Microbiology for Allied Health Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts of microbiology, emphasizing the role of microorganisms in human health and disease. Topics include microbial cell structure and function, physiology, genetics, growth, and the principles of infection and immunity. Students will explore the identification and classification of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites relevant to clinical practice. The course also covers aseptic techniques, antimicrobial agents, epidemiology, and the impact of microorganisms on public health, preparing allied health students to effectively understand and apply microbiological principles in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 4th Edition by Marjorie Kelly
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's five kingdoms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) When assigning a scientific name to an organism,
A)the species name is capitalized.
B)the species name is placed first.
C)the species name can be abbreviated.
D)both genus and species names are capitalized.
E)both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.
Answer: E
Q3) The scientific method includes all of the following except A)hypothesis.
B)experimentation.
C)observation.
D)publish. Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to a solution of pH 9,a solution of pH 7 is:
A)2 times more acidic.
B)20 times more acidic.
C)20 times more basic.
D)100 times more acidic.
E)100 times more basic.
Answer: D
Q2) Covalent bonds
A)result from losing electrons.
B)are always polar.
C)are always nonpolar.
D)result from sharing electrons.
E)result from gaining electrons.
Answer: D
Q3) All proteins are enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is A)hanging drop.
B)fixed,stained smear.
C)Gram stain.
D)negative stain.
E)flagellar stain.
Answer: A
Q2) A confocal scanning optical microscope
A)uses ultraviolet light to form a specimen image.
B)shows three-dimensional cell images from the cell surface to the middle of the cell.
C)produces specimen images on electron micrographs.
D)uses dyes that emit visible light when bombarded by ultraviolet rays.
E)requires specimens to be stained.
Answer: B
Q3) Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Prokaryotic Profiles: The Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The short,numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called
A)flagella.
B)cilia.
C)fimbriae.
D)periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
E)sex pili.
Q2) Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body,germinate,and cause an infectious disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Syphilis is caused by a spirochete called
A)Proteus vulgaris.
B)Chlamydia trachomatis.
C)Treponema pallidum.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
E)Bacillus anthracis.
Q4) Alcohol-based compounds can weaken the outer membrane.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Histones are
A)found in polyribosomes.
B)enzymes found in lysosomes.
C)proteins of the cytoskeleton.
D)proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus.
E)on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Q2) The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called A)dimorphic.
B)saprobes.
C)pseudohyphae.
D)spores.
E)parasites.
Q4) All fungi cause some kind of disease in plants and animals.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents a virus family name?
A)Herpes simplex virus
B)Herpesviridae
C)Picornavirus
D)Enterovirus
E)Hepatitis B virus
Q2) The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is
A)adsorption to the host cells.
B)injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.
C)host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins.
D)assembly of nucleocapsids.
E)replication of viral nucleic acid.
Q3) What structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors?
A)viral sheaths
B)tail fibers
C)nucleic acids
D)capsid heads
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Planktonic bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotics as compared to biofilm microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called A)facilitated diffusion.
B)diffusion.
C)active transport.
D)osmosis.
E)endocytosis.
Q3) Facilitated diffusion is limited by A)substrate concentration.
B)carrier proteins in the membrane.
C)size of the pores in the membrane.
D)osmotic pressure.
E)size of the cell.
Q4) The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9. A)True B)False
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) ATP is composed of deoxyribose,adenine,and three phosphate groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What chemical causes death in many eukaryotes because it blocks cytochrome C oxidase?
A)copper
B)iron
C)cyanide
D)oxygen
E)carbon monoxide
Q3) ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) FAD,NADP,NAD,and coenzyme A are all carriers of:
A)hydrogens
B)electrons
C)ATP
D)Both hydrogens and electrons are correct.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not associated with a prokaryotic ribosome?
A)has a 70s subunit
B)has a peptide (P)site
C)has an exit site
D)small unit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds
E)has an amino acid (A)site
Q2) In bacteria,initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Repressible operons require that _____ binds to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator.
A)the product
B)a cofactor
C)a coenzyme
D)the substrate
E)the reactant
Q4) Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is now possible to very quickly map the genome of an organism or virus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases?
A)They make these enzymes for humans to use in manipulating DNA.
B)Bacteria use these enzymes to repair their own mistakes made during DNA replication.
C)Bacteria use these enzymes to attack other bacteria and destroy their DNA.
D)These enzymes are a defensive measure of bacteria to defend themselves against invading DNA of bacteriophages.
Q3) E.coli is an excellent host for cloning because it possesses the mechanisms for processing and modifying proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following it a list of the materials required for PCR?
A)reverse transcriptase,Taq RNA polymerase,nucleotides
B)reverse transcriptase,Taq DNA polymerase,nucleotides
C)primers,Taq DNA polymerase,nucleotides
D)primers,Taq RNA polymerase,nucleotides
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)antisepsis.
D)sanitization.
E)degermation.
Q3) All of the following are phenols or phenolics except A)Lysol.
B)hexachlorophene.
C)triclosan.
D)cresols.
E)chlorhexidine.
Q4) Chlorine and ethylene oxide are sterilizing gases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, host-The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include
A)bacterial chromosomal mutations.
B)synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.
C)prevention of drug entry into the cell.
D)alteration of drug receptors on cell targets.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of ___ infections.
A)gram-positive bacterial
B)gram-negative bacterial
C)fungal
D)protozoan
E)viral
Q3) Antimicrobials that are macrolides
A)disrupt cell membrane function.
B)include tetracyclines.
C)include azithromycin,clarithromcyin,and erythromycin.
D)are very narrow-spectrum drugs.
E)are hepatotoxic.
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term infection refers to
A)microorganisms colonizing the body.
B)contact with microorganisms.
C)contact with pathogens.
D)pathogens penetrating host defenses.
Q2) The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the
A)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
B)World Health Organization.
C)National Institutes of Health.
D)United States Department of Agriculture.
E)Infection Control Committee.
Q3) The effect of beneficial microbes of normal biota against invading microbes is called
A)microbial antagonism.
B)endogenous infection.
C)infectious disease.
D)axenic.
E)gnotobiotism.
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are granulocytes except A)neutrophils.
B)eosinophils.
C)lymphocytes.
D)basophils.
E)All of the choices are granulocytes.
Q2) What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances?
A)MALTs
B)RES
C)PAMPs
D)BALTs
E)IFNs
Q3) All of the following are physical barriers to pathogens except A)unbroken skin.
B)mucous.
C)hairs.
D)tears.
E)T cells.
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly diversified from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the _____ region.
A)variable
B)joining C)constant
D)light
E)hinge
Q2) Lymphocyte maturation involves
A)hormonal signals that initiate development.
B)B cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
C)T cells maturing in the thymus.
D)release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except
A)rheumatoid arthritis.
B)myasthenia gravis.
C)Graves' disease.
D)tuberculin reaction.
E)multiple sclerosis.
Q2) Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category
A)type I only.
B)type I and type IV.
C)type IV only.
D)type I,type II,and type III.
E)type I,type II,type III,and type IV.
Q3) Which type/s of hypersensitivities is IgG is involved with?
A)anaphylaxis
B)antibody-mediated
C)immune complex-mediated
D)Both anaphylaxis and antibody-mediated.
E)Both antibody-mediated and immune complex-mediated.
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.John Doe,a research microbiologist for a university medical center,has been accused of sending Bacillus anthracis,the causative agent of anthrax,through the mail to the President.You,as a public health official with the CDC,have to determine if it is the same strain as the two strains of B. anthracis found cultured in his lab.Which method of identification would you use to compare these three bacterial samples?
A)serological testing using agglutination
B)Gram staining
C)biochemical test identification
D)pulse-field gel electrophoresis
Q2) The primary advantage of genotypic analysis for identification is
A)it is easier than any other method.
B)it is less expensive than other methods.
C)it is widely available.
D)culturing of the organism is not required.
Q3) The tuberculin test is an example of an in vitro serological test.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus.
A)small pox
B)herpes simplex
C)vaccinia
D)human herpesvirus 6
Q2) The enzyme that coagulates plasma is
A)catalase.
B)coagulase.
C)hyaluronidase.
D)staphylokinase.
E)kinase.
Q3) Which of the following is the most common form of transmission in cases of impetigo?
A)fomites
B)direct contact
C)mechanical vectors
D)blood
E)body fluids
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the likelihood that a patient infected by West Nile virus will develop West Nile encephalitis?
A)less than 1%
B)between 1% and 10%
C)between 10% and 15%
D)greater than 20%
E)greater than 50%
Q2) Treatment for Neisseria meningitidis consists of
A)vancomycin.
B)penicillin G orally.
C)penicillin G intravenously.
D)rifampin.
E)tetracycline.
Q3) Which of the following is not a causative agent of acute encephalitis?
A)JC virus
B)arbovirus
C)herpes simplex virus
D)Toxoplasma gondii
E)varicella-zoster virus
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the A)epicardium.
B)myocardium.
C)endocardium.
D)pericardium.
E)ectocardium.
Q2) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
A)is seen in highest numbers along the west coast.
B)is transmitted by Ixodes ticks.
C)symptoms include fever,headache,and rash.
D)never has severe complications.
Q3) Anthrax is A)a zoonosis.
B)transmitted by contact,inhalation,and ingestion.
C)a disease that,in humans,can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia.
D)only seen sporadically in the United States.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Humans are routinely vaccinated against Lyme disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both Streptococcus pyogenes and Corynebacterium diphtheriae are highly pathogenic,and the disease symptomology can be very severe.Why is this?
A)Infants and children are the high-risk groups and their morality rate is higher than for other ages.
B)Both bacteria produce potent exotoxins.
C)They induce autoimmune states in the patients.
D)There are no antibiotics useful for diseases caused by these bacteria.
Q2) Antibiotic treatment immediately upon the diagnosis of otitis media is standard procedure today.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include
A)otitis media.
B)meningitis.
C)lobar pneumonia.
D)bronchial pneumonia.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the absence of dietary carbohydrates,bacteria do not cause tooth decay. A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is true of Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis?
A)They both cause tuberculosis.
B)They cause intense pain caused by inflammation of the ileum and mesenteric lymph nodes.
C)They cause Guillain-Barre syndrome.
D)They are gram-positive.
E)They are passed only through direct contact.
Q3) The best treatment for acute diarrhea is oral replacement of electrolytes and water. A)True
B)False
Q4) Carriers of Hepatitis B virus are not common. A)True
B)False
Q5) There are no infectious agents that can invade intact skin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Janey has been taking antibiotics for 10 days,to counter a urinary tract infection caused by
A)Candida albicans
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Lactobacillus acidophilus
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E)coli.Her UTI is eliminated,but two weeks later she has an infection.What is the likely infectious agent?
Q2) You and your husband have been trying to get pregnant for a few years,but there appears to be a medical cause for the infertility.After a full checkup,your doctor tells you that she has found a lot scar tissue in the uterine tubes.What disease did you most likely have that created this problem for you now?
A)trichomoniasis
B)syphilis
C)gonorrhea
D)leptospirosis
Q3) Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by direct sexual activity.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) The zone of soil around roots of plants is called the A)lithosphere.
B)biosphere.
C)ionosphere.
D)rhizosphere.
E)hydrosphere.
Q2) Which of the following is incorrect about photosynthesis?
A)The light-dependent reactions require chlorophyll and light energy.
B)In oxygenic photosynthesis,photolysis is the source of O<sub>2.</sub>
C)The light-independent reactions produce ATP and NADPH.
D)CO<sub>2</sub> is required in the light-independent reactions.
E)Photosynthetic pigments function to absorb light.
Q3) Phytoplankton is composed of protozoa and small invertebrates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Toxic substances accumulate through natural trophic flow of an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) Which step in wine making involves the crushing of the fruit?
A)aging
B)fermentation
C)preparation of must
D)storage
E)malting
Q2) In batch fermentation,substrate is added continuously and the product is siphoned off throughout the run.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bread production involves a(n)____________ fermentation.
A)lactic acid
B)alcohol
C)mixed acid
D)aldehyde
Q4) Methane can be produced from agricultural or industrial products by:
A)anaerobic respiration.
B)oxidation of nitrogen gas.
C)fermentation.
D)glycolysis.
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