Microbiology for Allied Health Test Bank
Course Introduction
This course introduces fundamental concepts of microbiology with an emphasis on topics relevant to allied health professions. Students will explore the structure, function, growth, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course covers principles of infection, immunity, disease transmission, antimicrobial agents, and laboratory diagnosis of infectious diseases. Emphasis is placed on the role of microorganisms in human health and disease, infection control practices, and the significance of emerging pathogens in clinical settings. This foundation prepares students to understand the critical relationship between microorganisms and health care.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 2nd Edition by VanMeter
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25 Chapters
818 Verified Questions
818 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Animalcules" were first described by
A)Robert Hooke.
B)Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
C)Hans Janssen.
D)John Needham.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora?
A)Intestine
B)Skin
C)Vagina
D)Blood
Answer: D
Q3) The binominal system of nomenclature was originally developed by A)Pasteur.
B)Linnaeus.
C)Martini.
D)Jenner.
Answer: B
Q4) All bacteria are __________ cells.
Answer: prokaryotic
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transfer of electrons in a chemical bond represents a(n)
A)ionic bond.
B)polar covalent bond.
C)nonpolar covalent bond.
D)hydrogen bond.
Answer: A
Q2) Protons are
A)located in the shells.
B)part of the atomic nucleus.
C)negatively charged.
D)uncharged particles.
Answer: B
Q3) Two glucose molecules form
A)galactose.
B)lactose.
C)maltose.
D)fructose.
Answer: C
Q4) Neutrons are __________ charged particles.
Answer: not
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organelles contain oxidative enzymes capable of oxidizing toxic substances?
A)Mitochondria
B)Chloroplasts
C)Lysosomes
D)Peroxisomes
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is an active transport mechanism?
A)Osmosis
B)Facilitated diffusion
C)Filtration
D)Pinocytosis
Answer: D
Q3) Proteins that are partially embedded on one side of the plasma membrane are referred to as __________ proteins.
Answer: peripheral
Q4) An enzyme that requires a coenzyme/cofactor to function,but does not have one bound,is called a(n)__________.
Answer: apoenzyme
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Comma-shaped rods
A)Psychrotrophs
B)Thermophiles
C)Chemoautotrophs
D)Chemoheterotrophs
E)Sarcinae
F)Tetrads
G)Vibrios
H)Spirillium
I)Cocci
Q2) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
A)Rickettsia rickettsii
B)Chlamydia psittaci
C)Bordetella pertussis
D)Helicobacter pylori
E)Salmonella
F)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
G)Clostridium perfringens
Q3) Microorganisms that acquire energy from light are called __________.
Q4) Microorganisms that grow only in the presence of oxygen are called __________.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common viruses causing respiratory illness belong to A)Herpesviridae.
B)Papovaviridae.
C)Adenoviridae.
D)Poxviridae.
Q2) Kaposi's sarcoma is caused by human herpesvirus number __________.
Q3) Human rhinovirus A
A)Polyarthritis
B)Plantar warts
C)Chickenpox
D)Common cold
E)Infectious mononucleosis
F)Gastroenteritis
G)Hemorrhagic fever
Q4) The Baltimore classification system places viruses into __________ groups.
A)four
B)five
C)seven
D)nine
Q5) A fully assembled virus is called a __________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungi are free-living _________ organisms.
A)autotrophic
B)chemotrophic
C)heterotrophic
D)phototrophic
Q2) The antibiotics penicillin and cephalosporin are produced by
A)algae.
B)slime molds.
C)fungi.
D)protozoans.
Q3) Result of asexual reproduction of fungi
A)Mycelium
B)Algae
C)Sporangia
D)Fungi
E)Dimorphic fungi
F)Coenocytic
G)Blastospore
Q4) Trematodes are commonly called __________.
Q5) Slime molds have both fungal and __________ characteristics.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) High salt or sugar content/concentrations make use of ____________ to destroy or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
Q2) Boiling items in water for __________ minutes will kill most vegetative bacteria and viruses.
A)3-5
B)5-6
C)6-8
D)10-15
Q3) Alkylating agent
A)Iodine
B)Triclosan
C)Aldehydes
D)Quaternary compounds
E)Damage to DNA
F)Mercury
G)Osmotic pressure
H)Penicillin
Q4) The term to describe an agent that causes microbial growth to be inhibited,thus preventing further growth is __________.
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Chapter 8: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an agar slant,bacterial colonies that appear separate or semiconfluent are referred to as
A)filiform.
B)echinulate.
C)beaded.
D)effuse.
Q2) Selective medium for gram-positive bacteria while inhibiting gram-negative bacteria
A)MacConkey agar
B)Phenylethyl alcohol agar
C)Nutrient agar
D)Tryptic soy agar
E)Chocolate agar
F)Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar
G)Thayer-Martin agar
Q3) A medium that grows several different organisms that show visible differences in colony morphology is a __________ medium.
Q4) A saucer-shaped liquefaction of gelatin stabs is said to have a __________ appearance.
Q5) Substances that kill bacteria are referred to as __________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is/are __________ level(s)of biosafety depending on the organisms handled.
D)4
Q2) PASS stands for pull,aim,squeeze,and __________.
Q3) A unique number assigned to each chemical to aid in searching computerized databases
A)Chemical name
B)Structural formula
C)Synonyms
D)Trade name
E)CAS number
F)RTECS number
G)DOT ID number
Q4) Ultralow freezers can freeze down to __________° C.
11
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Chapter 10: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three general sites of drug action are __________,__________,and
Q2) Schedule II controlled substance
A)Morphine
B)Administered into the subarachnoid space
C)Diazepam
D)Administered into muscles
E)Aspirin
F)Administered sublingually
G)L-Dopa
H)LSD
Q3) Schedule IV controlled substance
A)Morphine
B)Administered into the subarachnoid space
C)Diazepam
D)Administered into muscles
E)Aspirin
F)Administered sublingually
G)L-Dopa
H)LSD
Q4) ED is a measure of the __________ response.
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Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are mechanisms of resistance used by microbes except
A)Change in ribosome composition
B)Development of defensive enzymes
C)Increased drug elimination
D)Change in membrane permeability
Q2) Most agents that inhibit protein synthesis involve disrupting the process of
Q3) Which of the following is a synthetic antimicrobial drug?
A)Penicillin G
B)Penicillin V
C)Cephalosporin
D)Quinolone
Q4) Another term for the effectiveness of a drug is __________.
Q5) When two antibiotics are given together to increase the therapeutic effect,the phenomenon is referred to as
A)antagonism.
B)mutualism.
C)synergism.
D)parasitism.
Q6) The zone of inhibition is the result of the __________ method.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) AIDS
A)Pandemic
B)Nosocomial
C)Septicemia
D)Adhesion
E)Pathogen
F)Bacteremia
G)Evasion
H)Microbiota
I)Surgery
Q2) All of the following areas of the human body contain normal flora except
A)Peritoneum
B)Urethra
C)Vagina
D)Mouth
Q3) Which type of symbiosis benefits both members?
A)Mutualism
B)Parasitism
C)Commensalism
D)Pathogenesis
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Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organs breaks down worn-out red blood cells?
A)Spleen
B)Pancreas
C)Thymus
D)Red bone marrow
Q2) Which of the following cells is a granulocyte?
A)Basophil
B)Monocyte
C)Lymphocyte
D)Macrophage
Q3) Large,circulating phagocytic agranulocytes that develop into macrophages as they leave the blood vessels are called __________.
Q4) Delayed hypersensitivity is a result of ___________.
Q5) Which of the following cell types secretes antibodies?
A)Macrophages
B)T cells
C)Plasma cells
D)Monocytes
Q6) B cells are responsible for __________-mediated immunity.
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Q7) Substances that stimulate the production of antibodies are called __________.
Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the __________ virus.
Q2) The papillary layer of the skin is part of the A)epidermis. B)dermis.
C)hypodermis.
D)subcutaneous layer.
Q3) Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the A)feet. B)scalp.
C)mouth.
D)hands.
Q4) Which of the following is a type of acute infection generally caused by group A Streptococcus?
A)Carbuncle
B)Impetigo
C)Erysipelas
D)Acne
Q5) Infections that result in the death of infected tissue are called __________ infections.
Page 16
Q6) Leprosy is caused by __________.
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anthrax is caused by
A)Haemophilus anthracis.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Streptococcus anthracis.
D)Klebsiella anthracis.
Q2) Q fever
A)Streptococcus pyogenes
B)Coxiella burnetii
C)Klebsiella oxytoca
D)Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E)Streptococcus faecalis
F)Legionella pneumophila
G)Bordetella pertussis
Q3) SARS stands for __________.
Q4) __________ is a gram-negative coccobacillus and a common cause of bronchiolitis in children,bronchitis in adults,and occasionally meningitis.
Q5) The three forms of anthrax caused by Bacillus anthracis are __________,__________,and __________.
Q6) Rheumatic fever is a rare complication of __________.
Q7) Legionellosis affects mainly the __________.
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Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common nematode infection of humans worldwide is
Q2) The painful burning sensation in the limbs known as St.Anthony's fire is associated with the fungal infection __________________.
Q3) Necatoriasis
A)Ancylostoma duodenale
B)Streptococcus mutans
C)Escherichia coli
D)Entamoeba histolytica
E)Bacillus cereus
F)Taenia solium
G)Amoeba proteus
H)Enterobius vermicularis
Q4) Staphylococcal intoxication is caused by Staphylococcus __________.
Q5) A periodontal disease that is restricted to the gums is an inflammation called
Q6) The term "stomach flu" really refers to __________.
Q7) __________ is the largest protozoan parasite of humans.
Page 19
Q8) "Rice water stool" is a characteristic symptom of the disease __________.
Q9) Botulism is caused by __________.
Q10) "Thrush" is caused by the organism __________.
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Page 20
Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory
Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The arbovirus that causes West Nile encephalitis is transmitted by A)rodents.
B)birds.
C)ticks.
D)mosquitoes.
Q2) To prevent meningitis,routine vaccination in the United States is provided against A)Neisseria meningitidis.
B)Haemophilus influenzae.
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D)Listeria monocytogenes.
Q3) Tetanus
A)Prion
B)Rhabdovirus
C)Clostridium tetani
D)Dimorphic fungus
E)Streptococcus pneumoniae
F)Clostridium difficile
G)Trypanosoma
H)Bacillus tetani
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Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When bacteria are found in the blood,the condition is referred to as __________.
Q2) "Rabbit fever," a zoonotic disease,is caused by
A)Bartonella henselae.
B)Spirillum minus.
C)Francisella tularensis.
D)Yersinia pestis.
Q3) Malaria is transmitted by the bite of a(n)______________________ mosquito.
Q4) Filoviridae
A)Plague
B)Rat-bite fever
C)Severe malaria
D)Lyme disease
E)VHF
F)Leprosy
G)Common cold
Q5) Chagas' disease is caused by __________.
Q6) Fungal infections capable of infecting all organs/body systems are referred to as _____________________ mycoses.
Q7) Any infectious disease or infection that can be transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans is classified as __________. Page 22
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The group most susceptible to recurring UTIs is
A)teen-aged boys.
B)women.
C)teen-aged girls.
D)normally healthy elderly men.
Q2) The reverse flow of urine from the bladder up the ureters and back into the kidneys is called __________.
Q3) Hemorrhagic cystitis
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Polyomaviruses JC and BK
C)Mycoplasma
D)Adenovirus
E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
F)Leptospira
G)Trichomonas
Q4) Ureteric stenosis in kidney transplant patients has been associated with A)E.coli.
B)polyomaviruses.
C)fungi.
D)helminths.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is a collective term for any extensive bacterial infection of the pelvic organs.
Q2) The organism most frequently associated with mastitis in women is __________ .
Q3) The drug most often used in fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system is
A)ampicillin.
B)tetracycline.
C)ciprofloxacin.
D)metronidazole.
Q4) Vaginal infections that are resulting from an overgrowth of normal flora are called A)endogenous infections.
B)chronic infections.
C)iatrogenic infections.
D)fatal infections.
Q5) A vaginal yeast infection is typically caused by A)Histoplasma capsulatum.
B)Candida albicans.
C)Aspergillus niger.
D)Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
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Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infectionsdiseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Donovanosis
A)Protozoan
B)Tinea-related species
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Klebsiella species
E)Candida albicans
F)AIDS
G)Haemophilus ducreyi
Q2) Lymphogranuloma venereum is an infection caused by
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Treponema pallidum.
C)Chlamydia trachomatis.
D)Ureaplasma urealyticum.
Q3) Gummas are characteristic lesions of A)gonorrhea.
B)chlamydia.
C)syphilis.
D)chancroid.
Q4) Granuloma inguinale is also called __________.
Q5) NGU is the abbreviation for __________.
26
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Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microcephaly
A)Congenital toxoplasmosis
B)Micrococcus
C)Cytomegalovirus
D)Staphylococcus aureus
E)Neisseria
F)Congenital rubella
G)Streptococcus
Q2) Almost half of all the STIs diagnosed in the United States are among A)infants.
B)adolescents.
C)young adults.
D)the elderly.
Q3) Infectious diseases in the adult population are responsible for about one third of all deaths in individuals over the age of
A)50 years.
B)55 years.
C)60 years.
D)65 years.
Q4) Impetigo neonatorum is caused by __________.
Page 27
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Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects
on Human Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are free-living nitrogen-fixing bacteria except A)Clostridium.
B)Bacillus.
C)Rhizobium.
D)Azotobacter.
Q2) The conversion of CO to organic molecules is called __________.
Q3) Which of the following zones is present only in oceans?
A)Abyssal zone
B)Benthic zone
C)Littoral zone
D)Profundal zone
Q4) Sulfur dissimilation
A)Biomass
B)Eutrophication
C)Denitrification
D)Thiobacillus
E)Yersinia
F)Biodiversity
G)Rhizobium
Q5) The incubation time for Ebola is 2 to __________ days.
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Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small changes in the viral coat that happen over time are referred to as antigenic
Q2) The establishment and further spreading of an infectious disease within a new population is a process called A)emergence.
B)adoption.
C)inclusion.
D)appearance.
Q3) Protozoan emerging and reemerging diseases generally belong to group A)I.
B)II.
C)III.
D)IV.
Q4) Which of the following diseases can be transmitted by a tick?
A)Botulism
B)Anthrax
C)Tularemia
D)MRSA
Q5) Anthrax would be considered a group __________ emerging/reemerging disease.
Q6) "Fifth disease" is caused by __________.
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Chapter 25: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a vector created by the combination of viral DNA fragments and fragments from a plasmid?
A)Cosmid vector
B)Plasmid vector
C)Combined vector
D)Lambda phage vector
Q2) The synthetic interferon that is used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis is
A)interferon alfa-2b.
B)interferon beta-1a.
C)interferon alfa-2a.
D)interferon gamma-1b.
Q3) Enzymes that cut DNA straight across both of the double helix strands produce __________ ends.
Q4) A genetic recombination process that uses a cytoplasmic bridge between the donor and the recipient is called A)transduction.
B)ligation.
C)conjugation.
D)extension.
Q5) Recombinant DNA technology is also referred to as __________.
Page 30
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