Microbiology for Allied Health Sciences
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
This course introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on their application in allied health professions. Topics include the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms; microbial genetics and biotechnology; host-microbe interactions; the role of microorganisms in health and disease; and methods of controlling microbial growth. Students will explore the epidemiology, transmission, and prevention of infectious diseases, as well as principles of immunology relevant to clinical practice. Emphasis is placed on real-world scenarios and clinical relevance, preparing students for further study and careers in healthcare fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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28 Chapters
1820 Verified Questions
1820 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World and You
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Sample Questions
Q1) A system of classification grouping organisms into 3 domains based on the cellular organization of organisms was devised by
A)Carolus Linnaeus.
B)Anton van Leewenhoek.
C)Carl Woese.
D)Louis Pasteur.
E)Robert Koch.
Answer: C
Q2) A student has obtained a sample of pond water for study.Using the high-power lens,he observes several cells with nuclei.He can conclude that the cells are NOT bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Infectious disease is almost totally eradicated in our world.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Chemical Principles
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Q1) An E.coli culture that has been growing at 37°C is moved to 25°C.Which of the following changes must be made in its plasma membrane to help it cope with the decrease in temperature?
A)The number of phosphate groups must increase.
B)The viscosity must increase.
C)The number of saturated chains must increase.
D)The number of unsaturated chains must increase.
E)No changes are necessary.
Answer: D
Q2) The density of liquid water is greater than the density of ice.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What is the type of bond holding hydrogen and oxygen atoms together in a single H O molecule?
A)ionic bond
B)covalent bond
C)hydrogen bond
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is never useful for observing living cells?
A)phase-contrast microscope
B)darkfield microscope
C)scanning acoustic microscope
D)scanning electron microscope
E)brightfield microscope
Answer: D
Q2) Which microscope can be used to visualize DNA or botulinum toxin?
A)compound light microscope
B)phase-contrast microscope
C)scanning tunneling microscope
D)confocal microscope
E)scanning electron microscope
Answer: C
Q3) If acid-fast bacteria are stained with the Gram stain,they will stain gram-negative.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
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Q1) In Figure 4.3,which diagram of a cell wall possesses lipid A/endotoxin responsible for symptoms associated with infection?
A)a
B)b
C)both a and b
D)neither a nor b
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q2) Small,hydrophobic molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily by simple diffusion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare and contrast gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls with regard to (a)sensitivity to antimicrobial agents,(b)resistance to phagocytosis,(c)chemical composition,and (d)decolorization by alcohol.
Q4) Spheroplasts,protoplasts,and mycoplasms are bacterial cells without cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a biofilm and what role does biofilm play in disease?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is ATP generated in the reaction shown in Figure 5.4?
A)glycolysis
B)fermentation
C)photophosphorylation
D)oxidative phosphorylation
E)substrate-level phosphorylation
Q2) In noncyclic photophosphorylation,O is released from A)CO .
B)2H O.
C)C H O .
D)sunlight.
E)chlorophyll.
Q3) Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1?
A)isocitric acid and -ketoglutaric acid
B) -ketoglutaric acid and NAD
C)NAD
D)NADH
E)NADH and isocitric acid
Q4) Explain the overall purpose of metabolic pathways.
Q5) Summarize energy production in cells in a single sentence.
7
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Chapter 6: Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term aerotolerant anaerobe refers to an organism that A)does not use oxygen but tolerates it.
B)is killed by oxygen.
C)tolerates normal atmospheric nitrogen gas levels.
D)requires less oxygen than is present in air.
E)requires more oxygen than is present in air.
Q2) The biosafety level (BSL)for most introductory microbiology laboratories is A)BSL-1.
B)BSL-2.
C)BSL-3.
D)BSL-4.
Q3) In measuring turbidity of a culture in indirect measurement of bacterial growth,absorbance and transmittance are identical and interchangeable values. A)True
B)False
Q4) Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Control of Microbial Growth
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Q1) Which chemical disinfectant can be considered a sterilizing liquid agent when appropriately applied?
A)quaternary ammonium compounds
B)70% ethanol
C)sodium benzoate
D)gluteraldehyde
E)ethylene oxide
Q2) Moist heat destroys organisms by denaturing proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the culture in an autoclave for 15 minutes at time x?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q4) What are the advantages of gluteraldehyde compared to formaldehyde?
Q5) How is hydrogen peroxide antimicrobial?
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction (5' to 3')only.
B)The leading strand of DNA is made continuously.
C)The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer.
D)DNA replication proceeds in only one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
E)Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromosome.
Q2) In Figure 8.3,if enzyme A is a repressible enzyme,compound C would A)always be in excess.
B)bind to Enzyme A.
C)bind to the corepressor for Gene a.
D)bind to RNA polymerase.
E)bind directly to gene a.
Q3) An enzyme that makes covalent bonds between Okazaki fragments in the lagging strand of DNA being replicated is
A)RNA polymerase.
B)DNA ligase
C)DNA helicase.
D)transposase.
E)SSBP.
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Dna Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is A)bioinformatics.
B)proteomics.
C)reverse genetics.
D)forensic microbiology.
E)metagenomics.
Q2) The use of "suicide" genes in genetically modified organisms is designed to A)prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment.
B)kill the modified organisms before they are released in the environment.
C)delete genes necessary for modified organism's growth.
D)provide for resistance of the modified organisms to pesticides.
E)provide a means to eliminate non-modified organisms.
Q3) Pseudomonas syringae is found naturally in the soil.Sold as Snomax,it is used to make snow at ski resorts.The same bacterium with a gene deletion (Ice-minus)is used to prevent ice formation on plants.Should Snomax and Ice-minus be considered modified organisms and subject to precautions of releasing genetically modified organisms? Explain why or why not.
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Chapter 10: Classification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi?
A)All members are photosynthetic.
B)Members absorb dissolved organic matter.
C)Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter.
D)All members are microscopic.
E)All members are macroscopic.
Q2) Which one of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the information obtained in each of the other options listed?
A)nucleic acid hybridization
B)nucleic acid-base composition
C)amino acid sequencing
D)biochemical tests
E)cladogram
Q3) Organism A has 70 moles % G+C,and organism B has 40 moles % G+C.Which of the following can be concluded from these data?
A)The two organisms are related.
B)The two organisms are unrelated.
C)The organisms make entirely different enzymes.
D)Their nucleic acids will completely hybridize.
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Chapter 11: The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteroides and Escherichia are both gram-negative rods found in the large intestine.Why are they in different phyla?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an enteric?
A)Salmonella
B)Shigella
C)Escherichia
D)Enterobacter
E)Campylobacter
Q3) Burkholderia was reclassified from the gammaproteobacteria to the betaproteobacteria because
A)it grows in disinfectants.
B)it is a gram-negative rod.
C)it causes infections in cystic fibrosis patients.
D)it causes melioidosis.
E)its rRNA sequence is similar to that of Neisseria.
Q4) Currently,no members of Archaea have been linked to human disease.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) Describe two factors that contribute to the limits of our knowledge of microbial diversity.
Chapter
Helminths
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host?
A)lice
B)fleas
C)houseflies
D)mosquitoes
E)kissing bugs
Q2) In Table 12.1,which of these spores are characteristic of Penicillium?
A)1 and 2
B)3 and 4
C)2 and 6
D)1 and 4
E)4 and 6
Q3) A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite?
A)miracidium
B)cyst
C)adult
D)larva
E)All of the answers are correct.
Page 14
Q4) Contrast the economic benefits and the harmful effects of fungi.
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Chapter 13: Viruses,viroids,and Prions
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true of lysogeny?
A)It can give infected pathogens the genetic information for toxin production.
B)Prophage is inserted into the host genome.
C)Lytic cycle may follow lysogeny.
D)It is a "silent" infection;the virus does not replicate.
E)It causes lysis of host cells.
Q2) What is an oncogene?
A)a problematic gene found exclusively in viruses
B)an altered form of a gene that may induce cancer
C)a toxin gene transferred by a virus
D)a viral polymerase
E)a viral ligand found in a family of viruses
Q3) ________ were first identified in cancer-causing viruses and can induce ________ in infected cells.
A)Herpes viruses;lesions
B)Oncogenes;transformation
C)T antigens;lysis
D)Glycoprotein spikes;syncytia formation
E)Segmented genomes;reassortment
Q4) Explain the steps involved in bacteriophage DNA entering a bacterial cell.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease?
A)malaria
B)AIDS
C)tuberculosis
D)tetanus
E)typhoid fever
Q2) Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE?
A)The pathogen reproduces in the vector.
B)The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces.
C)Houseflies are an important vector.
D)The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector.
E)The pathogen may require the vector as a host.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Koch's postulates?
A)Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies.
B)Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions.
C)Some human diseases have no other known animal host.
D)Some diseases are not caused by microbes.
E)Some diseases are noncommunicable.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host's A)antibodies.
B)red blood cells.
C)iron-transport proteins.
D)white blood cells.
E)receptors.
Q2) Bacteria such as E.coli and Salmonella produce invasins that bind host cells,thus causing the cells to A)release TNF.
B)produce iron-binding proteins.
C)engulf the bacteria.
D)destroy the bacteria.
E)release cytokines.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of direct damage due to bacterial infection?
A)the uncontrolled muscle contractions in Clostridium tetani infection
B)the invasion and lysis of intestinal cells by E.coli
C)the hemolysis of red blood cells in a staphylococcal infection
D)the fever,nausea,and low blood pressure in a Salmonella infection
E)the excessive secretion of fluids in a Vibrio cholera infection
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Chapter 16: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) Chronic inflammation can result in a(n)________,which can cause impairment of normal tissue function.
A)abscess
B)fever
C)scar tissue/fibrosis
D)parenchyma
E)blood clot
Q2) All of the following occur during inflammation.What is the first step?
A)diapedesis
B)margination
C)phagocyte migration
D)repair
E)vasodilation
Q3) A chill is a sign that
A)body temperature is falling.
B)body temperature is rising.
C)body temperature is not changing.
D)the metabolic rate is decreasing.
E)blood vessels are dilating.
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Q4) Describe and differentiate between the three pathways of activating complement.
Chapter 17: Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) At a minimum,the human immune system is capable of recognizing approximately how many different antigens?
A)10
B)10¹
C)10¹
D)10²
E)10²
Q2) The following events occur in cellular immunity,leading to a response from TH cells.What is the third step?
A)Antibodies are produced.
B)Dendritic cell takes up antigen.
C)Antigen enters M cell.
D)TH cell produces cytokines.
E)TH cells proliferate.
Q3) Which terms regarding components of adaptive immunity are mismatched?
A)Dendritic cells- Langerhans cell.
B)activated macrophage - membrane ruffling.
C)M cell - microfolds.
D)TH cells - MHCI interaction.
E)TH-17 cells - recruit neutrophils.
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Chapter 18: Practical Applications of Immunology
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Q1) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis,a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate.In a positive test,a line forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well.What type of test is this?
A)an agglutination reaction
B)a precipitation reaction
C)a complement-fixation test
D)an indirect ELISA test
E)a direct ELISA test
Q2) Figure 18.1 is an illustration of a(n)
A)negative indirect ELISA test.
B)positive indirect ELISA test.
C)complement fixation test.
D)hemagglutination test.
E)precipitation test.
Q3) Western blotting uses DNA probes to detect specific sequences in a mixture of proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of HIV antibodies in a patient.
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Chapter 19: Disorders Associated With the Immune System
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Q1) Differentiate type II from type III hypersensitivity reactions.
Q2) Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of
A)IgG and IgA complexes in joints.
B)IgA antibodies in joints.
C)IgD and IgE complexes in joints.
D)complement in joints.
E)complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.
Q3) An inherited immunodeficiency is termed ________ and a secondary immunodeficiency is also known as ________.
A)congenital;acquired
B)birth defect;inherited
C)dysgenesis;congenital
D)aplasia;SCID
E)immune syndrome;lymphoma
Q4) All of the following regarding "immune privileged sites" are true EXCEPT
A)they include corneal and brain tissue.
B)they do not have lymphatic vessels.
C)they are rarely rejected.
D)they include any tissue transplanted from a pig.
E)they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting the fetus.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Explain why penicillin was called the "miracle drug" when it was first used in the 1940s.
Q2) Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in synergism because they display the same mode of action.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To date,most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of what genus?
A)Streptomyces
B)Bacillus
C)Penicillium
D)Paenibacillus
E)Cephalosporium
Q4) Only microbes produce antimicrobial peptides.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Both trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole inhibit reactions along the same metabolic pathway.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Inflammation of the thin clear membrane lining the eyelid and eye is properly termed
A)keratititis.
B)trachoma.
C)ophthalmia neonatorum.
D)conjunctivitis.
E)whitlow.
Q2) Which of the following is used to treat herpetic keratitis?
A)penicillin
B)sulfonamide
C)trifluridine
D)fungicide
E)acyclovir
Q3) Blue-green pus is characteristic of Pseudomonas wound infections.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Lifelong immunity is conferred once an individual has had botulism and recovered.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A physician diagnoses a patient with lepromatous Hansen's disease.All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT
A)disfiguring nodules form all over the body.
B)the disease has progressed from the tuberculoid stage.
C)a skin biopsy will be taken to aid diagnosis.
D)treatment will include injections of penicillin.
E)infection probably occurred as a result of prolonged contact with another infected individual.
Q3) Poliomyelitis is caused by a virus and usually leads to paralysis in those affected.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most common host of the virus causing eastern equine encephalitis is horses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the transmission and etiology of meningococcal meningitis.
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Which of the following pairs regarding the epidemiology of malaria is mismatched?
A)vector - Ixodes
B)etiology - Plasmodium
C)enter liver cells - sporozoites
D)diagnosis - presence of merozoites
E)treatment - chloroquine when possible
Q2) Which of the following is NOT treated with antibiotics?
A)plague
B)tularemia
C)Lyme disease
D)Ebola
E)anthrax
Q3) Neonatal sepsis is most commonly caused by group A streptococci.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All lymph that returns to the heart must pass through at least one lymph node.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Tuberculosis and influenza are both worldwide problem infections.Compare and contrast prevention and treatment options for both diseases.Make and support an argument for prevention or treatment as the best option for either one of the two infections.
Q2) Which one of the following etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses?
A)Staphylococcus
B)Mycoplasma
C)Streptococcus
D)Blastomyces
E)Coccidioides
Q3) The causative agent of melioidosis is
A)Burkholderia pseudomallei.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)RSV.
D)influenza virus.
E)Mycoplasma.
Q4) Using diphtheria and whooping cough as examples,discuss why it is necessary to continue to vaccinate against diseases that are relatively rare in the U.S.today.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) Mary made her family's favorite cream of broccoli soup for lunch.Lunch was forgotten when her son suddenly remembered he had a soccer game at noon.The family finally returned several hours later and sat down to eat.Although Mary reheated the soup (which had been left out at room temperature while they were gone),why is this no guarantee that Mary and her family will not become sick due to food poisoning?
Q2) Aflatoxin poisoning is associated with liver cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Approximately 30 percent of the body's immune system is located in the intestinal tract.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An outbreak of viral gastroenteritis occurs in a pediatrics ward.Rotavirus is the most likely causative agent.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare the modes of transmission for hepatitis A,B,and C.
Q6) Discuss why cholera epidemics are often associated with floods.
Q7) Describe the process of periodontal disease.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pyelonephritis usually is caused by A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Proteus spp.
C)Escherichia coli.
D)Enterobacter aerogenes.
E)Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q2) A 25-year-old man presented with fever,malaise,and a rash on his chest,arms,and feet.Which one of the following causative agents is most likely to cause these symptoms?
A)Nesseria
B)HPV
C)HSV-2
D)Candida
E)Treponema
Q3) Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consists primarily of A)Lactobacillus.
B)Streptococcus.
C)Mycobacterium.
D)Neisseria.
E)Candida.
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Chapter 27: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The BOD is a measurement of the amount of bacteria present before and after the sewage treatment process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If nitrates are important in the nitrogen cycle,why are they also contaminants of the water systems?
A)If ingested,nitrate is converted to nitrogen gas,which is toxic at low levels.
B)When ingested,nitrate is converted to nitrite and competes for oxygen in the blood,which is especially harmful to infants.
C)It indicates the presence of fecal contamination.
D)It is the major cause of eutrophication.
E)None of these pertain to nitrate.
Q3) Adding untreated sewage to a freshwater lake would cause the biochemical oxygen demand to A)increase.
B)decrease.
C)stay the same.
D)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q4) Differentiate endomycorrhizae from ectomycorrhizae and give an example of each.
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Chapter 28: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Canning preserves food
A)through use of aseptic packaging.
B)by exposure to chemicals.
C)by exposure to high heat.
D)by exposure to radiation.
E)by exposure to high pH.
Q2) All of the following are reasons for utilizing algae for biofuel production EXCEPT
A)they do not take up land needed for food production.
B)they produce more energy per acre than corn.
C)their main requirement is abundant light.
D)they can utilize agriculturally poor land.
E)they produce a nondegradable waste product.
Q3) Commercial sterilization differs from complete sterilization in that commercial sterilization
A)kills all microorganisms.
B)kills only bacteria.
C)may result in the survival of thermophiles.
D)employs a higher temperature.
E)may result in the survival of fungal spores.
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