Microbiology for Allied Health
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to microbiology with a focus on concepts relevant to allied health professions. Students will explore the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course emphasizes the role of microbes in human health and disease, mechanisms of infection and immunity, and principles of disease prevention such as sterilization, disinfection, and vaccination. Laboratory components reinforce aseptic techniques, microbial identification, and diagnostic procedures commonly used in healthcare settings, preparing students for practical challenges in clinical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology Basic Principles 10th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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27 Chapters
2124 Verified Questions
2124 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a scientific name?
A)bacteria
B)Protista
C)species
D)Bacillus subtilis
E)bacilli
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
A)belief in a preconceived idea
B)formulate a hypothesis
C)systematic observation
D)laboratory experimentation
E)development of a theory
Answer: A
Q3) Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be revised.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water, glucose, and carbon dioxide are examples of A)compounds.
B)atoms. C)gases.
D)macromolecules.
Answer: A
Q2) ATP is best described as A)an enzyme.
B)a double helix.
C)an electron carrier.
D)the energy molecule of cells.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) What do H<sub>2</sub>O, NaCl, CO<sub>2</sub>, and HCl all have in common?
A)All are salts.
B)All are acids.
C)All are gases.
D)All are inorganic.
E)All are solutes.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface?
A)streak plate
B)spread plate
C)pour plate
D)All of these choices are correct.
Answer: C
Q2) Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA), and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of media?
A)synthetic
B)reducing
C)enriched
D)complex
E)selective
Answer: D
Q3) Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the_____ lens.This image is then projected to the _____ lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye.
Answer: objective; ocular
Page 5
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Archaea do not have the typical peptidoglycan structure found in bacterial cell walls. A)True
B)False
Q2) The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's A)ribosomes.
B)inclusions.
C)cell wall.
D)cell membrane.
E)flagella.
Q3) Bacteria and Archaea can be differentiated from one another by the A)presence or absence of membranous organelles.
B)size of individual cells.
C)presence of a novel nucleic acid in the Archaea
D)chemical makeup of the cell wall.
E)All of these can be used to differentiate the two domains.
Q4) Compare the following: bacterial species, bacterial strain, and bacterial type.Explain the relationship and development of strains and types to a species.
Q5) The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and _____.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the physical characteristics of protozoans, yeasts, and algae.
Q2) Fungal spores
A)are only produced under harmful environmental conditions.
B)are only asexually produced.
C)cannot be seen in a light microscope.
D)are produced by molds but not by yeasts.
E)are used to identify fungi.
Q3) Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells are called _______.
Q4) To provide motility, prokaryotic flagella whip back and forth while eukaryotic flagella rotate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The group of protozoa that have flagella are the A)Sarcodina.
B)Ciliophora.
C)Mastigophora.
D)Apicomplexa.
Q6) Compare and contrast the morphology of cestodes, trematodes, and nematodes.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Satellite viruses are
A)also called viroids.
B)dependent on other viruses for replication.
C)the cause of spongiform encephalopathies.
D)significant pathogens of plants.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) The core of every virus particle always contains A)DNA.
B)capsomers.
C)enzymes.
D)DNA and RNA.
E)either DNA or RNA.
Q3) In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____.
A)nucleus; cytoplasm
B)cytoplasm; cell membrane
C)cell membrane; cytoplasm
D)cytoplasm; nucleus
E)nucleus; endoplasmic reticulum
Q4) A(n) _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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90 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do bacterial cells require calcium?
A)It stabilizes the cell wall.
B)It stabilizes the ribosomes.
C)It stabilizes the nucleoid.
D)It maintains cellular pH.
E)It makes strong bones.
Q2) Planktonic bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotics as compared to biofilm microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called
A)facilitated diffusion.
B)diffusion.
C)active transport.
D)osmosis.
E)endocytosis.
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9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) An apoenzyme
A)is part of a simple enzyme.
B)is also called a coenzyme.
C)is the protein part of a holoenzyme.
D)is often an inorganic metal ion.
E)is an RNA molecule.
Q2) Which form of energy fuels cellular energetics in chemoheterotrophs?
A)light energy from the Sun
B)chemical energy in organic compounds
C)electrical energy
D)thermal energy
Q3) The reactions of fermentation function to regenerate _____ molecules for use in glycolysis.
A)pyruvic acid
B)ATP
C)NAD
D)NADH
E)glucose
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one
A)protein.
B)nucleotide.
C)amino acid.
D)purine.
Q2) DNA polymerase I
A)removes primers.
B)adds bases to new DNA chain.
C)seals DNA gaps.
D)proofreads DNA chain.
E)All of these choices are correct,
Q3) All mutations are harmful to the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene from the DNA template strand?
A)ribosomal RNA
B)messenger RNA
C)transfer RNA
D)primer RNA
E)ribozymes
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human gene for a protein hormone has been isolated.Scientists want to introduce this gene into a bacterial host, modifying the bacteria so that it can be used to produce this hormone.After successfully introducing the gene on a plasmid, the bacteria produced the protein hormone, but the protein was defective, longer than normal, with intervening stretches of amino acids not found in the native protein.Which solution would be most likely to resolve this problem?
A)Treat the defective protein with enzymes.
B)Introduce human ribosomes into the bacteria.
C)Start over, introducing a complementary DNA (cDNA) copy of the gene into the bacterial host.
D)Introduce human mRNAs into the bacterial host.
Q2) The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called A)genetic engineering.
B)biotechnology.
C)recombinant DNA.
D)gel electrophoresis.
E)gene probes.
Q3) Draw and label the specific sequence of procedures, reagents, and materials needed to obtain a human protein from E.coli cells growing in a lab culture.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing could be considered dead.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The chemical agent(s) that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O<sub>2</sub> gas is/ are
A)Cidex.
B)cationic detergents.
C)hydrogen peroxide.
D)chlorhexidine.
E)iodophors.
Q3) Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of these metals have antimicrobial properties associated with them?
A)Silver
B)Gold
C)Tin
D)Aluminum
E)both silver and gold
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Resistance factor plasmids are transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The development of successful antiviral drugs has been relatively easy because viral structure is so different from the structure of eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is vancomycin most often used to treat?
A)methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
B)Clostridium difficile
C)Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Escherichia coli
E)methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium difficile
Q5) _____ are plasmids that contain genes for resistance to a drug.
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Universal precautions is designed to protect A)patients.
B)health care providers.
C)the general public.
D)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Resident flora of the intestines include A)Streptococcus.
B)Bacteroides.
C)Staphylococcus.
D)Haemophilus.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to cause human disease to Biosafety Level 4.
A)True B)False
Q4) _____ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls.
Q5) Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood. A)True B)False
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?
A)Inflammatory response
B)Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils
C)Interferon
D)T-cell and B-cell responses
E)Anatomical barriers in the body
Q2) The term _____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response.
Q3) The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are A)complements.
B)interferons.
C)leukotrienes.
D)pyrogens.
E)lysozymes.
Q4) All of the following are correct about lymph, except A)its composition is similar to plasma.
B)it travels in vessels similar to blood vessels.
C)it is made mostly of water.
D)it transports numerous white blood cells.
E)it is transported through the body by the same pump as blood, i.e., the heart.
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunotherapy is the
A)use of antitoxins.
B)use of immune serum globulin.
C)conferring of passive immunity.
D)administering of preformed antibodies.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Live, attenuated vaccines
A)include the Sabin polio vaccine.
B)include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
C)contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
D)require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Describe the characteristics that distinguish the following: a) antigen, b) hapten, c) antigenic determinant, d) alloantigen, e) heterophilic antigen, and f) autoantigen.
Q4) Natural killer (NK) cells recognize and identify their targets in an immunologically nonspecific way, but then kill their targets in a manner very similar to that of T<sub>C</sub> cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is
A)prostaglandin.
B)histamine.
C)leukotriene.
D)serotonin.
E)platelet-activating factor.
Q2) What is the Arthus reaction?
A)an autoimmune disorder
B)an acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site
C)a positive tuberculosis skin test
D)the lysis of RBC due to complement during an incorrect blood transfusion
E)the name given to skin wheals that occur during an allergy skin test
Q3) Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing
A)desensitization.
B)sensitization.
C)tissue matching.
D)degranulation.
Q4) The antigens to which allergic individuals are sensitive are termed _____.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Culture of patient specimens to detect pathogens is usually done on blood agar plates only.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA, except
A)it can detect antibodies in a serum sample.
B)it is the common screening test for antibodies to Helicobacter.
C)color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum.
D)it is the common screening test for antibodies to Hepatitis A.
E)a known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well.
Q4) The indirect ELISA test detects ______ in a patient's blood.
A)antigen
B)antibody
C)microorganisms
D)IgE only
E)complement
19
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The viridans streptococci are
A)not entirely groupable by Lancefield serology.
B)the most numerous residents of the oral cavity.
C)opportunists that can cause subacute endocarditis.
D)introduced to deeper body tissues by dental or surgical procedures.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Most cases of otitis media in children are due to infection with A)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B)Streptococcus pyogenes.
C)Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
E)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
Q3) Describe the transmission of the meningococcus, and discuss the pathogenesis of meningococcal disease in the body including associated signs and symptoms.
Q4) Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the A)Gram stain.
B)coagulase test.
C)catalase test.
D)fermentation of mannitol.
Q5) Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group _____ streptococci.
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally, what must healthy adults consume in order to contract botulism?
A)endospores of C.botulinum
B)vegetative cells of C.botulinum
C)botulism toxin in contaminated food
D)botulism toxoid in contaminated food
E)botulism antitoxin in contaminated food
Q2) All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes, except
A)it is gram-positive.
B)it produces endospores.
C)it frequently contaminates dairy products, meats, poultry.
D)it causes food-borne listeriosis.
E)bacterial cells multiply within the cytoplasm of a host cell.
Q3) What do the bacteria that cause botulism, tetanus, and diphtheria have in common?
A)Each of these diseases is caused by an endospore-forming bacterial species.
B)Each of these diseases is caused by obligately anaerobic bacteria.
C)Vaccines are widely used to prevent each of these diseases.
D)Each of these bacteria make an exotoxin that is responsible for the disease.
Q4) Mycobacterium bovis is attenuated and used in the _____ vaccine.
Q5) In addition to antimicrobics, patients with diphtheria are treated with _____.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
A)bacterial meningitis
B)influenza (flu)
C)otitis media
D)bronchitis
E)epiglottitis
Q2) Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A)lemon yellow
B)red-orange
C)golden
D)blue-green
E)pale orange
Q3) What is incorrect about pertussis?
A)A virulence factor of B.pertussis is toxins that destroy cilia cells is produced.
B)The source of infection is direct contact with inhaled droplets.
C)The paroxysmal stage is characterized by persistent coughing.
D)The number of cases is steadily decreasing since 1976.
E)It can cause severe, life-threatening complications in babies.
Q4) Inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines is called _____.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A private in the U.S.Army is stationed at Ft.Bragg, North Carolina.He has been admitted to the infirmary with complaints of a severe headache and high fever.Upon questioning, he revealed that he had received a tick bite several days earlier.Two days after admission, he starts to develop a rash, beginning on his hands and feet and spreading towards his torso.Which of the following should be considered first in the diagnosis?
A)epidemic typhus
B)tularemia
C)Lyme disease
D)anthrax
E)Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Q2) The Argyll-Robertson pupil that is fixed and small, and does not react to light but does accommodate for focusing is associated with A)Lyme disease.
B)leptospirosis.
C)chlamydiosis.
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
E)tertiary syphilis.
Q3) Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics, except
A)it is commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia.
B)it is an encapsulated yeast.
C)it can be found in high numbers in soil containing pigeon droppings.
D)it usually enters body by inhalation.
E)it primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, and diabetes.
Q2) Dermatophytoses are
A)fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails.
B)also called ringworm.
C)also called tineas.
D)often time-consuming to eradicate completely.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) The most common route of transmission for true pathogenic fungi is ingestion of spores.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blastomycosis begins as a respiratory infection that can spread to the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is inhalation of _____.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which apicomplexan has caused outbreaks, associated with fecal-contaminated imported raspberries, and also fresh greens and drinking water?
A)cryptosporidiosis
B)cyclosporiasis
C)babesiosis
D)toxoplasmosis
Q2) The large intestines of pigs are the primary reservoir of the pathogen that causes A)balantidiasis.
B)amebiasis and trichomoniasis.
C)amebic meningoencephalitis.
D)trypanosomiasis leishmaniasis.
E)cryptosporidiosis and cyclosporiasis.
Q3) Diseases such as malaria, dengue fever, and Chagas'disease may be spread by any blood-sucking arthropod.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Many protozoan species can form a _____ that can survive for periods outside a host.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is incorrect about viral diseases?
A)Some DNA viruses can become permanent residents of host cells.
B)Viral diseases can be zoonoses.
C)Most DNA viruses multiply in and are released from the cytoplasm.
D)Some viruses are teratogenic.
E)Diagnosis of some diseases involves antigen detection with monoclonal antibodies.
Q2) The oral cavity infection called _____ occurs when herpetic vesicles cover the oral mucosa, tongue, cheeks, and lips.
Q3) The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus.
Q4) All of the following pertain to genital warts, except
A)the are not common in the United States.
B)they are sexually transmitted.
C)they often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix.
D)they include large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminata.
E)certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis.
Q5) There are vaccines that cause the development of immunity to the Hepatitis B virus.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of the Orthomyxoviruses include all of the following, except
A)they have an envelope.
B)they include paramyxoviruses.
C)they have hemagglutinin spikes.
D)their genome is RNA.
E)they have neuraminidase spikes.
Q2) Compare and contrast Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) variant CJD, and kuru with regard to: a) causative agent, b) transmission, c) reservoir, d) pathogenesis and symptoms, and e) methods for prevention.
Q3) Which of the following is correct about polio?
A)The disease is still affecting millions of people worldwide, mainly in Africa and India.
B)The disease is spread by the respiratory route.
C)The oral polio vaccine (OPV) is not responsible for causing any polio.
D)The Sabin vaccine is preferred over the Salk vaccine in the United States today.
E)The virus multiplies in the mucosa of the intestines and is shed in feces.
Q4) In rabies, spasms of muscles for swallowing leads to a fear of water.
A)True
B)False
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Potable water is
A)contaminated.
B)polluted.
C)safe to drink.
D)foul testing.
Q2) Which is mismatched?
A)parasitism - one organism benefits and the other receives no benefit
B)competition - one organism gives off substances that inhibit or kill other organisms
C)predator - seeks out and ingests live prey
D)scavengers - feed on live to dead cells and wastes
E)omnivores - feed on plants and flesh
Q3) _____ is a floating, surface microbial community that drifts with the currents and waves.
Q4) Most of the zooplankton and phyoplankton in a lake will be located in the A)benthic zone.
B)photic zone.
C)produndal zone.
D)littoral zone.
E)Plankton will be distributed among each of these zones.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not used as a chemical preservative in food?
A)iodine
B)organic acids
C)sulfite
D)ethylene oxide
E)salt
Q2) Which organism(s) ferment milk lactose, producing acids that curdle the milk?
A)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B)Leuconostoc mesenteroides
C)Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
D)Propionibacterium
E)Spirulina
Q3) Downstream processing includes all the following except A)recovery.
B)purification.
C)packaging.
D)growth of the microorganism.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Drying, or _________ is not a reliable microbicidal method.
Q5) The fermentation of milk by Streptococcus thermophilus produces ___________.
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