Microbiology for Allied Health
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Allied Health provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts of microbiology with a focus on their relevance to health sciences. The course explores the biology of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, emphasizing their roles in human health and disease. Topics include microbial structure and function, methods of control and sterilization, mechanisms of pathogenicity, host immune responses, and the principles of infection prevention and epidemiology. Students will also learn about diagnostic laboratory techniques and the impact of microbes on public health, preparing them for roles in healthcare and allied health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience 1st Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Spallanzani had unknowingly poked a hole in the top of his flask of meat broth,what would this have implied about the theory of spontaneous generation?
A) No growth would have occurred in the flask, refuting the theory of spontaneous generation.
B) No growth would have occurred in the flask, supporting the theory of spontaneous generation.
C) Growth would have occurred in the flask, refuting the theory of spontaneous generation.
D) Growth would have occurred in the flask, supporting the theory of spontaneous generation.
Answer: D
Q2) In 1884,the Gram stain was devised to distinguish bacteria from ________ cells.
Answer: human
Q3) Which key characteristic differentiates a prokaryote from a eukaryote?
A) the absence of proteins
B) the presence of DNA
C) the absence of membrane-bound organelles
D) the presence of a cell wall
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?
Answer: Signs (such as rashes)can be observed by others.Symptoms (body aches)cannot be directly observed by others but are felt by the patient.
Q2) A disease that can spread to humans from nonhuman animals is known as a ________ disease.
Answer: zoonotic
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a driver of emerging diseases?
A) decreased human drug use
B) climate change
C) microbial evolution
D) changing land use patterns
Answer: A
Q4) A particular virus has a high infectious dose 50% and extremely low mortality,causing only mild symptoms.Which of the following is true of this virus?
A) It has high infectivity and high virulence.
B) It has high infectivity but low virulence.
C) It has low infectivity and low virulence.
D) It has low infectivity and high virulence.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnification without increase in resolution is called ________.
Answer: empty magnification
Q2) Which microscope technique is best used for visualizing the surface structures of cells and viruses?
A) phase-contrast
B) bright-field
C) scanning electron
D) darkfield
Answer: C
Q3) In a compound microscope,which is the accurate pathway of light?
A) light source, condenser, objective, specimen, eyepiece
B) condenser, light source, eyepiece, specimen, objective
C) eyepiece, objective, specimen, condenser, light source
D) light source, condenser, specimen, objective, eyepiece
Answer: D
Q4) Electron microscopy uses beams of ________ to generate high-resolution images.
Answer: electrons
Q5) A ________ is the only way to observe live specimens.
Answer: wet mount
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A molecule of ATP undergoes hydrolysis yielding AMP and two molecules of phosphate.Which of the following is true of this reaction?
A) The entropy has decreased.
B) The change in free energy, DG, is positive.
C) The change in free energy, DG, is negative.
D) The reaction is endergonic.
Q2) Which of the following molecular formulas might be of an organic molecule?
A) H O
B) C H O
C) CH
D) NH
Q3) A reaction with a positive DG and low activation energy will be
A) spontaneous and slow.
B) exergonic and fast.
C) endergonic and fast.
D) endergonic and slow.
Q4) ________ is the general name for a six-carbon sugar.
Q5) What are some structural differences between cellular DNA and RNA?
Q6) What is osmosis and why is it important for cells to maintain osmotic balance?
Q7) Describe the difference between ionic and hydrogen bonds.
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) The region within the inner and outer membranes of Gram-negative bacteria is known as the ________.
Q2) The majority of the bacterial cell cytoplasm (by total weight)is
A) DNA.
B) RNA.
C) protein.
D) water.
Q3) In an E.coli cell,which molecule is found in only 1-2 copies per cell?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) protein
D) phospholipids
Q4) Which organelle houses a eukaryotic cell's genome?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) contractile vacuole
C) ribosome
D) nucleus
Q5) In the process of ________,a vesicle fuses with the cell membrane,releasing vesicle contents into the extracellular environment.
Q6) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Within aquatic environments,bacteria are mainly found associated with surfaces in the form of a ________.
Q2) List the three factors that complicate measuring bacterial growth in a human host.Describe how each one makes measuring bacterial growth difficult.
Q3) Most bacteria in nature grow at a very slow rate,a situation that can be mimicked using a ________.
Q4) What is a batch culture? Describe how it can be used to illustrate the bacterial growth curve.
Q5) Fastidious organisms would be best grown on which type of media?
A) enriched
B) synthetic
C) minimal
D) selective
Q6) Explain why extremophiles are not a pathogenic threat to humans.
Q7) Which of the following is true regarding an environment with a high osmolarity?
A) It has a low salt concentration.
B) It has a high pH.
C) It has a high water activity.
D) It has a low water activity.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitrate contamination of water can poison infants.One source of nitrate is
A) lithotrophs that use ammonia as an electron donor.
B) anaerobes that use nitrate as a terminal electron acceptor.
C) methanogens that oxidize H .
D) oxygenic photosynthesis.
Q2) If Fe³ is the final electron acceptor at the end of an electron transport system,the waste product is ________.
Q3) Humans harness microbial ________ to preserve foods and retain caloric value.
A) glycolysis
B) fermentation
C) TCA cycle
D) aerobic respiration
Q4) Biosynthetic reactions are also known as ________ reactions.
Q5) Oxidative phosphorylation requires
A) ATP synthase.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) NAD<sup>+</sup>.
D) pyruvate dehydrogenase.
Q6) Compare and contrast anaerobic respiration and fermentation.How are they similar and how do they differ?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gene that codes for a protein involved in detoxifying an environmental toxin is only expressed in the presence of the toxin.A repressor protein controls transcription of the gene.Which of the following is true?
A) The toxin mediates induction of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor.
B) The toxin mediates induction of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an activator.
C) The toxin mediates repression of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor.
D) The toxin mediates repression of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an activator.
Q2) During Sanger DNA sequencing,in addition to normal dNTPs used in cellular DNA synthesis,small amounts of modified DNA polymerase substrates are added to the reaction.How do these modified monomers differ from the normal dNTPs?
Q3) Transcription of genes starts at regions of the genome called ________.
Q4) Why might the insertion or deletion of three base pairs in a gene be less harmful than the insertion or deletion of only one or two base pairs?
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following can be used to provide evidence of horizontal gene transfer?
A) comparison of GC content
B) protein sequence similarity
C) cell structure modification
D) plasmid curing
Q2) The traits of the hidden microbiota of humans can be predicted by analyzing A) cellular structure.
B) DNA sequences.
C) microscopic appearance.
D) growth patterns.
Q3) Ancient ________ give evidence to the fact that all life originated from microorganisms.
Q4) Griffith's observations from his experiments infecting mice with smooth and rough strain Streptococcus pneumoniae were later found to be due to A) conjugation.
B) transposition.
C) transduction.
D) transformation.
Q5) A ________ relationship develops between endosymbionts and their hosts.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A soil sample taken shortly after a large chemical spill has occurred reveals only a few living bacteria.Six months later,a second sample from the same site reveals only a single bacterial species,which is present in high numbers.What may have caused this change?
A) This bacterial species was most likely left at the site by the original sampling equipment.
B) Animals passing through the area most likely deposited fecal matter full of microbiota.
C) The bacterial species found in high numbers contains at least one gene that provides a competitive advantage.
D) The single bacterial species must have been within the gut of a shelter species.
Q2) Structures found in some Gram-positive bacteria that resist desiccation,radiation,freezing,and chemical disinfectants are ________.
Q3) Cyanobacteria are the only bacteria that produce ________.
Q4) Describe the two developmental stages of the Chlamydias.
Q5) If all cyanobacteria were suddenly removed from our environment,how would you expect the biosphere to be affected?
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) What distinguishing characteristic places helminths and arthropods under the category of "eukaryotic microbiology" and outside of the category of "true" microbes?
Q2) Fungi that form spore-dispersing asci are known as A) basidiomycetes.
B) zygomycetes.
C) microsporidia.
D) ascomycetes.
Q3) A major group of microbial eukaryotes that contains chloroplasts related to those of plants and is found as a single cell or sheet is A) fungi.
B) algae.
C) alveolates.
D) trypanosomes.
Q4) Describe the shared evolutionary event that led to chloroplasts in both algae and plants.
Q5) Branching tufts of filamentous fungal hyphae form structures known as ________.
Q6) Lobed amebas and filamentous amebas are differentiated by the form of their
Page 13
Q7) Giardias and trichomonads are both examples of ________.
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why the HIV virion structure contains a tRNA from the host.
Q2) Explain how antigenic drift requires individuals to get a flu vaccine yearly.
Q3) West Nile virus is capable of infecting many different organisms (humans,birds,raccoons,and so on).Based on this information,which of the following statements correctly describes West Nile virus?
A) West Nile virus has a narrow host range.
B) West Nile virus has a broad host range.
C) West Nile virus has a narrow tissue tropism.
D) West Nile virus is capable of fecal-oral transmission.
Q4) One positive use of viruses is their function as
A) infectious particles.
B) pandemic initiators.
C) cloning vectors.
D) marine predators.
Q5) Which of the following stages of the influenza infection cycle is inhibited by Tamiflu?
A) the coating of the capsid envelope
B) the assembly of the capsid
C) the cleaving of the host receptor and release of the virus by budding
D) the packaging of viral genome segments and exit from the nucleus
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of biofilms that makes it resistant to disinfectants?
A) presence of an extracellular matrix
B) stress-induced physiology of surface cells
C) stress-induced physiology of cells deep in the biofilm
D) metabolic collaboration between multiple species
Q2) The presence of ________ in the bacterial cell wall is one of the mechanisms of antibiotic selective toxicity.
Q3) Drug sensitivity occurs when a(n)
A) drug is broken down by a pathogenic organism.
B) organism is inhibited by a drug.
C) individual develops an allergic reaction to a drug he or she is taking.
D) drug that is used to inhibit the growth of an organism is no longer capable.
Q4) Protease inhibitors are a common antiviral drug targeting
A) HPV.
B) HIV.
C) hepatitis C.
D) influenza.
Q5) Why does lyophilization offer longer-term storage of mesophilic cells than refrigeration?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is wrong with the situation described below?
After vaginal delivery,a gnotobiotic mouse was moved to an axenic environment.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an accurate description for epithelial cells?
A) interconnected
B) symmetrical
C) held together by tight junctions
D) glycoprotein-covered
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be a good organism choice for a vaccine delivery system?
A) Streptococcus salivarius
B) Lactobacillus acidophilus
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q4) Which of the following can act as an immunomodulin?
A) cytokines
B) enterotoxins
C) catalase
D) hydrogen peroxide
Page 16
Q5) Fecal transplants can be used to treat ulcerative colitis caused by ________.
Q6) The presence of a core ________ is most important for a healthy microbiome.
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chill is a sign that
A) body temperature is falling.
B) body temperature is rising.
C) body temperature is not changing.
D) blood vessels are dilating.
Q2) Movement of neutrophils out of blood vessels and into infected tissue is called
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical barrier to infection?
A) skin
B) lungs
C) defensins
D) mucosal membranes
Q4) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Macrophages interact with inhibitory glycoproteins to recognize self.
B) Phagocytosis is a specific immune response.
C) Opsonization prevents phagocytosis.
D) Capsules enhance phagocytosis.
Q5) A clinical that counts the total number of white blood cells and identifies their various cell types is called a ________.
Q6) Substances that cause fever are known as ________. Page 18
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn receives passive immunity through A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgD.
D) IgE.
Q2) The immunoglobulin superfamily of proteins includes A) immunoglobulins only.
B) immunoglobulins, major histocompatibility complex, and B- and T-cell receptors. C) major histocompatibility complex and B- and T-cell receptors only.
D) IgA, IgG, IgM, IgE, and IgD only.
Q3) Bloodwork indicates that a patient who has pneumonia is actively secreting different forms of antibody against Streptococcus pneumoniae.Explain how the patient is able to respond to this pathogen by secreting more than one antibody.
Q4) Cells that become activated when they bind to intracellular antigen bound to class I MHC on antigen-presenting cells are known as ________ cells.
Q5) Explain how humans are able to produce millions of different antibodies when there are only about 1,000 genes or gene segments involved in antibody formation.
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Page 20
Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) A plasmid-encoding protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells.This is an example of a(n)
A) DNA vaccine.
B) attenuated vaccine.
C) subunit vaccine.
D) toxoid.
Q2) Injecting an antigen such as a weakened or killed pathogen is called ________ immunization,while ________ immunization is a type of immunotherapy.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT use fluorescent-labeled antibodies?
A) agglutination
B) western blot
C) immunofluorescence microscopy
D) flow cytometry
Q4) All of the following regarding immunoprecipitation are correct EXCEPT
A) it is observed both in vitro and in vivo.
B) too many antigens cause the test not to work.
C) too many antibody molecules cause the test not to work.
D) equivalence is the point at which there are roughly the same number of antigenic and antigen-binding sites.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following protozoans uses antigenic variation to circumvent the host immune system?
A) plasmodium
B) entamoeba
C) leishmania
D) trypanosome
Q2) Organisms such as Shigella and Listeria are able to move from cell to cell without being detected by the host immune system.What method are they using?
A) production of an actin tail that propels them from cell to cell
B) production of a capsule to avoid antibody binding
C) production of protein A molecules to bind the Fc region of antibodies
D) production of proteins to trigger apoptosis in host cells
Q3) Organisms that can survive inside or outside host cells are called ________ pathogens.
Q4) Cervical warts are caused by
A) HBV.
B) HPV.
C) HIV.
D) herpes.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) All of the following are methods used to treat C.perfringens infection EXCEPT
A) amputation.
B) a hyperbaric chamber.
C) antibiotic therapy alone.
D) debridement.
Q2) All of the following are protective features of the skin EXCEPT
A) Langerhans cells in the epidermis.
B) that it is the largest organ and forms a chemical barrier.
C) keratinocytes secreting keratin.
D) melanocytes producing melanin.
Q3) Compare and contrast the virulence factors associated with Staphylococcus and Streptococcus.Which of these agents is the most difficult to treat? Explain your answer.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true about gas gangrene?
A) The organism produces considerable amounts of gas.
B) The causative agent is Clostridium perfringens.
C) The organism only grows on live tissue.
D) The organism is found in the environment and in the intestines.
Q5) Explain the cycle of acne.What is the causative agent and why are some individuals more prone to acne than others?
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Describe how a human infected simultaneously with an avian flu strain and a swine flu strain may cause an influenza pandemic.
Q2) Close contact with respiratory droplets from which of the following individuals is most likely to cause disease?
A) an individual with histoplasmosis
B) an individual with blastomycosis
C) an individual with cryptococcosis
D) an individual with tuberculosis
Q3) A day-care worker reports that two young children have been coughing all day.She first noticed that both children had runny noses a few days ago,but is not sure if they had fevers.She states that they both sound like barking seals.Most likely these children have
A) the common cold.
B) croup.
C) influenza.
D) respiratory syncytial disease.
Q4) A patient with a bacterial infection of the respiratory system presents with a fever and cough.What additional information regarding his or her cough would be useful in forming a differential diagnosis?
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) The most common treatment for systemic viral diseases is
A) the treatment of symptoms.
B) antiviral medications.
C) immunotherapy.
D) antibiotics.
Q2) Why does dissemination of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)often lead to hepatomegaly and splenomegaly?
A) EBV produces abnormal blood cells that are removed by the liver and spleen.
B) Latent EBV within the liver and spleen causes enlargement of these organs.
C) The cells infected by EBV are only found in the liver and spleen.
D) EBV-infected B cells travel throughout the body and then reside within the liver and spleen.
Q3) Bacterial endocarditis affects the
A) thinner lining of the heart.
B) muscle of the heart.
C) sac surrounding the heart.
D) lining of blood vessels exiting the heart.
Q4) Describe similarities and differences between bubonic plague and secondary plague pneumonia.
Q5) Inflammation of the sac covering the heart is defined as ________.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Even with healthy liver function,the majority of individuals infected with ________ develop a chronic infection.
A) rotavirus
B) hepatitis A
C) hepatitis B
D) hepatitis C
Q2) What is the problem with antihelminth drugs?
A) They are not able to completely eliminate the worm from the body.
B) They are not able to kill the worm.
C) They are not able to starve the worm.
D) There is no problem with antihelminth drugs.
Q3) Lactobacillus species are a major type of probiotic.Describe one positive aspect of Lactobacillus and one negative aspect.
Q4) Karen is suffering from a gastrointestinal illness caused by a Gram-negative bacterium without flagella.Which of the following conditions could Karen have?
A) salmonellosis
B) shigellosis
C) hemolytic uremia syndrome
D) peptic ulcers
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) Vaginal itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of A) bacterial vaginosis.
B) genital herpes.
C) candidiasis.
D) trichomoniasis.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a clinical progression of an HIV infection?
A) increase in immune function
B) seroconversion
C) latency
D) AIDS
Q3) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
Q4) Reoccurring UTIs can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT
A) birth control pills.
B) biofilm formation.
C) improper clearance after antibiotic treatment.
D) reintroduction of the organism.
Q5) The vaginal pH is maintained by the species Lactobacillus,which produces
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Explain the transmission,etiologies,and diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Q2) What is the prescribed treatment for Naegleria?
A) ketoconazole
B) eflornithine
C) penicillin
D) vaccine
Q3) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
Q4) All of the following are true of Neisseria meningitides EXCEPT
A) the capsule protects the organism from host complement proteins.
B) it does not cross the blood-brain barrier.
C) the organism uses type IV pili to invade epithelial cells.
D) it produces a nonblanching rash due to endotoxin release.
Q5) A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions.On examination,she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever,headache,and stiff neck.Which of the following is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms?
A) Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Gram stain of throat culture
C) biopsy of brain tissue
D) check serum antibodies
Page 28
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) A swab from an infected lesion is streaked onto a blood agar plate,a plate with blood agar that also contains colistin and nalidixic acid (a CNA plate),and a MacConkey agar plate.Growth occurs on both the blood agar and CNA plates.The organism growing must be
A) Gram positive.
B) Gram negative, enteric.
C) Gram negative, nonenteric.
D) acid fast.
Q2) Which of the following samples would be expected to contain normal microbiota?
A) peritoneal fluid
B) cerebrospinal fluid
C) blood
D) fecal stool sample
Q3) Organisms will resist Gram staining when they contain a waxy outer coat composed of
A) peptidoglycan.
B) mycolic acid.
C) lipopolysaccharide.
D) cellulose.
Q4) Body sites that contain no microorganisms are considered to be ________.
Page 29
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following is likely to occur as a result of climate change?
A) Insect vectors will migrate from tropical regions to once-temperate regions.
B) Gastrointestinal infections will decrease in tropical regions.
C) Microbes currently found in temperate regions will move to tropical regions.
D) Extreme weather will decrease and diseases will become less seasonal.
Q2) Which of the following would indicate efforts to control a disease are working?
A) The disease becomes endemic.
B) The disease prevalence increases.
C) The disease incidence decreases.
D) Outbreaks of the disease only occur every other year.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT involve testing a hypothesis?
A) descriptive epidemiology
B) analytical epidemiology
C) experimental study
D) cohort study
Q4) Anyone with a computer and Internet access can use Google Trends to investigate the search frequency for diseases such as influenza.What are two reasons that explain why online searches for an infectious disease will crudely track actual cases of the disease?
Q5) A disease transmitted from animals to humans is called a _______ disease.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human sewage and industrial effluents are abundant in
A) short-chain fatty acids and urea.
B) monosaccharides and insoluble fiber.
C) amino acids and urea.
D) amino acids and insoluble fiber.
Q2) Your sister leaves the milk out on the counter after breakfast one day.Eight hours later she realizes her mistake and puts the milk back in the refrigerator.The next morning she pours herself a glass of milk,takes a sip of the milk,and immediately spits it out.Was she responding to food spoilage or food contamination? Explain your reasoning.
Q3) Bacteriocins are molecules that are produced by
A) some bacteria and prevent pathogens from adhering to the gut lining.
B) methanogens and cause flatulence in cows.
C) digestive microbes in termites and allow digestion of cellulose.
D) viruses and increase the virulence of zoonotic diseases.
Q4) An end result of mixed-acid fermentation products being converted into a gas in cattle is production of the greenhouse gas ________.
Q5) In a wastewater treatment plant,the removal of large,solid debris such as sticks and dead animals occurs during ________ treatment.
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