Microbial Physiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Microbial Physiology explores the functional processes of microorganisms at the cellular and molecular levels, focusing on the mechanisms behind nutrient uptake, metabolism, growth, and environmental adaptation. The course covers topics such as energy production, biosynthetic pathways, regulation of gene expression, and the unique physiological strategies employed by bacteria, archaea, and fungi. Through lectures and experimental studies, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how microbes interact with their surroundings, respond to stress, and contribute to global biogeochemical cycles, as well as their significance in biotechnology, medicine, and ecology.
Recommended Textbook
Brock Biology of Microorganisms 14th Edition by Michael T. Madigan
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Chapter 1: Microorganisms and Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some microorganisms can undergo ________ in which various cell types can become specialized and arise from one parent cell type.
A)differentiation
B)genetic exchange
C)maturation
D)mutagensis
Answer: A
Q2) Major classes of macromolecules present in all living microorganisms include
A)amino acids,carbohydrates,lipids,and nucleic acids.
B)cell wall,cytoplasmic membrane,nucleoid,and ribosomes.
C)genes,proteins,and vitamins.
D)inorganic and organic compounds.
Answer: A
Q3) List three contributions of Ferdinand Cohn to the development of microbiology.
Answer: Answers could possibly include: founding bacteriology as a separate science,studying Beggiatoa,discovering the genus Bacillus (along with its endospore formation and its life cycle),and devising methods to prevent contamination.
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Chapter 2: Microbial Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Explain why prokaryotes tend to survive and adapt more rapidly to extreme and dynamic environmental conditions than eukaryotes.
Answer: Answers will vary,but should reflect an understanding of how the higher surface-to-volume ratio influences the growth rate and total accumulation of mutations in prokaryotes.Another feature that increases mutation rate is the haploid nature of prokaryotes.Lastly,answers could mention that the rigid cell walls and various changes in the cytoplasmic membrane make it easier for prokaryotes to survive in unusual and extreme environments.
Q2) Small acid-soluble proteins (SASPs)protect DNA from ultraviolet light and are found in high numbers within A)gram-positive Bacteria. B)endospores.
C)inclusion bodies.
D)gram-negative Bacteria.
Answer: B
Q3) In general,lipids in archaeal cytoplasmic membranes lack true fatty acids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intermediate compound(s)in the citric acid cycle is/are often used for biosynthetic pathways as well as carbon catabolism?
A) -ketoglutarate
B)oxaloacetate
C)succinyl-CoA
D) -ketoglutarate,oxaloacetate,and succinyl-CoA
Answer: D
Q2) Each amino acid made during protein biosynthesis first requires a separate biosynthetic pathway to be invoked by a cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which element functions BOTH as an enzyme cofactor and as a stabilizer of ribosomes and nucleic acids?
A)iron
B)hydrogen
C)zinc
D)magnesium
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasmids often encode for proteins
A)involved in translation.
B)required for cellular growth.
C)that confer resistance to antibiotics.
D)involved in DNA replication.
Q2) How are plasmids different than chromosomes?
A)Plasmids are always small,linear pieces of DNA.
B)Plasmids are composed of single-stranded DNA.
C)Plasmids contain genes that are NOT essential for cellular growth and replication.
D)Plasmids carry unimportant genes that are of little significance for the ecology and metabolism of an organism.
Q3) The Tat system is involved in
A)protein synthesis.
B)transcriptional initiation.
C)protein folding.
D)protein secretion.
Q4) Is the following statement TRUE or FALSE? Explain why you think so. "Proteins are the only biomolecules capable of catalyzing bond formation."
Q5) Explain the function of the helicases and why they are necessary.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Control
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Q1) A drug targeting ________ would NOT be an effective antibiotic.
A)ZipA
B)FtsI
C)MreB
D)transpeptidation
Q2) Sterility of a laminar flow hood is accomplished by filter-sterilized air passed through the hood quickly enough that non-sterile air does not flow into the work area.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An agar plate for counting colonies and maximizing statistical validity should ideally contain
A)1 to 100 colonies.
B)50 to 100 colonies.
C)30 to 300 colonies.
D)100 to 1000 colonies.
Q4) Would you expect a xerophilic organism to be halotolerant? Why or why not?
Q5) Explain our present understanding of molecular adaptations to the cytoplasmic membrane that are present in psychrophiles.
Q6) Explain why a hyperthermophile is unlikely to be a human pathogen.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A computer program recognizes an ORF by looking for ribosomal binding sites,start codons,and stop codons with an appropriate number of nucleotides between each element.What is a drawback of this approach?
A)Too many ORFS are identified,most of which are stretches on non-coding junk DNA.
B)Codon bias causes incorrect annotations.
C)Unusual,but legitimate genes and non-coding RNA may be missed.
D)We lack the computing power to complete the analyses in a timely manner,thus many genomes are only partially annotated.
Q2) Microorganisms that grow in extreme environments typically contain larger genomes when compared to microbes that grow in non-extreme environments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The entire complement of RNA produced under a given set of conditions is called a(n)
A)array.
B)genome.
C)proteome.
D)transcriptome.
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Chapter 7: Metabolic Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once the regulatory proteins and effector molecules are made,the actual mechanisms for regulation rarely require net energy input.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Attenuation is a type of regulation that can control
A)allosteric enzyme activity.
B)transcriptional activity exclusively.
C)translational activity exclusively.
D)both transcriptional and translational activity.
Q3) Which of the following mechanisms leads to INCREASED transcriptional activity?
A)An sRNA binds to the ribosome binding site.
B)Ribonuclease activity is blocked by sRNA complementary binding to the end of a transcript.
C)The ribosome binding site is made available from sRNA binding to part of it.
D)Recruitment of RNA polymerase is enhanced when sRNA binds to and removes a repressor.
Q4) Short regions at the beginning and end of gene sequences are not translated into proteins.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viruses and Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A temperate virus does not exist as a virus particle inside the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ALL viral particles
A)are metabolically inert.
B)are smaller than bacterial cells.
C)contain an envelope to prevent its degradation outside of a host.
D)exhibit cell lysis under a particular condition.
Q3) Enveloped viral membranes are generally ________ with associated virus-specific
A)lipid bilayers / phospholipids
B)protein bilayers / lipids
C)lipid bilayers / glycoproteins
D)glycolipid bilayers / phospholipids
Q4) In a natural population of diverse slow-growing prokaryotic cells,what type of viruses would you expect to be most common?
A)lytic bacteriophages
B)enveloped viruses
C)icosahedral viruses
D)temperate bacteriophages
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Viral Genomes and Diversity
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Q1) Which feature,if changed,would NOT abolish M13's utility as a cloning vector?
A)ssDNA genome becoming a dsDNA genome
B)loss of genes that make coat proteins
C)replacing the segment of non-coding DNA in its genome with an indispensible gene
D)switch from lysogenic to lytic lifestyle
Q2) Integration of Mu DNA into the host genome is essential for
A)lytic growth.
B)lysogenic growth.
C)both lytic and lysogenic growth.
D)neither lytic nor lysogenic growth.
Q3) Explain why the viral genome of the MS2 phage can be immediately translated.What type of genome must it have for this to be the case?
Q4) Blocking polyomavirus SV40's ability to integrate its genome into host cells would
A)avoid cancer development from the virus.
B)increase the rate of transformation.
C)increase the latent period of SV40.
D)switch SV40 into a lytic lifecycle which would be especially harmful to the host cells.
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Chapter 10: Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following proteins is NOT required for homologous recombination?
A)Hfr
B)RecA
C)proteins having helicase activity
D)endonuclease
Q2) High-efficiency natural transformation
A)is common in <i>Bacteria</i> and <i>Archaea</i>.
B)requires specialized DNA uptake,DNA binding,and integration proteins.
C)is only common in <i>Archaea</i>.
D)usually involves plasmids.
Q3) Discuss the importance of homologous recombination and transposition in natural horizontal gene transfer and evolution.Be sure to define all of the terms you use and connect them together logically in your answer.
Q4) When damaged or single-stranded DNA activates the RecA protein,the RecA protein stimulates the cleavage of LexA.This results in
A)repression of polymerase V and activation of endonuclease.
B)activation of the Hfr system.
C)derepression of the SOS system.
D)increased transduction and recombination.
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Chapter 11: Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Q1) Describe the usefulness of blue-white screening,also called -complementation,in cloning vectors such as pUC19.Include in your answer the terms polylinker,DNA ligase,lacZ gene,insertional inactivation,Xgal,and -galactosidase.
Q2) Compare how the process of cloning differs when a vector with sticky ends is used and when a vector with blunt ends is used.
Q3) Which of those below is NOT an important consideration when designing a fusion protein construct?
A)Avoid hybridization of the fusion gene in the artificial construct.
B)Reading frame is the same for both the fusion gene and reporter gene.
C)Transcriptional start and stop signals are shared.
D)Translational start and stop signals are shared.
Q4) Compare and contrast operon and protein fusions.
Q5) A(n)________ gene is a gene that encodes a protein that is easy to detect and assay.
A)encoder
B)translational
C)reporter
D)recorder
Q6) Describe the three main steps to clone a gene into an organism.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Microbial Evolution and Systematics
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Q1) The atmosphere of primitive Earth is usually classified as an oxidizing atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary domains were founded based on comparative ribosomal RNA gene sequencing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Draw a rooted phylogenetic tree containing seven organisms labeled A to G.Label your tree with the following terms: branches,extant taxa,nodes,last common ancestor,and an outgroup.
Q4) Oxygen was a driving factor in the formation of eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) DNA:DNA hybridization is a sensitive method for revealing subtle genetic differences because it measures the degree of sequence similarity between two genomes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How did cyanobacteria,oxygen,and ozone impact the evolution of eukaryotic cells?
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Chapter 13: Metabolic Diversity of Microorganisms
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Q1) The only organisms that perform photosynthesis are ones that produce some form of A)chlorophyll or bacteriochlorophyll. B)carotenoids.
C)phycoerythrin.
D)phycocyanin.
Q2) Bacteria that degrade aromatic compounds with reductions steps rather than oxygenase activity prior to ring fission are likely to be anaerobes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In most cases,the final product of sulfur oxidation is A)hydrogen sulfide.
B)elemental sulfur. C)sulfate.
D)thiosulfate.
Q4) Reaction centers ONLY indirectly receive photon energy via light-harvesting molecules.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 14: Functional Diversity of Bacteria
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Q1) Dissimilatory nitrate reduction results in the production of gaseous products,while assimilatory nitrate reduction results in the production of ammonia for biosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The vacuole of the giant sulfide-oxidizing bacterium Thiomargarita namibiensis contains ________ that is used to oxidize sulfide under ________ conditions.
A)nitrate / anoxic
B)sulfate / anoxic
C)oxygen / oxic
D)sulfur / anoxic
Q3) Bioluminescence is catalyzed by luciferase,which creates light by A)shunting electrons from FMNH to O ,which releases energy in the form of light. B)reversing photosynthesis.
C)hydrolyzing ATP.
D)reducing LuxR.
Q4) What is convergent evolution and how is it different from horizontal gene transfer?
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Chapter 15: Diversity of Bacteria
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Q1) Which of the following traits is NOT characteristic of Caulobacter?
A)abundant in aquatic habitats rich in nutrients
B)produces a cytoplasmic outgrowth (prostheca)
C)attaches to surfaces in nature
D)asymmetric cell division
Q2) Thermotoga are hyperthermophiles and appear relatively closely related to Archaea in comparison to other bacteria such as Salmonella.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many Listeria spp.grow well at cold temperatures,so although refrigeration is excellent at preventing growth of most other pathogens,it is not very useful at minimizing growth of contaminated foods.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Considering the evolution of Bacteria,the criteria used for taxonomy,and the genetic requirements for individual metabolic pathways,explain how it is unlikely to observe three genera of the same family where one genus has strict anaerobes that degrade only small aromatics,another genus degrades large molecular weight sugars aerobically,and a third is a photoautotroph.
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Chapter 16: Diversity of Archaea
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Q1) The topoisomerase ________ introduces positive supercoils in DNA,which stabilizes DNA and prevents the DNA helix from denaturing at high temperatures.
A)reverse ligase
B)ligase
C)DNA gyrase
D)reverse DNA gyrase
Q2) What characteristic do mycoplasmas (Bacteria)and Thermoplasma and Ferroplasma (Archaea)have in common?
A)contain plasmids
B)hyperthermophilic
C)lack cell walls
D)relatively large genomes from duplicated genes
Q3) Which of the following bioenergetic processes CANNOT occur in hyperthermophiles?
A)chemoorganotrophy
B)chemolithotrophy
C)photosynthesis
D)chemoorganotrophy,chemolithotrophy,and photosynthesis
Q4) Detail the mechanism by which halophilic Archaea obtain energy from light.
Q5) What makes the lifestyle and genome of Nanoarchaeum equitans unique?
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Chapter 17: Diversity of Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Q1) The earliest diverging lineage of fungi are the A)chytridiomycetes.
B)zygomycetes.
C)glomeromycetes.
D)ascomycetes.
Q2) The amoebozoa that are parasitic for humans are the A)gymnamoebas.
B)radiolarians.
C)entamoebas.
D)oomycetes.
Q3) Despite oomycetes being called "water molds," they are phylogenetically distant from most other fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The amoebozoa use what structures for movement and feeding?
A)threadlike pseudopodia
B)cilia
C)flagella
D)lobe-shaped pseudopodia
Q5) Compare and contrast the ectomycorrhizae and the endomycorrhizae.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Methods in Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Phylogenetic stains,such as those used in FISH,hybridize with A)ribosomal RNA.
B)mitochondrial DNA.
C)nuclear DNA.
D)RNA polymerase.
Q2) Which of the following hypotheses could be tested using microautoradiography fluorescence in situ hybridization (MAR-FISH)?
A)Bacteriorodopsin uses light energy to translocate protons.
B)Archaea are the main autotrophs in marine water samples taken 300m below the surface of the ocean.
C)The microbial community of agricultural soils is more phylogenetically diverse than the microbial community of native prairie soils.
D)The ammonia monooxygenase gene is present in members of the phylum Verrucomicrobium.
Q3) Winogradsky columns are used primarily for enrichment of
A)aerobic cultures,although occasionally anaerobes do appear.
B)anaerobic cultures,although occasionally aerobes do appear.
C)aerobes,anaerobes,and phototrophs.
D)phototrophs,although occasionally heterotrophs do appear.
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Chapter 19: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) Explain how both biochemical oxygen demand and chemical oxygen demand are measured.
Q2) Some nitrifying prokaryotes carry out metabolic cooperation by a process known as A)competition.
B)niche partitioning.
C)syntrophy.
D)antagonism.
Q3) Provide a reason for the ecological importance of pelagic Bacteria and Archaea.
Q4) What adaptation do organisms have that tolerate high pressures?
A)decreased cell size
B)decreased lipid content
C)increased ribosome size
D)increased unsaturated fatty acids
Q5) The chemical oxygen demand (COD)of a body of water is determined using a(n) A)microelectrode.
B)oxygenator.
C)spectrophotometer to determine the OD nm.
D)strong oxidizing agent.
Q6) Explain three reasons why bacteria form biofilms.
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Chapter 20: Nutrient Cycles
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Q1) Mercury can serve as a transcriptional activator in the regulation of certain genes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How are the Ca cycle and the C cycle linked in marine environments? How will increased carbon dioxide from anthropogenic activity affect the Ca and C cycling in marine environments?
Q3) When carbon is limiting in a system,sulfate reducers often predominate the system when sufficient sulfate ions are present for reduction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When dimethylsulfoniopropionate (DMSP)is aerobically degraded in a marine environment,which product is most often used to support growth?
A)acrylate
B)dimethyl disulfide
C)dimethyl sulfoxide
D)methanethiol
Q5) What are the similarities and differences between the Fe cycle and Ca cycle?
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Chapter 21: Microbiology of the Built Environment
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Q1) Which product of anoxic sewage treatment can be used to heat and power an entire water treatment facility?
A)CO
B)H
C)CH
D)O
Q2) For water to be considered safe to drink,it MUST be treated with four distinct methods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare the operation and function of a trickling filter system and activated sludge.
Q4) During secondary aerobic wastewater treatment,some of the activated sludge goes ________ while the rest goes ________.
A)back to the aerator / to the anoxic sludge digestor
B)back to the primary system / to the aerator
C)to the anoxic digestor / back to the primary system
D)back to the primary system / to the tertiary digestor
Q5) Trace the flow of raw water through a typical drinking water purification scheme.
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Chapter 22: Microbial Symbioses
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Q1) How do arbuscular mycorrhizae (AM)help plants obtain more nutrients from the soil?
A)Byproducts of AM metabolism serve as primary nutrient sources for the plants.
B)The AM increase the total surface area to absorb more nutrients.
C)The hyphae develop as specialized nodules that directly produce nutrients for the plant.
D)Signaling molecules in the plant are passed to the AM to initiate electron flow,which is in turn used to create ATP.
Q2) The function of leghemoglobin in root nodules is to A)bind oxygen.
B)chelate iron.
C)produce iron.
D)produce nitrogen.
Q3) The bacterium Escherichia coli comprises a significant fraction of the bacterial population in healthy adult humans,ranging from 10-50%.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how leeches are used today in medical replants and transplants.
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Chapter 23: Microbial Interactions With Humans
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Q1) An opportunistic pathogen causes disease ONLY in the presence of normal host resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pathogen virulence NEVER changes throughout a host's life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) R plasmids help prevent the spread of virulence factors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Staphylococcus aureus produces ________,leading to fibrin clots that protect them from attack by host cells.
A)collagenase
B)coagulase
C)lipase
D)amylase
Q5) Streptococcus mutans can produce dextran when sucrose is present in the absence of the enzyme dextransucrase.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Immunity and Host Defense
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Q1) Superantigens produce a harmful immune response because
A)they activate too many T cells,causing excessive inflammation and cell damage.
B)they initiate a type I allergic response resulting in excessive inflammation.
C)too many phagocytes are activated and destroy host tissue.
D)a strong immune response is necessary to protect the host from the pathogen.
Q2) What is tolerance,and why must the adaptive immune system exhibit tolerance?
Q3) What are the primary chemical mediators released from mast cells during a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A)antibodies
B)interleukin I and tumor necrosis factor
C)histamine and serotonin
D)cytokines
Q4) New vaccine strategies resulting from progress in biochemistry and molecular biology include the production of
A)DNA vaccines.
B)recombinant vector vaccines.
C)synthetic peptide vaccines.
D)DNA,recombinant vector,and synthetic peptide vaccines.
Q5) How do phagocytes interact speedily and effectively with pathogens?
Q6) Compare and contrast the origin and roles of B cells and T cells.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Immune Mechanisms
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Q1) T cells recognize antigens with their A)antibodies.
B)leukocidins.
C)M proteins.
D)T cell receptors.
Q2) How is immune memory beneficial to a host organism?
Q3) The first cell type active in the innate response is usually a(n) A)phagocyte.
B)erythrocyte.
C)fibroblast.
D)antibody.
Q4) What are the major antigenic barriers for tissue transplantation from one individual to another?
Q5) The most common circulating antibody,comprising about 80% of the serum immunoglobin,is
A)IgA.
B)IgC.
C)IgD.
D)IgG.
Q6) Briefly describe how B cells are activated.
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Chapter 26: Molecular Immunology
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Q1) Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)are found on which of the following cells?
A)macrophages
B)bacteria
C)neutrophils
D)macrophages and neutrophils
Q2) All TLR can react with only one specific PAMP.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The PAMP recognized by mannose-binding lectin (MBL)is the sugar mannose,found as a repeating subunit in A)human mucus.
B)lymphocyte receptors.
C)bacterial and fungal polysaccharides.
D)bacterial peptidoglycan.
Q4) Antigen receptors can directly connect to signal transduction pathways because immunoglobulins and TCRs have very small cytoplasmic domains.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is the secondary immune response stronger in regard to antibodies?
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Chapter 27: Diagnostic Microbiology
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Q1) Which type of medium typically contains an indicator dye?
A)selective but not differential
B)differential but not selective
C)both selective and differential
D)neither selective nor differential
Q2) Latex bead agglutination tests are
A)rapid and reliable tests used for the detection of certain bacteria as well as certain serum antibodies.
B)inferior tests used in developing countries not having facilities for more reliable assays.
C)an integral part of the EIA test procedure.
D)too expensive for routine use.
Q3) SYBR Green,commonly used in qPCR,binds nonspecifically to
A)ssDNA
B)dsDNA
C)ssRNA
D)dsRNA
Q4) Nucleic acid probes are NOT suitable for the detection of viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How might climate change impact the incidence of a disease? Use a specific example to illustrate your answer.
Q2) When the life cycle of a disease agent is dependent on a single host species,the pathogen can be eradicated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lower the basic reproduction number of a pathogen,the higher the percentage of immune individuals necessary to provide herd immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pasteurization of milk is an example of a disease control measure aimed at A)preventing host-to-host transmission.
B)controlling the disease vector.
C)preventing common source diseases.
D)eliminating the disease reservoir.
Q5) Why are public health officials concerned about smallpox being used as a biological weapon? Give several reasons in your answer.
Q6) Explain the concept of coevolution in terms of host-pathogen interactions.
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Chapter 29: Person-To-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most viral respiratory diseases are highly contagious but not life threatening.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The presence of gram-positive diplococci in a sputum sample most likely indicates an infection of
A)Streptococcus pyogenes.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
D)Bordetella pertussis.
Q3) Individuals who have an active case of tuberculosis may spread the disease simply by ________ uninfected individuals.
A)coughing near
B)shaking hands with C)hugging
D)sexual contact with
Q4) MOST of the early cases of toxic shock syndrome in women were associated with use of highly absorbent tampons.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Vectorborne and Soilborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is MOST likely to contract diseases such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever and ehrlichiosis if he or she visits/participates in A)camping and hiking in the backcountry.
B)metropolitan cities.
C)snow skiing.
D)European countries.
Q2) Explain why a potentially rabid dog is held for up to two weeks to check for clinical signs of rabies.Are humans more similar or dissimilar in this regard?
Q3) During a camping and hiking expedition in the Ice Age National Scenic Trail at Hartman Creek State Park (Waupaca,WI),an individual notices a small tick on his arm.After removing the partially embedded deer tick,what symptoms should this individual look for to indicate infection of Borrelia burgdorferi? Also,what should be done on future hiking trips to decrease the likelihood of B.burgdorferi infection?
Q4) Wild animals are a natural reservoir for Clostridium tetani.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using a specific example,explain the term "accidental host."
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Chapter 31: Water and Food As Vehicles of Bacterial Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a visitor to a country in which cholera is an endemic disease,what specific steps would you take to reduce your risk of cholera exposure? Will these precautions also prevent you from contracting other waterborne diseases? If so,which ones? Identify waterborne diseases for which your precautions may not prevent infection.
Q2) Listeriosis is diagnosed from ________ cultures and treated with ________.
A)sputum / intravenous antibiotics
B)blood or spinal fluid / hydration therapy
C)sputum / hydration therapy
D)blood or spinal fluid / intravenous antibiotics
Q3) There were numerous cases throughout the United States of patients having bloody diarrhea all within a week of each other,many of which were hospitalized with severe cases.Although the people spanned from California to New York,they all had attended a high school graduation party.Epidemiologists determined the common food factor was cheese curds homemade by a farmer.The home where the cheese curds were made was searched,and the cheese curds and milk used to produce them were taken to the local government lab.Among other microbes,Campylobacter jejuni was isolated from many of the cheese curds as well as the farmer's bulk tank milk.What should be done for those infected? What can be done to prevent this from happening again?
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Chapter 32: Eukaryotic Pathogens: Fungal and Parasitic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Giardia intestinalis and Trichomoniasis vaginalis lack ________ and have
A)a flagellum / cilia instead
B)mitochondria / an anaerobic metabolism
C)a cell wall / a rigid cell membrane
D)cysts / sporozoites instead
Q2) Which of the following is MOST likely to cause an infection in HIV/AIDS patients?
A)Candida albicans
B)Giardia intestinalis
C)Leishmania tropica
D)Schistosoma mansoni
Q3) Which of the following filariases can be controlled by thoroughly cooking pork and wild game?
A)elephantiasis
B)river blindness
C)trichinosis
D)schistosomiasis
Q4) How does insect ecology and the life cycle of Plasmodium impact the epidemiology and pathogenesis of classic malaria?
Page 34
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