Microbiology for Allied Health Final Exam
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Allied Health introduces students to the fundamentals of microbiology with a focus on concepts relevant to healthcare professions. The course covers the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, as well as their roles in human health and disease. Students will explore microbial pathogenesis, mechanisms of infection, host immune response, and the principles of aseptic technique, disinfection, and sterilization. Emphasis is placed on practical applications such as antibiotic resistance, infection control, and the significance of normal flora. Through laboratory exercises and case studies, students gain skills in safe handling of specimens, microbial identification, and interpretation of diagnostic results, preparing them for roles in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 1st Edition by Dave Wessner
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Q1) Viruses are considered "nonliving" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that they:
A) need a host cell for replication.
B) are metabolically inert.
C) possess DNA that can evolve.
D) do not maintain internal homeostasis.
E) are not responsive to environmental changes.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of these is an example of a macromolecule?
A) an amino acid
B) a nucleoside
C) a protein
D) a purine
E) a monosaccharide
Answer: C
Q3) The atmosphere of the early earth contained very small amounts of carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) What are short fiber-like structures that protrude from the bacterial surface and are primarily used for attachment called?
A) pili
B) flagellin
C) porins
D) bactoprenol
E) lipopolysaccharides
Answer: A
Q2) Describe the chemical composition of the peptidoglycan.
Answer: Peptidoglycan is a polymer made up of long chains of alternating N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) molecules. These chains are cross-linked by short peptides, forming a strong and rigid cell wall structure in bacteria. The peptides are made up of a combination of amino acids, including L-alanine, D-glutamic acid, meso-diaminopimelic acid, and D-alanine. This unique composition gives peptidoglycan its characteristic strength and resistance to osmotic pressure.
Q3) In the scientific name Bacillus cereus,the term Bacillus represents the organism's ___ and cereus its ____.
Answer: genus ,species
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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Q1) What are the main eukaryal pathogens of plants?
A) slime molds
B) fungi
C) protozoans
D) amoebas
E) algae
Answer: B
Q2) The slime-mold Dictyostelium discoideum is classified as a fungus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What is the slime-mold Dictyostelium discoideum commonly used to study?
A) the fungal life cycle
B) evolution of multi-cellularity
C) flagella movement
D) cell wall synthesis
E) cyst formation
Answer: B
Q4) Microfilament are made of the protein ___.
Answer: actin
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) From which area would you be able to isolate the bacterium Halobacterium?
A) the Pacific ocean
B) the Indian ocean
C) Lake Michigan
D) the Great Salt Lake
E) the Mediterranean Sea
Q2) Which of these is correct regarding subunit rRNA?
A) It serves the same biological function in all organisms.
B) Its sequence changes very slowly over time.
C) It is very stable and easy to work with.
D) It serves the same biological function in all organisms and its sequence changes very slowly over time.
E) These choices are all true.
Q3) Where have halophiles been isolated from?
A) hydrothermal vents
B) temperate environments
C) very cold environments
D) both b and c
E) a, b, and c are correct
Q4) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) What is the premise of the progressive hypothesis of viral origin?
A) Viruses evolved from symbionts of cells.
B) Viruses evolved from self-replicating nucleic acid segments.
C) Viruses originated from cells that lost the ability to replicate.
D) Viruses were present when the first primordial cells evolved.
E) Viruses arose from fragmented DNA in a cell.
Q2) The discovery of oncogenes in this virus group led to the discovery of proto-oncogenes in human cells and an understanding of how tumors form.
A) Poliovirus
B) Retrovirus
C) Rhinovirus
D) Orthomyxovirus
E) Paramyxovirus
Q3) Genes that are involved in the normal regulation of the cell cycle and can be altered to increase probability of cancer are called ___________.
Q4) A bacterial strain that contains a phage genome integrated into its chromosome is called a _________.
Q5) What is a prophage and how is the prophage established in a bacterial cell?
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Q1) A phototroph is defined as an organism that uses _____ as a source of _____.
A) carbon dioxide; carbon
B) organic compounds; carbon
C) inorganic compounds; energy
D) sunlight; energy
E) organic compounds; energy
Q2) A microbe that grows optimally at a temperature below 15°C is called a __________.
Q3) What is nitrogen fixation?
A) The oxidation of nitrate to ammonia for assimilation.
B) The oxidation of ammonia to nitrate for assimilation.
C) The reduction of dinitrogen to ammonia for assimilation.
D) The reduction of nitrate to dinitrogen for assimilation.
E) The release of an amino group from an amino acid for assimilation.
Q4) What is the function of siderophores?
A) Transporting waste products out of the cell.
B) Binding iron for transport into the cell.
C) Binding glucose for transport into the cell.
D) Transporting proteins out of the cell.
E) Moving potassium into the cell for osmotic regulation.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Q1) A gene can best be described as a segment of DNA that:
A) encodes for a protein.
B) encodes for a protein or functional RNA.
C) is transcribed as well as the associated regulatory regions.
D) encodes for a protein as well as the associated regulatory regions.
E) is transcribed.
Q2) Describe the process of DNA replication initiation in Bacteria.
Q3) After the translational process the polypeptide folds into the appropriate conformation for proper functioning.What group of proteins aids in protein folding?
A) proteases
B) cytokines
C) chaperonins
D) peptidases
E) lipases
Q4) The mRNA of bacterial cells is often polycistronic.What does this term mean?
A) It can be translated more than once.
B) It contains the code for multiple peptides.
C) It can be translated from either end.
D) It is transcribed from multiple sites on the chromosome.
E) The translated protein may be modified in different ways.
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) The main function of a host cell receptor is to specifically bind to the viral attachment protein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Several antiviral drugs that are produced today prevent attachment of the virus to the host cell.What information do you need to know to design the drugs? Briefly describe possible mechanisms of the drugs.
Q3) For most double-stranded DNA eukaryal viruses,DNA replication occurs in the _________ and translation occurs in the __________.
A) cytoplasm, cytoplasm
B) cytoplasm, nucleus
C) nucleus, nucleus
D) nucleus, cytoplasm
E) mitochondria, cytoplasm
Q4) Antibodies produced in response to a viral infection may specifically bind to the virus particle to effectively block _______________ to the host cell.
Q5) Most enveloped viruses exit their host cell through a process called __________.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Q1) The original map of the Escherichia coli chromosome was constructed using which process?
A) conjugation
B) transformation
C) transduction
D) both conjugation and transformation
E) both conjugation and transduction
Q2) In order for a plasmid to replicate once it enters a cell,it must contain an ______ of replication that is recognized by the cell.
Q3) Mutations in a cell can occur in the absence of selective pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Suppose a mutant strain of Escherichia coli K12 contains a mutation in the trpE gene and is no longer able to make tryptophan.What is this mutant called?
A) An auxotroph.
B) A prototroph.
C) An autotroph.
D) A phenotroph.
E) A lithotroph.
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) The isoelectric point is the pH at which a protein has zero charge.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A culture-independent method that is used to study genomes from microbial communities in their natural environments is called _______________ .
Q3) What is a transcriptome?
A) The coding region on the chromosome.
B) The coding region on the chromosome minus the introns.
C) The coding region on the chromosome plus the control regions.
D) The transcripts encoded for by the genes within a genome.
E) The mount of mRNA in the cell.
Q4) An open-reading frame (ORF)is the non-translated part of a gene.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Genes from different organisms that differ significantly in their sequence but encode for proteins that perform identical functions are called ________.
Q6) The pH at which a protein's charge is completely neutral is the protein's ______________ point.
Q7) Explain how % G + C analysis of a genome can detect horizontal gene transfer.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of these is typically involved in a two-component regulatory system?
A) Histidine kinase and a response regulator.
B) Repressor protein and an activator protein.
C) Repressor protein and a co-repressor.
D) An activator protein and a co-activator.
E) A repressor protein and an inducer.
Q2) What is the function of methyl-accepting chemotaxis proteins (MCPs)?
A) To phosphorylate CheY.
B) To control the direction of flagellar rotation.
C) To dephosphorylate CheY.
D) To sense the presence of a specific chemical.
E) To drive the flagellum motors.
Q3) When does repression of the lac operon occur?
A) When allolactose binds to the operator region.
B) When allolactose binds to the repressor protein.
C) When the repressor protein binds to the operator region.
D) When allolactose binds to -galactosidase.
E) When the repressor protein binds to the promoter.
Q4) Give example of genes that are usually expressed constitutively.Why are these genes constitutively expressed?
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of these amino acids are commonly used as supplements in animal feed to promote growth?
A) glycine and glutamate
B) methionine and lysine
C) proline and valine
D) tryptophan and tyrosine
E) aspartate and histidine
Q2) Expression vectors are used for which of these processes?
A) site-directed mutagenesis
B) directed enzyme evolution
C) recombinant protein production
D) random mutagenesis
E) DNA shuffling experiments
Q3) The main advantage of using microorganisms for the production of amino acids over chemical synthesis is
A) cost.
B) stereospecificity.
C) increased production yield.
D) ease of purification.
E) a single microbe will produce all 20 amino acids.
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Q1) ATP molecules are the primary energy molecules for all cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most of the electrons that are donated to the electron transport chain by intermediate electron carriers are derived from oxidation/reduction reactions in glycolysis.
A)True B)False
Q3) How many ATP molecules is required to "fix" a molecule of nitrogen?
A) one
B) two C) four
D) eight
E) sixteen
Q4) Most cells prefer to assimilate nitrogen as ammonia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Organism that use light as energy sources are called _____________.
Q6) The pathway of carbon dioxide fixation used by cyanobacteria is called the
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) When considering biogeochemical cycles,the earth is divided into these three major reservoirs.
A) Ocean, terrestrial, and earth's crust.
B) Atmosphere, earth's crust, and land.
C) Atmosphere, terrestrial, and aquatic.
D) Terrestrial, aquatic, and earth's crust.
E) Ocean, freshwater, and terrestrial.
Q2) Which of these would occur in an "ideal" food web?
A) Organic carbon production > carbon dioxide production.
B) Organic carbon production < carbon dioxide production.
C) Organic carbon production = carbon dioxide consumption.
D) Carbon dioxide consumption < than organic carbon production.
E) Carbon dioxide consumption > organic carbon production.
Q3) How can Type I and Type II methanotrophs be distinguished from one another?
A) By carbon assimilation pathways and Gram stain.
B) By Gram stain and cellular shape.
C) By Gram stain and internal membrane structures.
D) By carbon assimilation pathways and internal membrane structures.
E) By cellular shape and internal membrane structures.
Q4) Methanogens are members of the Domain _______.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) To grow the widest diversity of marine microbes from the open ocean requires growth media that contain which of the following?
A) High amounts of various organics.
B) High amounts of carbohydrates.
C) High amounts of proteins.
D) Very low carbon concentrations.
E) Very low amounts of proteins and high amounts of carbohydrates.
Q2) What are humic substances?
A) clay particles
B) recalcitrant organic molecules
C) glucose molecules
D) carbonates and phosphates
E) silt and sand
Q3) How would you best classify most of the microbes from marine environments that cannot be isolated?
A) obligate anaerobes
B) obligate oligotrophs
C) obligate acidophiles
D) extreme halophiles
E) extreme thermophiles
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) Canning is the most prominent method of food preservation in industrialized countries today.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following methods use microbial biofilms for secondary phase of wastewater treatment?
A) trickling filter
B) activated sludge
C) anaerobic digester
D) nitrification tank
E) oxidation pond
Q3) What bacterium is used in the production of Swiss cheese to give it its characteristic flavor and also the holes from carbon dioxide production?
A) Pediococcus
B) Leuconostoc
C) Propionibacterium
D) Clostridium
E) Pseudomonas
Q4) Compare and contrast a food-borne infection to intoxication.
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) Which of these is TRUE of a lichen?
A) It is classified as a plant.
B) It is comprised of a fungus and usually an green alga.
C) It is comprised of a fungus and an archaeal symbiont.
D) It is a type of slime mold.
E) It is comprised of a protozoan and anarchaeal symbiont.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a feature of a primary endosymbiont?
A) They all have reduced genomes.
B) They are found in specialized cells called bacteriocytes.
C) They provide the host with nutrients.
D) They are passed on maternally.
E) They are required for survival or fertility.
Q3) The majority of Archaea found in the human intestinal tract are _____ .
A) sulfate-reducing bacteria
B) halobacteria
C) sulfide oxidizing bacteria
D) methanogens
E) fermenters
Q4) Describe the characteristics of a primary endosymbiont.
Q5) The heaviest colonized area of the human body is the __________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Borrelia burgdorferi,the agent of Lyme disease,is found in nature in the white-footed mice and deer.Mice and deer are said to be _______________ for this pathogen.
Q2) Term for pathogen properties that aid it in causing disease.
A) virulence factors
B) pathogenics
C) proteases
D) enhancers
E) promoters
Q3) All of the following are components that may be used by a pathogen for attachment to a host cell EXCEPT:
A) pili.
B) lipoteichoic acid.
C) attachment proteins.
D) chitinases.
E) surface glycoproteins.
Q4) When the incidence of a disease occurs at a level higher than expected,it is called a(n)______________.
Q5) A(n)_____________________ disease is an infectious disease of animals that can be transmitted to a human.
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Q1) Iron deficiency may protect the body against certain pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A special type of endocytosis whereby large particles or cells are taken into a cell enclosed in an endosome for digestion is called __________________.
Q3) When the antibody class IgE binds to mast cells or basophils,what does it stimulate them to do?
A) enhance phagocytosis
B) produce more antibody
C) undergo degranulation
D) activate complement
E) differentiate into lymphocytes
Q4) Neutrophils are commonly referred to as _________________ because of their odd shaped nucleus.
A) monocytes
B) lymphocytes
C) dendritic cells
D) polymophonuclear leukocytes
E) multinuclear leukocytes
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) What is function of the FC region of the antibody molecule?
A) It binds the antigen.
B) It binds complement.
C) It binds specific receptors on phagocytes.
D) Options b and c are correct.
E) Options a, b, and c are all correct.
Q2) The cytokine _________________ functions as a growth factor for T cells by promoting cell division.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the primary immune response?
A) The response only involves T cells.
B) Only a few cells can initially recognize the specific antigen.
C) The response is slow and may take several weeks to develop.
D) Clonal expansion of B cells and T cells occur after antigen exposure.
E) Memory cells produced during this response can last for years.
Q4) Dendritic cells are able to activate both naïve CD4 and naïve CD8 T cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how a CD8 cell can recognize and kill a virus infected cell.
Q6) Salts or oils commonly added to vaccines to enhance the immunogenicity of the vaccine antigens are called _________________.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Survival in the Host
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Q1) A person may develop strep throat several times because of the antigenic variations of this.
A) teichoic acids
B) capsule proteins
C) M-protein
D) lipopolysaccharide
E) streptolysin-O
Q2) Cattle may serve as a reservoir for E.coli strain O157:H7 because this strain does not cause any disease in cattle.This strain of E.coli can cause a potentially lethal Shiga toxin-mediated hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)in humans.Why don't cattle develop HUS?
A) The shiga toxin is not expressed in cattle.
B) E. coli is unable to effectively colonize the bovine intestine.
C) A protease in the cattle destroys the toxin.
D) Bovine kidney cells do not have a shiga toxin receptor.
E) They produce antibody against the shiga toxin.
Q3) Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how superantigens are able to cause toxic shock syndrome.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) Describe how the papilloma virus is able to transform a normal cell into a cancer cell.
Q2) Most cancer causing viruses are RNA viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Viral infections are always acute and cause extensive damage to host cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Multinucleated giant cells that are formed as a result of a viral infection are called
Q5) The coronavirus that causes SARS is thought to have evolved from other coronaviruses through this process.
A) spontaneous mutation
B) recombination
C) errors in DNA replication
D) induced mutation
E) reassortment
Q6) A herpes simplex I viral infection lasts a lifetime.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) The anti-malarial drug chloroquine was used for years to prevent malaria.This drug worked by inhibiting the formation of hemozoin in the parasite,which resulted in:
A) destabilization of the parasitic cytoplasmic membrane.
B) the inhibition of transcriptional processes in the parasite.
C) the inhibition of translational processes in the parasite.
D) accumulation of toxic metabolic products in the parasite.
E) destabilization of the endoplasmic reticulum in the parasite.
Q2) The life cycle form of the malaria parasite Plasmodium falciparum that is transferred from the mosquito to a human is called a(n)_____________________.
Q3) Trypanosomes have a complex life cycle that involves both an insect and mammal host.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The "definitive host" for Plasmodium falciparum is the host in which it:
A) causes malaria.
B) completes its sexual life cycle.
C) replicates asexually.
D) goes through its complete life cycle.
E) causes a mild form of malaria.
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Mutational resistance to an antimicrobial drug usually occurs _____.
A) only in the presence of the drug.
B) spontaneously in the absence of the drug.
C) in the presence of the drug and a mutagen.
D) as a result of horizontal gene transfer.
E) only in the presence of a mutagen.
Q2) A person is prescribed antibiotics for a bacterial infection.After taking the drug for a few days the person stops taking the drug.Two weeks later the person develops the same infection.This time the bacterial isolate is resistant to the antibiotic.What type of resistance,mutational or acquired has occurred,and why?
Q3) All of the following are approaches used to help reduce the incidence of antimicrobial drug resistance except _____.
A) the use of very high concentrations of the drug.
B) use of a narrow spectrum antibiotic to treat a specific infection.
C) use of a combination of antibiotics.
D) good hygiene, such as frequent hand washing to prevent the spread of drug resistant microbes.
E) the use of antibiotics only when absolutely necessary.
Q4) Azidothymidine (AZT)is an antiviral drug used to treat a(n)_________ infection.
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