to become infected with (and you will NOT get treatment for it),which would be the "best," and why?
A)Pneumococcal pneumonia-it doesn't destroy lung tissue and can be completely recovered from.
B)Klebsiella pneumonia-it has the shortest recovery time.
C)Mycoplasmal pneumonia-it has the mildest symptoms and is generally easily cleared out.
D)Viral pneumonia-there are many antiviral medications you can take for this version with very few side effects.
Q3) Rhinoviruses are effectively treated with antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Skin Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) S.aureus clumping factor
A)causes fibrinogen to clump together.
B)causes bacteria to clump together in plasma.
C)reacts with prothrombin.
D)produces staphylothrombin.
Q2) After being bitten by an infected tick,transfer of the rickettsial organism occurs
A)immediately.
B)within 5 minutes.
C)within 20 minutes.
D)within 4-10 hours.
Q3) Humans are the only reservoir for varicella-zoster.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The surface layer of the skin is the A)cutaneous.
B)keratin.
C)dermis.
D)epidermis.
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24
Chapter 23: Wound Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microorganisms in abscesses often are not killed by antimicrobial agents because
A)the microorganisms stop dividing.
B)of the chemical nature of the pus.
C)of the lack of blood vessels.
D)of the high level of oxygenation.
E)the microorganisms stop dividing,of the chemical nature of the pus AND of the lack of blood vessels.
Q2) Tetanus antitoxin is
A)antibody against the bacteria.
B)inactivated toxin.
C)inactivated bacteria.
D)antibody against the toxin.
Q3) Individuals who have recovered from tetanus are not immune to the disease and must be immunized.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes have fibronectin-binding proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
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Q1) Shigella and cholera toxin both
A)have an A-B arrangement.
B)work through ADP ribosylation.
C)increase cAMP levels.
D)prevent protein synthesis.
Q2) The toxins involved in intestinal infections typically
A)kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis.
B)modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.
C)modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes.
D)kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis.
E)kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.
Q3) Intestinal protozoan infections are typically spread by
A)the respiratory route.
B)blood transfusion.
C)body fluids.
D)the fecal-oral route.
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Chapter 25: Genitourinary Tract Infections
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Q1) The development of lymph node enlargement in the region of a skin ulcer after a tick or insect bite or handling of a wild animal suggests A)brucellosis.
B)endocarditis.
C)septicemia.
D)tularemia.
Q2) The inflammatory effects of immune complexes lodged in the kidney is called A)renal phritis. B)rendema.
C)glomerulonephritis.
D)urethritis.
Q3) The plague is typically transmitted via the bite of A)ticks. B)fleas.
C)lice.
D)mites.
Q4) Plasmodium falciparum causes the most serious form of malaria. A)True B)False
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