Microbiology for Allied Health Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Allied Health introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on health-related applications. The course covers the biology, classification, and physiology of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Emphasis is placed on understanding the mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity, the immune response, and the role of microbes in disease transmission, prevention, and treatment. Topics such as aseptic technique, antimicrobial agents, infection control, and public health implications are integrated to prepare students for clinical and laboratory practices in various allied health fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience Preliminary Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how comparing the sequences of antibiotic-resistant and -sensitive Mycobacterium tuberculosis could be useful to treating tuberculosis.
Answer: The answer should discuss how this can lead to identification of the difference(s)that lead(s)to resistance and from there how to possibly target the antibiotic-resistant organism.For example: comparing the sequences of antibiotic-resistant and -sensitive Mycobacterium tuberculosis can allow one to note the differences between the two.Knowing what is missing or present in the antibiotic-resistant variety can allow researchers to understand how the resistant organisms are developing resistance.This is the first step toward developing a method to combat these resistant organisms.
Q2) Which of the following demonstrates correct scientific notation of a bacterial organism?
A) Staphylococcus \(Epidermidis\)
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) \(\it{ Staphylococcus}\) \(\it{epidermidis}\)
D) \(\underline {Staphylococcus\ Epidermidis}\)
Answer: C
Q3) Bacteria and archaea are classified as ________. Answer: prokaryotes
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infectious dose is measured by determining how many microbes are required to cause
A) disease symptoms in half of an experimental group of hosts.
B) death in half of an experimental group of hosts.
C) disease symptoms in all of an experimental group of hosts.
D) death in all of an experimental group of hosts.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
A) a rash
B) swollen glands
C) jaundice (yellow tinge to the skin)
D) muscle aches
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following can weaken the host immune response?
A) too little sleep
B) moderate exercise
C) proper nutrition
D) avoiding alcohol and drugs
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast darkfield,phase-contrast,and fluorescence microscopy.
Answer: Darkfield,phase-contrast,and fluorescence microscopy are all types of light microscopy.Darkfield uses a special condenser that blocks out transmitted light from the specimen;therefore,the image appears light against a black background.Phase-contrast also uses light;however,because of the high concentration of solutes,the light is refracted differently throughout the cell.Fluorescence microscopy allows the visualization of specific cellular molecules within the sample.Visible light is used along with fluorescent dyes,which stain the specimen.These fluorophores are excited with different wavelengths of light and emit colors.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the Gram stain is most correct?
A) Crystal violet differentially stains Gram-positive cells.
B) Gram's iodine differentially stains Gram-positive cells.
C) Ethanol differentially destains Gram-negative cells.
D) Safranin differentially stains Gram-negative cells.
Answer: C
Q3) Refraction occurs by the ________ of light and is the key property enabling a lens to magnify an image.
Answer: bending
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infectious agent remains infectious after treatment with an enzyme that destroys DNA.What might the infectious agent be?
A) an archaeal cell
B) a bacteria
C) a eukaryote
D) a virus
Q2) You fluorescently label the phospholipid head groups of a small number of phospholipids in the outer leaflet of the cell membrane to observe them over time with a microscope.At time zero,all the fluorescent label is concentrated in one spot.What will you observe at a later time point?
A) The fluorescently tagged phospholipids will still be together,concentrated in a spot.
B) The fluorescently tagged phospholipids will be spread out,but will still all be part of the outer leaflet.
C) The fluorescently tagged phospholipids will be spread out in the outer leaflet and some will have flip-flopped into the inner leaflet as well.
D) It is impossible to predict what will happen to the labeled phospholipids over time.
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bacterial cellular constituent is most liable to change under changing environmental conditions?
A) DNA
B) peptidoglycan
C) polyamines
D) proteins
Q2) Which of the following shows the correct path a secreted protein takes in a eukaryotic cell?
A) Golgi complex,rough ER,vesicle,cell membrane
B) vesicle,rough ER,Golgi complex,cell membrane
C) rough ER,Golgi complex,vesicle,cell membrane
D) rough ER,Golgi complex,cell membrane,vesicle
Q3) Pili and stalks enable bacterial
A) adherence.
B) chemotaxis.
C) photosynthesis.
D) symport.
Q4) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
Q5) Describe the two types of energy cells used to move molecules across membranes against their concentration gradients.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) If an error occurred during the sporulation process and small acid-soluble proteins were not included in the spore,what would be the effect?
A) The spore would only exist for 100 years.
B) The spore will be more likely to germinate.
C) The spore will be less resistant to heat.
D) The spore will be less resistant to ultraviolet light.
Q2) What is the purpose of the palladium packet in the anaerobic jar?
A) to catalyze a reaction between H and residual O in the jar to remove all the O
B) to remove CO that can be converted to O
C) to provide O for aerobic respiration
D) to provide N for protein synthesis
Q3) Bacteria begin to participate in quorum sensing at which stage of growth?
A) late log phase
B) log phase
C) stationary phase
D) death phase
Q4) Most bacteria in nature grow at a very slow rate,a situation that can be mimicked using a ________.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the end of the TCA cycle most of the energy originally present in glucose is now found in
A) CO .
B) NADH.
C) NADPH.
D) ATP.
Q2) If in the ETS electrons are passed from a to b and finally accepted by c,the
A)a is a stronger electron acceptor than b.
B)a is a stronger electron acceptor than c.
C)a is a stronger electron donor than b.
D)c is a stronger electron donor than b.
Q3) Biosynthetic reactions are also known as ________ reactions.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT powered by the proton motive force in bacteria?
A) ATP synthase
B) DNA replication
C) drug efflux
D) flagella rotation
Q5) Why does sugar production from CO require NADPH in addition to ATP? In other words,why is ATP not sufficient?
Page 9
Q6) The ultimate goal of the Calvin cycle is to produce ________.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most likely a signature of an operon?
A) large distances between consecutive coding regions and functional association of the gene products
B) large distances between consecutive coding regions and gene products involved in different pathways
C) short distances between consecutive coding regions and gene products involved in different pathways
D) short distances between consecutive coding regions and functional association of gene products
Q2) An antibiotic that inhibits peptidyl transferase activity likely binds to A) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
B) mRNA.
C) a 30S ribosome subunit.
D) a 50S ribosome subunit.
Q3) A mutation known as a pyrimidine dimer is usually caused by A) acridine orange.
B) DNA polymerase errors.
C) UV light.
D) X-rays.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an open reading frame?
A) DNA sequence long enough to encode an amino acid sequence of at least 50.
B) It begins with a translation start codon.
C) It ends with a translation termination codon.
D) It contains a promoter sequence.
Q2) Renaming Pasteurella pestis to Yersinia pestis alters the ________ of the organism.
A) classification
B) nomenclature
C) identification
D) homology
Q3) A ________ relationship develops between endosymbionts and their hosts.
Q4) Ancient ________ give evidence to the fact that all life originated from microorganisms.
Q5) Which of the following can be used to provide evidence of horizontal gene transfer?
A) comparison of GC content
B) protein sequence similarity
C) cell structure modification
D) plasmid curing
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) A bacterial disease previously known to only infect dogs begins to cause respiratory infections in humans who are in close contact with infected dogs.Which of the following explanations most likely explains the emergence of this new human pathogen?
A) The genome of the bacterium changed through horizontal gene transfer within the microbiota of the dog.
B) There was a mutation in the human genome that allowed the bacterium to attack human cells more vigorously.
C) The bacterium became infected by a mutation-inducing virus transmitted through flea bites on the dog.
D) The bacterium forms dormant endospores that remain in the environment even after the infected dogs are removed.
Q2) Describe the two developmental stages of the Chlamydias.
Q3) Which of the following species causes an illness that can be prevented by immunization?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Vibrio cholera
D) Helicobacter pylori
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) When comparing invertebrate parasites to "true" microbes,which of the following is found in invertebrate parasites only?
A) fully differentiated organ systems
B) cells with mitochondria
C) macroscopic forms
D) cells with nuclei
Q2) Why is it frequently more difficult to treat fungal infections in humans than it is to treat bacterial infections?
A) The cells found in fungi and humans are more similar than cells of bacteria and humans.
B) Humans have not developed medications capable of targeting fungi.
C) Fungi normally grow in and on humans,and treating fungal infections would cause death of the human.
D) Fungi undergo evolution at a much faster rate than bacteria do.
Q3) On an evolutionary timeline,which of the following organisms appeared first?
A) cyanobacteria
B) proto-algae
C) algae
D) plants
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following could possibly be an ancestor of the large asymmetrical DNA Vaccinia virus?
A) a degenerate single-celled organism
B) a bacteriophage
C) influenza
D) a cow
Q2) Which of the following viruses is capable of causing a syncytium?
A) hepatitis
B) influenza
C) HPV
D) HIV
Q3) Explain how antigenic drift requires individuals to get a flu vaccine yearly.
Q4) ________ proteins are expressed during viral infection of a host cell and are packaged between the envelope and the capsid during envelope formation.
Q5) ________ is an example of a virus with a large double-stranded DNA viral genome.
Q6) You are attempting to propagate bacteriophage of Bacillus cereus using a liquid batch culture.A growing culture of B.cereus is inoculated with your bacteriophage.Immediately after inoculation,you take a sample but are unable to detect any bacteriophage.What is happening?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) Aminoglycosides inhibit translation by binding to the ________.
Q2) Describe how the antibiotic resistance mechanism using drug efflux pumps works.How could the medical community respond to this resistance mechanism to overcome it?
Q3) Explain why norovirus and the prion that causes bovine spongiform encephalopathy are not susceptible to irradiation of food.
Q4) Wescodyne and betadine are examples of ________ complexed with organic carriers.
Q5) Which of the following disinfectants has a high CDC level of activity?
A) hydrogen peroxide
B) quarternary ammonium compounds
C) phenol
D) chlorine gas
Q6) The presence of ________,such as blood,can require longer exposure times to a chemical in order to achieve true disinfection.
Q7) ________ is the process of heating foods to a moderately high temperature long enough to kill most heat-resistant,non-spore-forming pathogens known.
Q8) Explain why antifungal agents are less selectively toxic than antibacterial agents.
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is wrong with the situation described below?
After vaginal delivery,a gnotobiotic mouse was moved to an axenic environment.
Q2) Why do the residents of our normal microbiota not regularly invade other tissues of the body?
A) They are inhibited by pathogens.
B) They have not evolved the ability.
C) They are not able to survive in other tissues.
D) Our normal microbiota does regularly invade other tissues of the body.
Q3) What would be the expected aerobe to anaerobe ratio of the belly button?
A) 10:1
B) 1:10
C) 1:100
D) 1:1000
Q4) Production of indole by E.coli tells host intestinal epithelial cells to tighten tight junctions and increase production of ________.
Q5) Fecal transplants can be used to treat ulcerative colitis caused by ________.
Q6) Give three reasons for why the microbiome should be considered an independent organ system.
Page 16
Q7) Probiotics have been used in baby chicks to prevent colonization by ________.
Q8) Describe the positive and negative side of enterotoxins.
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Macrophages interact with inhibitory glycoproteins to recognize self.
B) Phagocytosis is a specific immune response.
C) Opsonization prevents phagocytosis.
D) Capsules enhance phagocytosis.
Q2) Penicillin interferes with bacterial cell walls.Which of the following interferes with the bacterial cell wall inside the phagolysosome?
A) lactoferrin
B) defensins
C) lysozyme
D) oxygen radicals
Q3) Explain how each of the following avoids being killed by phagocyte:
a.Shigella dysenteriae
b.Salmonella typhimurium
c.Listeria monocytogenes
Q4) A clinical that counts the total number of white blood cells and identifies their various cell types is called a ________.
Q5) Movement of neutrophils out of blood vessels and into infected tissue is called
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following would most directly eliminate an intracellular pathogen such as a virus?
A) production of antibody
B) activation of B cells
C) activation of cytotoxic T cells
D) activation of helper T cells
Q2) Helper T cells display the surface antigen ________.
Q3) Why does B-cell proliferation and differentiation often require assistance from helper T cells?
A) Capping does not occur unless epitopes are found in multiple copies.
B) B cells require antigen presentation by helper T cells.
C) Microbes often destroy B-cell receptors and then B cells require help from T cells.
D) Helper T cells are required to move epitopes closer together for capping by B cells.
Q4) A two-month-old baby is found to lack class I MHC molecules.How would this defect impact an adaptive immune response?
Q5) Describe the two-step molecular process required to activate T<sub>H</sub>0 cells.
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19
Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) All of the following pertain to serology EXCEPT that they
A) can detect antibodies.
B) cannot detect antigens.
C) can be used to diagnose various diseases.
D) can reveal the contents of serum.
Q2) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(n)
A) B cell with a T cell.
B) B cell with a myeloma cell.
C) antigen with an antibody.
D) antigen with a B cell.
Q3) Patients with ________ have normal or elevated serum IgM levels but low levels of other antibodies.
Q4) Which of the following is a symptom of systemic anaphylaxis?
A) sneezing
B) watery,itchy eyes
C) rhinitis
D) edema
Q5) The process that detects and eliminates cancer cells as they arise is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Most pathogenicity island genes were acquired by ________ transmission.
Q2) In viruses such as influenza,the ability to undergo a major genetic alteration is called
A) antigenic drift.
B) antigenic shift.
C) antigenic variation.
D) antigenic binding.
Q3) Protozoans use all the following mechanisms to avoid the host immune system EXCEPT
A) antigenic variation.
B) toxin production.
C) antigenic masking.
D) intracellular location.
Q4) The purpose of the Tat protein in an HIV infection is to A) down regulate CD4 and MHC class 1 expression.
B) inhibit virus assembly.
C) accelerate HIV transcription by the host cell.
D) protect the cell from being killed by CD8 cytotoxic cells.
Q5) Organisms that can survive inside or outside host cells are called ________ pathogens.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) Compare and contrast the virulence factors associated with Staphylococcus and Streptococcus.Which of these agents is the most difficult to treat? Explain your answer.
Q2) Explain the cycle of acne.What is the causative agent and why are some individuals more prone to acne than others?
Q3) A patient is brought to the hospital suffering with a MRSA infection.Which of the following is the best treatment option?
A) acyclovir
B) penicillin
C) methicillin
D) vancomycin
Q4) Keratitis is inflammation of the A) lens.
B) retina.
C) cornea.
D) sclera.
Q5) A skin rash accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever,malaise,and headache is referred to as ________,while skin rashes on the mucous membranes are called ________.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Some strains of the bacteria Haemophilus influenzae produce beta-lactamase enzyme that
A) confers antibiotic resistance to the bacteria. B) allows attachment of the bacteria to cilia on host cells.
C) prevents immunity from forming in the host.
D) prevents lysosomes from fusing to phagosomes.
Q2) CASE HISTORY
Chloe is a generally healthy two-year-old child who was brought to the clinic by her father.The child had had a fever since the previous night,was irritable,and kept pulling on her left ear.Chloe had also had a runny nose for the previous two weeks.Her temperature was 38.5° C (101.3° F)at the clinic,and the physical exam showed a red and swollen ear,an erythematous ear canal,and a bulging tympanic membrane.Chloe was diagnosed with acute otitis media and prescribed an antibiotic that she had to take for seven days. If a complete blood count (CBC)was performed on Chloe as a part of her diagnosis,what clues would you expect to see supporting the nature of her infection?
Q3) The lowest structure in the respiratory tract,used to produce sounds,is called the ________.
Q4) Moraxella catarrhalis may cause bacterial ________.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) Inflammation of the sac covering the heart is defined as ________.
Q2) Sand flies carry a motile form of a A) promastigote.
B) merozoite.
C) bradyzoite.
D) asmastigote.
Q3) The herpes virus that initially infects the oropharyngeal epithelium,tonsils,and salivary glands,and is associated with endemic Burkitt's lymphoma,is known as ________.
Q4) Pulmonary arteries carry
A) oxygenated blood toward the heart.
B) deoxygenated blood toward the heart.
C) oxygenated blood toward the lungs.
D) deoxygenated blood toward the lungs.
Q5) Bacterial endocarditis affects the
A) thinner lining of the heart.
B) muscle of the heart.
C) sac surrounding the heart.
D) lining of blood vessels exiting the heart.
Q6) The large vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called ________.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) What would be the expected result on the body if the pathogenicity island of Clostridium difficile were removed?
A) an increase in production of TNF-a
B) a decrease in production of TNF-a
C) an increased ability to detect the toxin in a fecal sample
D) an increased ability to identify the organism by PCR
Q2) The most common sign of a gastrointestinal infection is ________,having three or more loose stools per day.
Q3) ________ results when intestinal mucosal cells increase ion secretion.
Q4) If humans began engaging in regular cannibalism,which of the following might become more prevalent?
A) Trichinella
B) Stongyloides
C) Necator
D) Ascarsis
Q5) The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is
A) E.coli.
B) Shigella.
C) Campylobacter.
D) Salmonella.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) The urinary tract is composed of all of the following EXCEPT the A) vagina.
B) kidneys.
C) bladder.
D) urethra.
Q2) Which of the following is considered to be part of the upper urinary system?
A) urinary bladder
B) vagina
C) ureters
D) urethra
Q3) Which of the following is part of the internal male reproductive system?
A) penis
B) scrotum
C) testes
D) vas deferens
Q4) Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia?
A) bacterial vaginosis
B) genital herpes
C) candidiasis
D) lymphogranuloma venereum
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) All of the following are caused by prions EXCEPT
A) sheep scrapie.
B) kuru.
C) rabies.
D) bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
Q2) What is the correct order of the meninges from most outer to inner structures?
A) pia mater,dura mater,arachnoid
B) pia mater,arachnoid,dura mater
C) dura mater,arachnoid,pia mater
D) dura mater,pia mater,arachnoid
Q3) Explain the transmission,etiologies,and diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Q4) Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE?
A) It is caused by lyssavirus.
B) Rabies virus is a neurotropic virus.
C) Hydrophobia is associated with the disease.
D) There are three basic forms: encephalitic,paralytic,and atypical.
Q5) The ________ collects data from the outside environment and communicates that information to the ________.
Q6) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
Q7) A small proteinaceous infectious particle is known as a ________.
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) How does identifying the cause of an infectious disease help prevent the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria?
A) Knowing the identity and properties of the causative agent allows targeting with an appropriate drug.
B) Treating bacterial infections with multiple antibiotics helps prevent the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
C) Knowing the identity and properties of the causative agent allows a physician to empirically treat an infection.
D) Treating viral infections with multiple antibiotics helps prevent secondary infections caused by antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
Q2) A patient with a suspected Clostridium difficile infection is tested using a point-of-care (POC)rapid diagnostic test.List two disadvantages of using a POC rapid test to identify this disease.
Q3) A point-of-care (POC)assay that fails to identify 50% of individuals with a disease has low ________.
Q4) Body sites that contain no microorganisms are considered to be ________.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Charlotte touches a doorknob after an individual with MRSA touched the doorknob.Immediately after touching the knob,Charlotte scratches her leg and transmits some MRSA cells into a small wound.The doorknob is functioning as a(n)
A) etiologic agent.
B) reservoir.
C) mode of transmission.
D) host.
Q2) Fifteen individuals within one province in China are diagnosed with SARS.Epidemiologists will most likely A) quarantine the entire province immediately.
B) contact the CDC in the United States to see if any cases were reported in the United States.
C) wait to see if more cases of SARS are reported.
D) try to identify the index case.
Q3) Explain why it is important to recognize "patient zero" during an epidemic of a disease such as severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
Q4) A disease transmitted from animals to humans is called a _______ disease.
Q5) Explain the relationship between the terms endemic,epidemic,and pandemic.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A grocery store chain wants to respond to consumer demands to reduce the use of Styrofoam trays and plastic wrap used in vacuum-packed food packages.In which of the following foods will food quality be most affected by a reduction in the use of vacuum packages?
A) ground beef
B) pork chops
C) cheese
D) fresh herbs
Q2) Using organisms such as bacteria to neutralize pollutants from a contaminated site is referred to as ________.
Q3) Historically,there has been concern about the ingestion of nitrite used as a food preservative.Why does nitrite work well as a food preservative?
A) Nitrites are used to inhibit aerobic respiration of bacteria.
B) Nitrites increase carbon dioxide levels.
C) Nitrites have antimicrobial properties.
D) Nitrites cross cell membranes and release protons intracellularly.
Q4) Describe the carbon reservoir that cycles the most carbon through living bodies on Earth.
Q5) Describe how bacteria such as Lactobacillus species are used to produce yogurt.
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