Microbiology for Allied Health Question Bank
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Allied Health introduces students to the fundamental concepts of microbiology as they relate to health and disease. The course covers the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, and explores their roles in human health and illness. Students learn about microbial pathogenesis, mechanisms of infection, the body's immune response, and methods for controlling microbial growth. Emphasis is placed on the practical application of microbiological knowledge in allied health professions, infection prevention, laboratory diagnostics, and the impact of emerging diseases on public health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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26 Chapters
1101 Verified Questions
1101 Flashcards
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17 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microorganisms that normally colonize skin and mucous membranes can be
A)Commensal
B)Nonpathogenic
C)Mutualistic
D)Protective against pathogens
E)All of the choices
Answer: E
Q2) If a person is immunocompromised,it is very likely that he or she may be
A)A carrier
B)An AIDS patient
C)Disease-resistant
D)Lacking sugar
E)Lacking minerals
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atomic structure gives an atom
A)Its mass
B)Its reactivity
C)Its valence in molecules
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) The part of a biological molecule that participates in chemical reactions is referred to as
A)ATP
B)A covalent bond
C)Primary structure
D)An active site
E)A functional group
Answer: E
Q3) The components of ATP include
A)Adenine, ribose sugar, and three phosphates
B)Amino acid and three phosphates
C)Adenine, triglycerols, and one phosphate
D)Adenine, deoxyribose sugar, and three phosphates
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a chemical reaction pyruvate has gained one electron.It has therefore been
A)Catabolized
B)Hydrolysed
C)Reduced
D)Phosphorylated
E)Oxidized
Answer: C
Q2) In the figure which step would produce carbon dioxide?
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is false?
A)Enzymes increase the rate of a chemical reaction
B)The amount of energy required or released when a substrate is converted to a product is known as the allosteric energy
C)Enzymes lower the energy of activation
D)Enzymes are not changed by the reactions in which they participate
E)A chemical reaction will occur only if there is sufficient activation energy to initiate the reaction
Answer: B
Q4) In the figure which step indicates the molecules produced by hydrolysis?
Answer: C
5
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are vesicles found in eukaryotic cells?
A)Microtubules
B)Flagella
C)Intermediate filaments
D)Ribosomes
E)Peroxisomes
Q2) Which of the following is not a spherical bacterium?
A)Streptococci
B)Streptobacilli
C)Tetrads
D)Staphylococci
E)Diplococci
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of a basic dye and is repelled by capsules?
A)Methylene blue
B)Nigrosine
C)Safarin
D)Crystal violet
E)Carbolfuchsin
Q4) Describe three types of endocytosis in eukaryotic cells.
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following made by bacteria destroys red blood cells in the host?
A)Coagulase
B)Hyaluronidase
C)Leukocidin
D)Collagenase
E)Hemolysin
Q2) The reason for converting toxins to toxoids for vaccine use is
A)To reduce their antigenicity
B)To increase their toxicity
C)To stimulate better immune responses
D)To retain their antigenicity but destroy their toxicity
Q3) An autopsy report of a recently deceased person reveals Negri bodies in infected tissues.The person was probably infected by
A)Respiratory syncytial virus
B)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C)Bacillus anthracis
D)Rabies virus
E)Yersinia pestis
Q4) How does tooth brushing protect teeth from cavity formation?
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Which of these describes vectors?
A)Vectors transmit organisms from one host to another
B)Vectors are always living organisms
C)Vectors must allow organisms to grow and increase in numbers
D)Mosquitos are not vectors
E)Fomites are not vectors
Q2) How does morbidity rate differ from incidence rate?
Q3) The mode of transmission for the common cold is
A)Droplets
B)Mosquito
C)Flea
D)Drinking water
E)Direct contact
Q4) A factor that affects disease transmission is
A)Crowding
B)Travel
C)Potable water supply
D)War
E)All of the choices
8
Q5) Explain the difference between morbidity rate and mortality rate.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the definition for subacute disease?
A)Pathogens use blood or lymph to access all organs
B)Symptoms reappear long after initial infection
C)Symptoms immediately follow a primary infection
D)Rapid symptom development and rapid subsequent improvement
E)Symptoms are between those of acute and chronic disease
Q2) Toxic shock is different from sepsis.Which of the following describes sepsis?
A)Involvement of heparin-binding protein
B)Activation of neutrophils
C)Involvement of bacterial surface proteins
D)Involvement of fibrinogen
E)Signs of systemic inflammation and organ dysfunction
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a persistent bacterial infection?
A)Mycobacterium tuberculosis: tuberculosis
B)Chlamydia trachomatis: pelvic inflammatory disease
C)Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi: typhoid fever
D)Helicobacter pylori: gastric ulcers
E)All of the choices
Q4) Explain why normally harmless bacteria that comprise our microbial flora have the potential to be pathogenic.Provide examples.
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the term "incubator" as it applies to an influenza pandemic involving pigs.
Q2) Which of the following choices regarding Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (CJD)is a mismatched pair?
A)Iatrogenic form: blood transfusion
B)Mad cow disease: epidemic in humans
C)Familial form: genetically inherited
D)Prognosis: death within 12 months of first signs
E)Brain morphology: plaques
Q3) Identify and explain four different factors that have contributed to the re-emergence of tuberculosis.
Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of transmissible spongiform encephalitis diseases?
A)They cause neurodegeneration
B)They are treated with proteases inhibitors
C)They require long incubation periods
D)The earliest documented cases were in the Fore people of New Guinea
E)They are caused by abnormal PrP??prions
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates virus particles?
Q6) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates recruitment by chemokines?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the bacterial flagellum? Describe the three components of a flagellum and the four distinct patterns of flagella arrangement.Provide a brief explanation of each pattern.
Q2) You are examining a blood agar plate that contains colonies exhibiting a wet,sticky appearance.Explain what characteristic of bacteria gives rise to this feature and why it can be problematic in the host during an infection.
Q3) Protein synthesis requires particles called _____,which perform the process of_____.
A)Ribosomes; translation
B)Endospore; germination
C)Inclusion bodies; group translocation
D)Capsule; conjugation
E)Plasmids; DNA replication
Q4) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Fosfomycin: inhibition of cytoplasmic phase of cell wall formation
B)Lipid A: endotoxin
C)M protein: Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Gram-positive cell wall: teichoic acid
E)Bacitracin: inhibition of extra-cytoplasmic phase of cell wall formation
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recent hurricane has disrupted the local sewage facilities in your community.A water sample is filtered to trap suspected fecal contaminants and the filter is transferred to an eosin methylene blue (EMB)agar plate.On the following day you note growth and a bright green sheen on some of the colonies.The green colonies are most likely to be
A)Gram-negative bacteria
B)Gram-positive bacteria
C)Unable to ferment lactose
D)Viruses
Q2) Plant and meat extracts are commonly found in _____ media.
A)Complex
B)Selective
C)Differential
D)Chemically defined
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Successful bacterial growth depends on the right temperature,pH,and osmotic pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the figure which letter (A-C)refers to the codon,UAA?
Q2) Suppose the translation is aberrant and an inactive truncated protein is produced.In the figure which letter (A-C)do you predict you would find UAG?
Q3) When DNA replication is taking place,the single DNA strands called _____ unwind and pair with short RNA _____.
A)Active sites; leading strands
B)Codons; reading frames
C)Anticodons; codon regions
D)Replication forks; Okazaki fragments
E)Templates; primers
Q4) A phage that has integrated into a host cell's chromosome is called a
A)Transformant
B)"Sex" pilus
C)Transductant
D)Transposon
E)Prophage
Q5) Identify the three types of RNA that are made in bacterial cells.How are they similar and what is the specific function of each?
Q6) Discuss five ways in which transcription differs from DNA replication.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase is a(n)
A)RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B)RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
C)DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D)DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
Q2) What is the composition of viruses?
A)Proteins and enzymes
B)Proteins and genetic material
C)Enzymes and genetic material
D)None of the choices
E)All of the choices
Q3) Identify the sequence of events that occurs during the lytic cycle of an animal virus infection.Describe in basic terms what takes place at each step.
Q4) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the matrix protein?
Q5) A virion is
A)A protective protein shell surrounding nucleic acid
B)The complete viral particle
C)A phospholipid bilayer that contains glycoproteins
D)A protein molecule that forms the capsid
E)The sum of the nucleic acid and the capsid
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why an individual who has had a prior infection with a rhinovirus is quite likely to experience another episode of rhinovirus infection at a later date.Why do we not immunize against rhinovirus?
Q2) Viral infections that last the lifetime of the host are referred to as _____ infections.
A)Acute
B)Latent
C)Persistent
D)Immunosuppressive
E)Chronic
Q3) What are the cause of over 50% of the common colds we acquire?
A)Coronaviruses
B)Cytomegaloviruses
C)Arena viruses
D)Coxsackie virus
E)Rhinoviruses
Q4) What is virulence and what factors have an effect on the virulence of viral infections? Explain why host susceptibility is such an important consideration in viral virulence.
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rearrange the following into the order of events following ingestion of Ascaris eggs.Which is the fourth event?
A)Invasion of intestinal epithelium
B)Pumped into the lung
C)Conversion to larval stage
D)Coughed into mouth
E)Liver invasion
Q2) The classes of helminth that are parasitic in humans include all of the following except
A)Cestodes
B)Trophozoites
C)Nematodes
D)Trematodes
Q3) Fungi that can grow in either the yeast or mold form depending on environmental conditions exhibit
A)Virulence
B)Dimorphism
C)Opportunism
D)Superficial mycoses
E)Hyperkeratosis
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: The skin is free of microorganism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The interaction between natural killer (NK)cells and macrophages amplifies the innate immune response.Rearrange the following into the order of events during this amplification.Which is the third event?
A)Macrophage production of cytokines TNF and IL-12 increases
B)Increased production of IL-2 by NK cells
C)NK cells produce gamma interferon (IFN-?)
D)Proliferation of NK cells
Q3) What are released from injured tissues and recruit responding leukocytes to damaged sites?
A)Pyrogens
B)Chemotactic factors
C)Transferrins
D)Interferons
E)Lectins
Q4) Name the four phases of phagocytosis.Provide a brief explanation of what takes place during each phase.
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specialized antigen-collecting cells of the gastrointestinal tract are called
A)NK cells
B)Macrophages
C)Dendritic cells
D)M cells
E)Goblet cells
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Lymphocytes: T, B, and NK cells
B)Dendritic cells: antigen processing and presentation
C)Activated B cells: plasma cells
D)Tolerance: foreign antigens
E)Cytotoxic T cells: kill virally infected cells
Q3) The isotype of an antibody is determined by the
A)Constant and variable regions of the heavy chain
B)Variable region of the light chain
C)Variable region of the heavy chain
D)Constant region of the light chain
E)Constant region of the heavy chain
Q4) Describe the three ways in which antibodies function to protect a host from pathogens.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) All of the following are associated with anaphylactic shock except
A)Decrease in blood pressure
B)Bronchoconstriction
C)Systemic vascular permeability
D)Itchy, watery eyes
E)Activation of mast cells in connective tissue
Q2) Which of the following is false?
A)Myasthenia gravis results from the formation of autoantibodies specific for neurotransmitter receptors
B)Systemic lupus erythematosus is characterized by the formation of anti-DNA antibodies
C)Rheumatic fever follows influenza infections when antibodies against the virus cross-react with host components
D)Tolerance is the process whereby self-reactive T and B cells are inactivated or eliminated
E)Autoimmune responses are controlled by specialized CD25-positive T cells called regulatory T cells
Q3) Describe the appearance of lymph nodes during the early asymptomatic phase and the late symptomatic phase of HIV infection
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: The sizes of the zones of inhibition seen with different chemicals are not comparable because bacteria move at different rates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Aseptic: pathogen-free environment
B)Pasteurization: heat to kill pathogens
C)Bacteriocidal: kills all bacteria
D)Sterilization: destruction of all forms of microbes
E)Antisepsis: inanimate objects
Q3) Explain what happens when a protein becomes denatured and why this process is likely to be detrimental to microbes.Provide three examples of how proteins can be denatured.
Q4) Degerming is best described as
A)A mechanical process for removing microbes
B)The disinfection of public places
C)The use of heat to kill microbes in food items
D)The use of chemical agents to kill microbes
E)A practice used to maintain a germ-free environment
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Explain why are antibiotics that are protein synthesis inhibitors are excellent choices for therapy in the context of toxicity? Why might large doses of protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics show toxic effects in eukaryotic cells even though they meet the criterion for selective toxicity?
Q2) Why is it advantageous for bacteria such as Streptomyces species to synthesize antibiotics? Explain three ways in which antibiotic-producing microorganisms protect themselves from the effects of these compounds.
Q3) Explain how sulfa drugs exert their antimicrobial effects.Why is this lethal to the bacterium and how are these drugs selectively toxic?
Q4) Bacteria that have evolved the ability to produce ?-lactamase have become resistant to penicillin because all forms of penicillin contain this ring structure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Clavulanic acid is an
A)Penicillin-binding protein modifier
B) -lactamase inhibitor
C)Efflux pump inhibitor
D)Immune response stimulator
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Specialized membrane proteins are activated in which type of antibiotic resistance?
A)Drug inactivation
B)Target modification
C)Efflux pumping
D)Alternate pathway
Q2) Explain the testing process through which potential new antibiotics must pass before therapeutic use in humans is considered.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Antibiotic resistance genes account for 20 percent of the total S. aureus genome
B)The chromosome of MRSA contains 3-4 resistance islands
C)The mecA gene confers resistance to vancomycin
D)Mobile genetic elements in MRSA carry fewer than 15 resistance-conferring gene clusters
Q4) Which of the following is not used for susceptibility testing of antibiotics?
A)Kirby-Bauer method
B)Phenol coefficient
C)E test
D)Disk diffusion method
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Name five different types of respiratory system infection caused by fungi,the causative agent,and the recommended treatment.
Q2) Which of the following individuals would receive directly observed therapy (DOT)for the treatment of tuberculosis?
A)A patient with a history of noncompliance to drug regimens
B)A patient with psychiatric disorders
C)Patients with HIV
D)An infected patient who persistently tests positive for TB
E)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with atypical pneumonia?
A)Chlamydophila pneumoniae
B)Legionella pneumophila
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Coxiella burnetii
E)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q4) Explain how Ghon complexes are formed.How are they diagnosed and why are they problematic?
Q5) Which individuals are most likely to develop a severe fungal infection of the respiratory tract?
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) A(n)_____ is a thin layer of salivary proteins and glycoproteins that binds to the surface of teeth.
A)Adhesion
B)Anchorage film
C)Plaque
D)Pellicle
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Food poisoning intoxication can occur more rapidly than infection because in the former the toxin is already present in the ingested food.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ruffling of M cells is associated with which of the following infections?
A)Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
B)Bacillary dysentery
C)Cholera
D)Salmonella gastroenteritis
E)Cryptosporidiosis
Q4) Explain how hepatitis B produces a partly double-stranded DNA genome.
Q5) Describe the life cycle of a hookworm.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Gonococcal resistance to _____ has prompted the development of third-generation anti-gonococcal antibiotics?
A)Cephalosporin
B)Fluoroquinolone
C)Azithromycin
D)Doxycycline
E)Penicillin
Q2) Answer true or false to whether the following occurs before the multiplication of reticulate bodies during Chlamydia replication: Elementary bodies are released from the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Reactivation of latent herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2)infections is not triggered by which of the following.
A)Trauma
B)Ultraviolet radiation
C)Acyclovir
D)Fever
Q4) Describe the virulence factors associated with uropathogenic Escherichia coli.
Q5) Explain why antiviral drugs are ineffective for the eradication of HSV-2.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following does not cause chronic meningitis?
A)Rabies virus
B)Toxoplasma gondii
C)Cryptococcus neoformans
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E)Treponema pallidum
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding cryptococcosis is true?
A) Cryptococcosis is caused by an un-encapsulated form of yeast called Cryptococcus neoformans
B) Cryptococcosis is common in AIDS patients and in people with defects in cell-mediated immunity
C) Cryptococcal meningitis is transmitted by arthropod vectors
D) C. neoformans causes acute polyneuritis
Q3) Identify two ways in which polio virus can gain entry into the central nervous system (CNS).Describe three types of infection that may result from the polio virus.
Q4) Discuss how prions differ from conventional pathogens that cause persistent infections of the central nervous system.Name four diseases caused by prions in humans.
Q5) Describe the three forms of botulism.
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Lyme disease presents with all of the following except
A)Migratory "bull's eye" rash
B)Buboes
C)Myocarditis
D)Meningoencephalitis
E)Arthritis
Q2) Primary infection of endemic typhus is from
A)Human to rodent
B)Human to human
C)Rodent to human
D)Rodent to rodent
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A)The causative agent multiplies in the endothelial cells of small blood vessels
B)Calf muscle tenderness
C)Treated with sulfonamides
D)Rash caused by thrombocytosis
E)Mortality reduced from 25% to 5-7% with treatment
Q4) Describe the life cycle of Trypanosoma cruzi.
Q5) Explain why members of Rickettsia are considered to have characteristics of both bacteria and viruses.Which diseases are caused by pathogenic Rickettsiae?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not consistent with scalded skin syndrome?
A)High fever
B)More common in infants
C)Recurrence unlikely because of an effective immune response
D)Production of exfoliatins
E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: HSV-1 sometimes infects the fingers in the area of the nails and this usually occurs because of a bacterial infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: HSV-1 damage occurs due to epithelial ulcerations in the conjunctiva and the cornea that cause scarring.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the etiological agent of gas gangrene? Explain the sequence of events leading to the development of this condition and the associated pathology.How is gas gangrene treated?
Q5) Explain the similarities and differences between cold sores and warts.
Page 28
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