Microbiology is the scientific study of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa and their interactions with humans, animals, plants, and the environment. This course covers the fundamental principles of microbial structure, physiology, genetics, metabolism, and ecology, as well as methods of cultivation and identification. It also explores the roles of microbes in health and disease, biotechnology, industry, and the environment, emphasizing topics such as infectious diseases, antibiotic resistance, sterilization techniques, and the human microbiome. Through laboratory experiments and case studies, students gain practical skills in aseptic technique, microscopy, culturing, and microbial analysis, preparing them for further studies or careers in health sciences, research, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 4th Edition by Marjorie Kelly
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a recent discovery that has had a huge impact on the understanding of microbiology?
A)Restriction enzymes
B)PCR technique
C)Biofilms
D)Small RNAs
E)All are significant discoveries. Refer to Section 1.6 The Historical Foundations of Microbiology and read about the recent discoveries that have had a huge impact on the understanding of microbiology.
Answer: E
Q2) The first prokaryotes appeared about ___ billion years ago.
A)5
B)4.5
C)3.5
D)2
E)1
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Q1) Characteristics shared by all cells include
A)a membrane serving as a cell boundary.
B)the possession of genetic information.
C)the presence of cellular fluid.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) Anything that occupies space and has mass is called
A)atomic.
B)living.
C)matter.
D)energy.
E)space.
Answer: C
Q3) Polar molecules
A)have an equal charge distribution.
B)have an unequal charge distribution.
C)are insoluble in water.
D)always contain carbon.
E)always involve oxygen.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Q1) The bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes the sexually-transmitted infection gonorrhea.Although it can be isolated from the vagina,there are numerous normal biota in that location as well.In order to culture this pathogenic bacterium,one should use:
A)enrichment media.
B)selective media.
C)refrigeration temperature for incubation.
D)liquid media.
Answer: B
Q2) The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is
A)colony.
B)inoculum.
C)streak.
D)loop.
Answer: B
Q3) The procedures for culturing a microorganism require the use of a microscope.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Prokaryotic Profiles: The Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body,germinate,and cause an infectious disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The short,numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called
A)flagella.
B)cilia.
C)fimbriae.
D)periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
E)sex pili.
Q3) At present,the most accurate indicator of evolutionary relatedness among organisms is to determine the
A)size of the periplasmic space.
B)similarities of cell membrane proteins.
C)size of the bacterial chromosome.
D)nitrogen base sequence of rRNA.
E)size of the ribosomes.
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6
Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Q1) The endosymbiotic theory has been developed to explain the emergence of A)archaea.
B)bacteria.
C)prokaryotes.
D)eukaryotes.
E)viruses.
Q2) The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eukaryotic cells acquired flagella by endosymbiosis with a/n _____ ancestor and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a/n _____ ancestor.
A)protozoan,algae
B)archaea,cyanobacteria
C)spirochete,cyanobacteria
D)helminth,algae
Q3) The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Plankton are floating communities of helminths.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Q1) Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The core of every virus particle always contains A)DNA.
B)capsomeres.
C)enzymes.
D)DNA and RNA.
E)either DNA or RNA.
Q3) A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called _____ cultures.
A)embryo
B)cell
C)plaque
D)bacteriophage
E)egg
Q4) Viruses are used to produce vaccines for prevention of certain viral infections. A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Q1) A change in one partner,in a close relationship,that leads to a change in the other partner is A)symbiosis. B)coevolution.
C)antibiosis.
D)mutualism. E)synergism.
Q2) All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except A)psychrophiles.
B)anaerobes.
C)facultative anaerobes.
D)mesophiles.
E)capnophiles.
Q3) A halophile would grow best in A)acid pools.
B)fresh water ponds.
C)hot geyser springs.
D)arid,desert soil.
E)salt lakes.
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Q1) Enzymes that catalyze the removal of electrons from one substrate and the addition of electrons to another are called A)transferases.
B)oxidoreductases. C)lyases.
D)isomerases. E)ligases.
Q2) Enzymes that catalyze the removal of a a functional group and its subsequent attachment to a new substrate are called: A)transferases.
B)oxidoreductases. C)isomerases. D)lyases.
E)ligases.
Q3) Fermentation
A)requires an organic electron acceptor.
B)requires oxygen.
C)only occurs in aerobic organisms.
D)is equivalent to aerobic respiration in ATP production.
E)is the same as anaerobic respiration.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called
A)ribosomal RNA.
B)messenger RNA.
C)transfer RNA.
D)primer RNA.
E)ribozymes.
Q2) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of mutation alters the base but not the amino acid being coded for?
A)silent
B)back
C)point
D)nonsense
E)missense
Q4) The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Q1) Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?
A)add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C
B)cool DNA to between 50<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C and 65<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C
C)add primers
D)heat target DNA to 94<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C
E)repeat the cycle of heating and cooling
Q2) The first genetically engineered protein approved for human use was
A)human growth hormone.
B)hemophilia factor VIII.
C)human testosterone.
D)human insulin.
E)human adrenaline.
Q3) EcoRI and HindIII are A)palindromes.
B)reverse transcriptases.
C)restriction endonucleases.
D)ligases.
E)DNA polymerases.
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12
Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are
A)naked viruses.
B)vegetative bacteria and fungi.
C)endospores.
D)protozoan cysts.
E)mycobacteria and staphylococci.
Q2) Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is
A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)sanitization.
D)degermation.
Q3) _____ solution was introduced in the late 19th century for preventing gonococcal infections in a newborn's eyes after exposure to the mother's infected birth canal.
A)Merthiolate
B)Triclosan
C)Betadine
D)Silver nitrate
E)Zinc oxide
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, host-The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Q1) The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes function by A)bacterial chromosomal mutations.
B)synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.
C)removing the drug from the cell when it enters.
Q2) The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobial required to inhibit the growth of the microbe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B,then pathogen A will have a/n _____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.
A)smaller
B)equal
C)larger
Q4) Which antimicrobial does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A)gentamicin
B)vancomycin
C)cephalosporins
D)penicillins
E)carbapenems
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Q1) _____ are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.
A)Coagulases
B)Mucinases
C)Keratinases
D)Kinases
E)Hyaluronidases
Q2) Under certain circumstances,a person's resident biota can act as opportunistic pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The suffix -itis means A)blood.
B)a disease or morbid process.
C)an inflammation.
D)tumor.
E)pertaining to.
Q4) Latency is a dormant state of an infectious agent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Q1) The granules of eosinophils contain A)antibodies.
B)antigens.
C)serotonin.
D)histamine.
E)peroxidase.
Q2) The granules of neutrophils contain A)antibodies.
B)antigens.
C)digestive enzymes.
D)histamine.
E)peroxidase.
Q3) The term _____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response.
A)antibody
B)allergen
C)antigen
D)foreign body
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Edward Jenner's work involved
A)inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
B)development of passive immunotherapy.
C)development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
D)immunization using a related,less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
Q2) Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions
A)are the result of genetic expression.
B)function in recognition of self molecules.
C)receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system.
D)aid in cellular development.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) During presentation of APC-bound antigen,macrophages and dendritic cells secrete the cytokine _____,which activates T helper cells.
A)interferon
B)interleukin-1
C)interleukin-2
D)histamine
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Q1) A viral infection can lead to the development of type I diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Predict why insect stings and medication injections more often provoke anaphylactic shock,as compared to other allergens found in food or in air.
A)The allergens go directly into the blood in large amounts,compared to allergens entering the digestive tract or respiratory tract.
B)Chemicals from insects cause a combination of antibody types to be produced,resulting in much larger amounts of total antibody.
C)Chemicals injected as medications cause problems in immune response,resulting in a reduced immune coverage.
D)Histamine is overproduced as a result of injected chemicals.
Q3) Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen?
A)ingestant
B)inhalant
C)injectant
D)contactant
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18
Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Antibiotics are often added to biochemical media to restrict the growth to only those organisms that are being looked for in the specimens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Specimen collection
A)is always done by a medical professional.
B)must be done under sterile conditions.
C)must utilize aseptic techniques.
D)does not require special handling.
Q3) The polymerase chain reaction requires endonuclease to cut samples of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The direct ELISA test is used to diagnose all of the following except A)hantavirus.
B)rubella virus.
C)past exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D)Toxoplasma.
Q5) The tuberculin test is an example of an in vitro serological test.
A)True
B)False
19
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of cellulitis?
A)caused by S.aureus or S.pyogenes
B)occurs in the epidermis
C)causes pain,tenderness,swelling,and warmth
D)lymphangitis may occur
E)treated with cephalexin
Q2) Which of the following is not true of Propionibacterium acnes?
A)anaerobic or aerotolerant
B)gram-negative rod
C)releases lipase
D)attracts white blood cells
E)present in hair follicles
Q3) Which of the following is not a causative agent of cutaneous mycoses?
A)Malassezia furfur
B)Trichophyton
C)Microsporum
D)Epidermophyton
Q4) All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Q1) The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is
A)Streptococcus agalactiae.
B)Escherichia coli K1.
C)Listeria monocytogenes.
D)Haemophilus influenzae.
E)Neisseria meningitidis.
Q2) What do all of these diseases---amoebic encephalitis,rabies,Creutzfeld-Jacob disease--all have in common?
A)They are all caused by protozoan agents.
B)Mortaility rates are all extremely high.
C)They are all transmitted through animal bites.
D)There is a genetic component to all of these diseases,in addition to the infectious agent.
Q3) All of the following are true for Listeria monocytogenes except
A)resistant to cold.
B)fastidious.
C)resistant to heat.
D)resistant to salt.
E)can result in septicemia.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) The cyclic bouts of fever and chills in malaria are caused by A)liver cell lysis.
B)white blood cell lysis.
C)red blood cell lysis.
D)neurological involvement.
Q2) A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is A)leukemia.
B)Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C)Kaposi's sarcoma.
D)melanoma.
E)myeloma.
Q3) Which is not a characteristic of tularemia?
A)a zoonosis
B)transmission by arthropod vectors
C)a gram-positive bacterium
D)symptoms include fever,swollen lymph nodes,ulcerative lesions,conjunctivitis,and pneumonia
E)sometimes called rabbit fever
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Q1) People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following except A)the elderly.
B)those with underlying lung disease and viral infections.
C)patients without a spleen.
D)adolescents and young adults.
E)young infants.
Q2) Superantigens
A)include streptolysin O.
B)include erythrogenic toxin.
C)induce production of tumor necrosis factor.
D)are potent stimulators of T cells.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Pertussis has all of the following characteristics except
A)the pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia.
B)the catarrhal stage has persistent,hacking coughs with "whoops."
C)the early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing.
D)DTaP immunization will prevent it.
E)transmission is by respiratory droplets.
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Q1) Giardiasis involves
A)a protozoan that does not form cysts.
B)infection of the large intestine.
C)symptoms of abdominal pain,flatulence,and diarrhea.
D)vector transmission.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The primary viral cause of chronic diarrhea globally is
A)Cryptosporidium.
B)rotavirus.
C)adenovirus.
D)norovirus.
E)astrovirus.
Q3) Which of the following helminths is paired with a correct characteristic of its pathogenesis?
A)Ascaris lumbricoides - enters through the skin
B)Necator americanus - eggs are ingested
C)Enterobius vermicularis - sexual transmission
D)Taenia solium - eggs or larvae can be ingested
E)Schistomoma species - carried by an insect vector into human
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Treponema pallidum
A)has humans as the reservoir.
B)can cross the placenta.
C)has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium.
D)is transmitted by direct sexual contact.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by direct sexual activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is
A)gonorrhea.
B)chlamydia.
C)genital herpes.
D)syphilis.
E)HIV.
Q4) The key characteristic of the herpes family of viruses is:
A)their ability to transform normal cells into cancer cells.
B)the ability to stay in host cells without producing symptoms.
C)its ability to cause organ death.
D)its propensity to destroy bone marrow.
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) You hare preparing a home garden and you want to provide the very best environment for your plants.Which of the following would you add to the potting soil while planting your garden plants?
A)mycorrhizae inoculant
B)sulfur oxidizers
C)coliform bacteria like
D)bacteriophages
E)coli
Q2) The thermocline is broken down by temperature changes that allow upwelling to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which organism is a nitrogen fixing symbiont of legumes?
A)Rhizobium
B)Nitrobacter
C)Pseudomonas
D)Nostoc
E)Azotobacter
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) The difference between water purification and sewage treatment is:
A)the types of microorganisms used for the treatment.
B)the amount of air pumped into the water for treatment.
C)whether the water comes out of peoples' house or not.
D)there is microbial degradation in sewage treatment,but not at all in water purification.
Q2) Sewage treatment processes result in the production of _________,which can then be used to make electricity.
A)carbohydrates
B)hydrogen gas
C)methane
D)nitrates
Q3) Which is not used as a chemical preservative in food?
A)antibiotics
B)organic acids
C)sulfite
D)ethylene oxide gas
E)salt
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