Microbiology for Environmental Science Test Preparation
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on their applications in environmental science. Students will learn about the diversity, physiology, and ecology of microorganisms, including bacteria, archaea, viruses, fungi, and algae, and how they interact with their environments. The course examines the roles of microbes in biogeochemical cycles, waste treatment, pollution degradation, and ecosystem health. Topics also include modern techniques for studying environmental microbiology, such as molecular and genetic methods, and the relevance of microbes in addressing contemporary environmental challenges such as climate change, water quality, and bioremediation.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology Basic Principles 10th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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2124 Verified Questions
2124 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed ____.
Answer: microorganisms
Q2) The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was
A)Joseph Lister.
B)Ignaz Semmelweis.
C)Robert Koch.
D)Louis Pasteur.
E)Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
Answer: A
Q3) All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that A)cause human disease.
B)lack a cell nucleus.
C)are infectious particles.
D)are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.
E)can only be found growing in laboratories.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What do H<sub>2</sub>O, NaCl, CO<sub>2</sub>, and HCl all have in common?
A)All are salts.
B)All are acids.
C)All are gases.
D)All are inorganic.
E)All are solutes.
Answer: D
Q3) During cellular reactions, electrons may be removed from compounds such as glucose and picked up by a coenzyme known as NAD<sup>+</sup>.When NAD<sup>+</sup> gains these electrons, it is said to be
A)oxidized.
B)reduced.
C)synthesized.
D)dehydrated.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Six "I's" of studying microorganisms include all of the following except A)inoculation.
B)incubation.
C)infection.
D)isolation.
E)identification.
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 µm except
A)0.2 µm.
B)0.2 mm.
C)0.1 µm.
D)0.3 µm.
E)2.0 µm.
Answer: C
Q3) One colony typically develops from the growth of several parent bacterial cells. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria in the genus Mycoplasma and bacteria called L-forms lack cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are correct about a slime layer, except6_21_2016_QC_CS-54137
A)it is a type of glycocalyx.
B)it can be easily washed off the cell.
C)it protects the cell from loss of water and nutrients.
D)it enables movement of cells.
E)it allows cells to participate in biofilms.
Q3) The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's A)ribosomes.
B)inclusions.
C)cell wall.
D)cell membrane.
E)flagella.
Q4) Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed _____.
Q5) The term diplococci refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are helminths except A)pinworms.
B)flukes.
C)trypanosomes.
D)roundworms.
E)tapeworms.
Q2) Which is mismatched?
A)Giardia - transmitted by feces in drinking water
B)Histoplasma - causes Ohio Valley fever
C)Trichomonas - sexually transmitted
D)Plasmodium - causes Chaga's disease
E)Saccharomyces - yeast in making bread and beer
Q3) Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes have two locations: scattered free in the _____, and bound on the surface of the
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Q5) Compare and contrast the physical characteristics of protozoans, yeasts, and algae.
Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss theories regarding the origins of viruses and make a case for whether viruses originated before cellular life-forms or after cellular life-forms.
Q2) Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means
A)the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.
B)the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane.
C)the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid.
D)the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host.
E)the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective.
Q4) Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain what is meant by host range, what governs host range, and what is meant by tissue tropism.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called
A)facilitated diffusion.
B)diffusion.
C)active transport.
D)osmosis.
E)endocytosis.
Q2) Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nutrient absorption is mediated by the A)cell wall.
B)peptidoglycan layer.
C)proteins in the periplasmic space.
D)cell membrane.
E)nuclear membrane.
Q4) Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each FADH<sub>2</sub> from the Krebs cycle enters the electron transport system and gives rise to _____ ATPs.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q2) The majority of reduced NAD is produced in
A)glycolysis.
B)Krebs cycle.
C)the electron transport chain.
D)photosynthesis.
Q3) Which of the following is not involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?
A)reduction of NAD
B)decarboxylation of pyruvic acid
C)Coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group
D)dehydrogenation of pyruvic acid
E)pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A screening system called the _____ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.
A)Koch
B)Ames
C)mutation
D)cancer
E)Iowa
Q2) Of the following list, which antibiotics affect protein synthesis?
A)penicillin
B)tetracycline
C)chloramphenicol
D)ciprofloxacin
E)Both tetracycline and chloramphenicol are correct.
Q3) Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds.
A)peptide
B)nonpolar covalent
C)polar covalent
D)hydrogen
E)sulfhydryl
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amplification of DNA is accomplished by A)polymerase chain reaction.
B)DNA sequencing.
C)gene probes.
D)Southern blot.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) EcoRI and HindIII are
A)palindromes.
B)reverse transcriptases.
C)restriction endonucleases.
D)ligases.
E)DNA polymerases.
Q3) Which of the following would be of LEAST value in DNA profiling?
A)mitotyping
B)STR (short tandem repeat) analysis
C)sequencing blood group alleles
D)analysis of SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphisms)
Q4) Compare and contrast recombinant DNA and gene therapy.
Q6) The _____ blot method analyzes DNA, while the _____ method analyzes RNA. Page 12
Q5) Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called _____.
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteriocidal agents are sterilants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation on inanimate surfaces only removes or kills vegetative bacteria.The term that best describes this action is A)sterilization.
B)disinfection.
C)antisepsis.
D)degermation.
Q3) Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by A)pasteurization.
B)chlorination.
C)moist heat autoclave.
D)filtration.
E)boiling water.
Q4) Compare and contrast antisepsis, disinfection, sanitization, and sterilization with regard to techniques used and level of microbial control achieved.
Q5) _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat.
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except
A)development of resistance to the drug.
B)hepatotoxicity.
C)nephrotoxicity.
D)diarrhea.
E)deafness.
Q2) Which is mismatched?
A)Fleming-penicillin
B)Domagk-sulfonamide
C)Ehrlich-tetracycline
D)Florey and Chain-penicillin
Q3) Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs?
A)liver
B)kidneys
C)gallbladder
D)spleen
E)stomach
Q4) The major source of naturally-produced penicillin is the mold _____.
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces?
A)Lactobacillus
B)Streptococcus
C)Haemophilus
D)Escherichia
E)Mycobacterium
Q2) The implementation of universal blood and body fluid precautions assumes that any and all patient specimens may harbor infectious agents and must be handled with the same degree of care.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Write about some ways to prevent any contamination in lab while making sub-cultures.
Q4) _____ are a set of criteria used to identify and link a specific microorganism as the etiologic agent of a new infectious disease.
Q5) Under certain circumstances, a person's resident flora can be opportunistic pathogens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves
A)initiation of the cascade.
B)production of inflammatory cytokines.
C)the assembly of a ring-shaped protein that forms holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes.
D)cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b.
E)C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of GALT?
A)appendix
B)lymph nodes
C)spleen
D)tonsils
E)thymus gland
Q3) Nonspecific chemical defenses include A)lysozyme.
B)lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat.
C)skin's acidic pH and fatty acids.
D)stomach hydrochloric acid.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
A)helper T-cells
B)suppressor T-cells
C)cytotoxic T-cells
D)delayed hypersensitivity T-cells
E)natural killer (NK) cells
Q2) The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called A)antibodies.
B)sensitized T-cells.
C)activated macrophages.
D)plasma cells.
E)Bursa cells.
Q3) Primary and secondary antibody response differ in all the following ways, except A)IgG production predominates in secondary responses.
B)the lag period between antigen stimulation and antibody response is shorter in the secondary response.
C)the rate of antibody production is faster in primary responses than in secondary responses.
D)primary responses are active whereas secondary responses are passive.
Q4) _____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast local atopies and systemic anaphylaxis with regard to: a) events of the hypersensitivity, b) chemical mediators and their effects, c) patient tissues involved, and d) two specific examples of each.
Q2) Which of the items below accurately describe characteristics of Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions.Check all that apply.
A)Reactions occur within minutes of antigen exposure (provocative dose).
B)Reactions are generated by components of the cell-mediated immune response.
C)IgE, basophils, and mast cells are typically involved.
D)Histamine is a major mediator of symptoms.
E)Reactions are delayed for 24- 48 hours after provocative antigen exposure.
F)The tuberculin skin test and the rash caused by poison ivy and poison oak are examples.
Q3) What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time?
A)degranulation
B)bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)Histamine acts on smooth muscle.
E)Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which test is used to measure the IgE present in allergic patients?
A)fluorescent antibody tests
B)Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test
C)Weil-Felix reaction
D)RIST
E)ELISA
Q2) In _________ tests, antibody cross-links whole-cell antigens, forming complexes that settle out and form visible clumps in the test chamber.
Q3) All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA, except
A)it can detect antibodies in a serum sample.
B)it is the common screening test for antibodies to Helicobacter.
C)color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum.
D)it is the common screening test for antibodies to Hepatitis A.
E)a known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well.
Q4) A serum titer involves
A)serially diluting a serum sample.
B)determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.
C)determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction.
D)the Western Blot method.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and should be treated with a course of antibiotics.This test is indicative of
A)Group A streptococci.
B)Group B streptococci.
C)S.saprophyticus.
D)S.epidermidis.
E)S.aureus.
Q2) A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
D)Streptococcus pyogenes.
E)Streptococcus agalactiae.
Q3) An individual with asymptomatic N.gonorrhoeae may not spread the disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Streptokinase causes the symptoms of scarlet fever.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group _____ streptococci.
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Propionibacterium acnes is normal flora of sebaceous glands of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus?
A)present in soil
B)produce enterotoxins
C)causes food-borne intoxication
D)causes a zoonosis
E)associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are stored at room temperature
Q3) Hyperbaric chamber treatment involves putting patients with myonecrosis in a chamber that has a higher amount of _____.
Q4) In addition to antimicrobics, patients with diphtheria are treated with _____.
Q5) Which type of anthrax is called "woolsorter's disease?"
A)pulmonary
B)gastrointestinal
C)cutaneous
D)All of these choices are correct.
Page 22
Q6) _____ is a chronic progressive disease of the skin and nerves caused by Mycobacterium leprae.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The virulence factor associated with the events of gram-negative sepsis and septic shock is _____.
Q2) The pathogen that causes Legionnaires'pneumonia also causes a milder infection called Pontiac fever.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genes for which of the following may be transferred between fecal bacteria?
A)toxin production
B)capsules
C)fimbriae
D)hemolysins
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) The two true pathogenic enteric genera of the Enterobacteriaceae are _____ and _____.
Q5) Which of the following is not correct concerning Legionnaires'disease?
A)L.pneumophila lives in close associations with free-living amoebas.
B)The disease is communicable from person to person.
C)Symptoms include cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.
Page 24
D)It is more common in males over 50 years of age.
E)Cases have been traced to the fallout from the Mount Saint Helen's volcano.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)latent
E)All of these choices are correct
Q2) The spirochete of relapsing fever changes cell surface antigens many times in order to avoid destruction by the immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Select two diseases that involve different arthropod vectors in their epidemiology.Discuss each disease and describe the role of each vector in the life cycle of the pathogen and establishment of the disease.
Q4) L-forms may arise
A)when bacteria are exposed to lysozyme.
B)when bacteria are exposed to penicillin.
C)As bacteria shed their cell wall in preparation for cell division.
D)When nutrients are in short supply.
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nodular, tumor-like fungal growths seen in certain chronic lung infections are called _____.
Q2) Fungi that exhibit thermal dimorphism grow as _____ at 30°C and as _____ at 37°C.
Q3) Cryptococcosis can include
A)pulmonary infection.
B)septicemia.
C)meningitis.
D)bone infection.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost matter, allows growth and transmission of A)Cryptococcus.
B)Aspergillus.
C)Candida.
D)Dermatophytes.
E)Pneumocystis.
Q5) Sabouraud's dextrose agar is a lab medium for supporting growth of fungi.
A)True
B)False
26
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The larval forms of certain Taenia species, which typically infest muscles of mammalian intermediate hosts are also called
A)proglottids.
B)merozoites.
C)cysticerci.
D)amastigotes.
E)eggs.
Q2) Which of the following is acquired when amoebas are forced into human nasal passages during swimming?
A)Naegleria fowleri
B)Toxoplasma gondii
C)Balantidium coli
D)Giardia lamblia
E)Entamoeba histolytica
Q3) Which animals serve as intermediate hosts for human schistosomes?
A)mosquitoes
B)fish
C)reduviid bugs
D)snails
E)humans
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast chickenpox and shingles, and explain the underlying reasons for their differences in pathogenesis.
Q2) Which is incorrect about parvoviruses?
A)They cause several diseases in dogs, cats, and other mammals.
B)They are single-stranded DNA viruses.
C)They cannot be transmissible to the fetus.
D)They cause a disease known as fifth disease.
E)Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum.
Q3) The hepadnaviruses
A)include the adenoviruses.
B)show tropism for the liver.
C)are transmitted by respiratory secretions.
D)are nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) The oral cavity infection called _____ occurs when herpetic vesicles cover the oral mucosa, tongue, cheeks, and lips.
Q5) Herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) enters the _____ cranial nerve where it becomes latent.
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Q6) Viruses called _____ viruses become permanent residents in host cells and alternate between inactive periods and recurrent infections.
Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are correct about the polio vaccines, except
A)the inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain.
B)treatment for polio involves mainly alleviating pain and suffering.
C)the virus is transmitted through the fecal-oral route.
D)most infections do not result in paralysis.
E)Dr.Jonas Salk developed the IPV vaccine in 1954.
Q2) Which of the following is correct about polio?
A)The disease is still affecting millions of people worldwide, mainly in Africa and India.
B)The disease is spread by the respiratory route.
C)The oral polio vaccine (OPV) is not responsible for causing any polio.
D)The Sabin vaccine is preferred over the Salk vaccine in the United States today.
E)The virus multiplies in the mucosa of the intestines and is shed in feces.
Q3) An antigenic _____ occurs when there is a minor change in antigenicity caused by small mutations in a single influenza virus strain.
Q4) A vaccine is currently available to prevent HIV infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The conversion of nitrate (NO<sub>3</sub> ) to nitrogen gas (N<sub>2</sub>) is called
A)ammonification.
B)nitrogen fixation.
C)photosynthesis.
D)nitrification.
E)denitrification.
Q2) The thin envelope of life that surrounds the Earth's surface is called the A)atmosphere.
B)biosphere.
C)lithosphere.
D)hydrosphere.
E)ecosystem.
Q3) Most of the zooplankton and phyoplankton in a lake will be located in the A)benthic zone.
B)photic zone.
C)produndal zone.
D)littoral zone.
E)Plankton will be distributed among each of these zones.
Q4) Draw an energy pyramid and provide specific examples of each level.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Drying, or _________ is not a reliable microbicidal method.
Q2) In batch fermentation, substrate is added continuously and the product is siphoned off throughout the run.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Wine has a maximum alcoholic content of 17% because concentrations above this level inhibit the metabolism of the yeast.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During which step of water purification does water moves through sand beds and activated charcoal?
A)Chlorination
B)Aeration and settling
C)Sedimentation
D)Storage
E)Filtration
Q5) In some parts of Mexico, ___________ has become a viable alternative to green plants as a primary nutrient source.
Q6) The fermentation of milk by Streptococcus thermophilus produces ___________.
Page 31
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