Microbial Physiology
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Course Introduction
Microbial Physiology explores the functional processes that sustain microbial life, focusing on the biochemical and molecular mechanisms underlying growth, metabolism, adaptation, and survival in diverse environments. Students will examine how microorganisms harvest energy, assimilate nutrients, regulate their internal environment, and interact with their surroundings, with particular emphasis on processes such as respiration, fermentation, enzyme function, and cellular regulation. The course also delves into the physiological diversity among bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotic microbes, highlighting their roles in ecosystems, industry, and health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 4th Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) In 1975, scientists held a conference at Asilomar to regulate and restrict the field of A) recombinant DNA.
B) comparative genomics.
C) DNA sequencing.
D) DNA amplification.
E) forensic microbiology.
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following are true about penicillin EXCEPT that it A) was discovered by Alexander Fleming.
B) was an accidental discovery.
C) is produced by a bacterium.
D) was the first antibiotic used by humans.
E) was purified by Florey and Chain.
Answer: C
Q3) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek worked as a cloth draper, inspecting the quality of cloth. How did this lead to his interest in microscopy?
Answer: His work introduced him to magnifying lenses. He began the hobby of grinding lenses, ultimately making a microscope that enabled him to observe single-celled microbes.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) Which of these techniques can be used to localize the DNA sequence at the origin of replication in a bacterial cell?
A) fluorescence microscopy
B) phase contrast
C) X-ray diffraction
D) atomic force microscopy
E) cryo-EM
Answer: A
Q2) The highest useful magnification for a light microscope is about
A) 100X.
B) 1,000X.
C) 10,000X.
D) 100,000X.
E) 1,000,000X.
Answer: C
Q3) List and describe three common shapes of bacteria.
Answer: Bacilli (bacillus in the singular) are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci (singular, coccus) are spherical-shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are tightly coiled spirals or corkscrew-shaped bacteria.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following reinforces and stiffens membranes in bacteria?
A) hopanoids
B) polyamines
C) sterols
D) peptidoglycans
E) lipids
Answer: A
Q2) The partition that results from the inward growth of the cell envelope from opposite directions is known as the
A) divisome.
B) septum.
C) wall.
D) colony.
E) Z-ring.
Answer: B
Q3) Explain how bacteria can produce proteins more quickly than eukaryotes do.
Answer: Bacteria have no membrane around the nucleoid. This transcription and translation can be coupled with no need to transport the mRNA out of a nucleus.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Why does binary fission result in an exponential and not a linear growth rate?
Q2) Which of the following intercalates between DNA bases, causing dead cells to stain red under a fluorescence scope?
A) propidium iodide
B) syto-9
C) bile salt
D) crystal violet
E) safranin
Q3) Siderophore-iron complexes enter cells with the help of A) porins.
B) diffusion.
C) aquaporins.
D) ABC transporters.
E) efflux pumps.
Q4) Why is iron so often a limiting nutrient, when it seems to be so abundant in the environment, and how can organisms overcome this problem?
Q5) What type of medium and conditions would you need to have in order to select for photoautotrophs?
Q6) Discuss some disadvantages of viable counts of microorganisms.
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) Describe three mechanisms organisms use to reduce osmotic stress.
Q2) What is biocontrol? Describe two examples.
Q3) An organism that grows at the top of a tube of medium containing thioglycolate is probably a(n)
A) strict aerobe.
B) facultative anaerobe.
C) aerotolerant anaerobe.
D) microaerophile.
E) strict anaerobe.
Q4) One function of programmed cell death is to
A) increase the pH of the local environment.
B) release antibiotic resistance compounds.
C) increase the solute concentration of a hypotonic solution.
D) decrease the pH of the local environment.
E) release nutrients that neighboring cells use to survive.
Q5) How are some organisms able to survive temporary exposures to elevated temperatures?
Page 7
Q6) Halophiles require high salt concentrations to survive. Describe a mechanism involving compatible solutes that has evolved to achieve low internal sodium ion concentrations.
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the pararetroviruses?
A) They have an RNA genome.
B) They do not make a DNA intermediate.
C) Some have a viral reverse transcriptase.
D) Some use a host reverse transcriptase.
E) They consist of human and plant pathogens.
Q2) What phages have been used to nucleate the growth of crystalline "nanowires" for electronic devices?
A) icosahedral
B) complex
C) asymmetrical
D) filamentous
E) viroid
Q3) Why do many RNA viruses encode their own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and package them in viral particles? How do we take advantage of these viral-specific polymerases?
Q4) Some viruses require an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. What does that mean? What would you call the host cell RNA polymerase (RNA pol)? What would you call reverse transcriptase (RTase)?
Q5) How can a virus be used to transfer genes from one bacterial cell to another?
Page 9
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) Errors during replication are corrected by the DNA proofreading activity intrinsic to DNA Pol
A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
E) V.
Q2) What role does lysozyme play when isolating DNA from bacterial cells?
A) It degrades the lipids in the cell membranes.
B) It breaks down the peptidoglycan cell wall.
C) It hydrolyzes cytoplasmic proteins.
D) It prevents DNA degradation after elution from DNA-binding columns.
E) It degrades contaminating RNA.
Q3) What is metagenomics? How have the methods of metagenomics allowed discovery of so many new species? How is it possible to know about these organisms without being able to grow them in a laboratory?
Q4) What is the main difference between structural genes and control sequences in bacteria? Cite examples for both.
Q5) Describe how the name of bacterial genes and their gene product are denoted.
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) The process of taking a DNA template and making a complementary RNA molecule is called
A) transposition.
B) transertion.
C) replication.
D) translation.
E) transcription.
Q2) Name two antibiotics that affect transcription and explain their mode of action.
Q3) The significance of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is that it is the site where
A) RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription.
B) a ribosome binds so that it can initiate translation.
C) DNA polymerase binds to begin chromosome replication.
D) the tRNA binds to the mRNA in translation.
E) DNA polymerase begins synthesis of the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
Q4) Examine the DNA sequence shown below. How many possible reading frames does this piece of DNA have? Explain where they are. Which one can be used and how do you know?
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following mutagens does NOT cause point mutations?
A) caffeine
B) 5-bromouracil
C) nitrosoguanidine
D) nitrites
E) acridine dyes
Q2) Site-specific recombination is RecA independent and requires very short regions of homology between donor and target DNA. Describe an example in either E. coli or Salmonella.
Q3) Phase variation is an example of A) conjugation.
B) site-specific recombination.
C) general recombination.
D) transposition.
E) radiation resistance.
Q4) CRISPR is viewed as the adaptive immune system of bacteria, yet restriction/modification systems also play roles in bacterial defense. Compare and contrast how both systems protect the host.
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Q5) Why did Ames modify the test to incorporate treatment of the potential mutagen with rat liver extract?
Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) A quorum-sensing gene system requires the accumulation of a secreted small molecule called a(n)
A) autoinducer.
B) activator.
C) repressor.
D) inducer.
E) corepressor.
Q2) Which of the following statements about riboswitches is true?
A) They are found mainly at the 3' end of a mRNA.
B) They are capable of binding to a ligand and activating transcription but do not repress transcription.
C) They can control transcription but no translation.
D) Ligands that can bind range from vitamins, amino acids, magnesium, and fluoride.
E) They have no secondary structures involved in their control.
Q3) Explain how riboswitches can be compared to activator and repressor proteins. State an example.
Q4) Explain the process of bioluminescence in Allivibrio fischeri. How is this an example of a mutualistic relationship?
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Page 13
Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) The causative agent of chickenpox is
A) herpes simplex virus 1.
B) herpes simplex virus 2.
C) varicella-zoster virus.
D) Epstein-Barr virus.
E) HIV.
Q2) Integrated retroviral genomes that have accumulated mutations and can no longer generate virions are known as ________ retroviruses.
A) lysogenic
B) temperate
C) virulent
D) exogenous
E) endogenous
Q3) What vertebrate groups harbor influenza viruses capable of mutating into strains infective to humans?
A) cattle and horses
B) swine and cattle
C) birds and swine
D) mice and rats
E) canines and felines
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Chapter 12: Biotechniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) Potential vaccine antigens made by transgenic plants include
A) foot-and-mouth surface antigen.
B) Norwalk virus glycoprotein.
C) rabies virus glycoprotein.
D) Entertoxin A subunit.
E) Hepatitis A virus.
Q2) The purpose of a DNA protection assay is to determine what nucleotide sequences directly interact with which macromolecules?
A) DNA-binding proteins
B) rRNA
C) endonucleases
D) exonucleases
E) tRNA
Q3) Noise in synthetic biology is a result of the A) ara operon.
B) lac operon.
C) dual-feedback oscillator.
D) fluctuation of gene expression among single-cells in a population.
E) oscillatory genetic circuit.
Q4) What is the conceptual basis of the primer extension technique?
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) Glucose is activated by ________ phosphorylation(s) by ATP during the first stage of the Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) Glucose is not phosphorylated.
Q2) What is the phosphotransferase system (PTS) and why is the advantage for a microbial cell to have a PTS?
Q3) Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to heterotrophic organisms?
A) They use preformed organic compounds for biosynthesis.
B) Most organotrophs are also heterotrophs.
C) Along with decomposers, they are ecologically defined as consumers.
D) Some can generate methane as an end product.
E) They utilize glycolysis and other pathways to generate energy.
Q4) The flavor and other properties of cheeses derive from the type of fermenting microorganisms used. How do the "eyes" and the characteristic flavor of Swiss cheese originate?
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) Which species can be utilized in biomining because it oxidizes copper and iron sulfides?
A) Geobacter metallireducens
B) Sulfurospirillum barnesii
C) Haloferax volcanii
D) Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans
E) Bacillus subtilis
Q2) Ferroplasma acidarmanus produces large amounts of sulfuric acid through
A) oxidation of Cu<sup>+</sup> with Cu(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>.
B) oxidation of FeS<sub>2</sub> with Fe3+ and H<sub>2</sub>O.
C) oxidation of Fe<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub> with Fe<sup>2+</sup>.
D) oxidation of H<sub>2</sub>S with H<sub>2</sub>O.
E) reduction of SO with H<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) Electron donors for anaerobic photosystem I in green sulfur bacteria and chloroflexi include the following, EXCEPT
A) H<sup>2</sup>S.
B) HS.<sub>-</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>.
D) H<sub>2</sub>O.
E) Fe<sup>2+</sup>.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following molecules links glycolysis with the TCA cycle, and also serves as a precursor for many biosynthetic products?
A) malate
B) citrate
C) oxaloacetate
D) acetyl-CoA
E) succinate
Q2) How do ammonium and oxygen regulate the expression of nitrogen fixation genes?
Q3) Industrial nitrogen fixation is achieved through the Haber process
A) in which N<sub>2</sub> is reduced catalytically by H<sub>2</sub> at ambient temperature.
B) in which N<sub>2</sub> is hydrogenated by CH<sub>4</sub> at extreme temperature and pressure.
C) in which nitrate and nitrite are chemically converted to NH at ambient temperature.
D) which requires little energy.
E) which is carried out by purified enzymes in a reactor.
Q4) It is thought that the Calvin cycle appeared after the divergence of the three domains of life. What supports this hypothesis?
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following food products is NOT produced by alkaline fermentation?
A) natto
B) kimchi
C) dawadawa
D) pidan
E) thousand-year eggs
Q2) Listeria is a(n) ________ organism, which means that it readily grows at refrigeration temperatures.
A) neutrophilic
B) acidophilic
C) mesophilic
D) autotrophic
E) psychrotrophic
Q3) What categories of foods may be spoiled by psychrotrophs? Why are these organisms a problem with fish?
Q4) Why is it better nutritionally to ferment soybeans than to consume them without fermenting?
Q5) Describe some of the characteristics that industrial strains of microbes must possess.
Page 19
Q6) Explain the difference between food spoilage and food poisoning.
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) In the domains of life, archaea and eukarya differ from each other in that archaea ________ and eukarya ________.
A) contain membrane-bound organelles; do not B) do not undergo methanogenesis; do
C) do not contain membrane-bound organelles; do D) are pathogenic to humans; are never pathogenic E) have introns; do not
Q2) Discuss what horizontal gene transfer is. How does it occur and how might it obscure phylogenetic relationships among taxa?
Q3) The term "pan-genome" can best be defined as
A) the world DNA genomic databank.
B) the sum total of all expected genes in all possible isolates of a given species.
C) genomic islands found in pathogenic organisms.
D) the entire genomic sequence of all known organisms.
E) differences in RNA transcription between species.
Q4) Why do bacterial antibiotics have a greater effect on diminishing the effects of nematode infection caused by Brugia malayi (the etiologic agent of filariasis) than current antinematode agents?
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to the mycoplasmas?
A) They have lost their cell wall and the S-layer through reductive evolution.
B) Their cells maintain their shape through a type of cytoskeleton.
C) When cultured on agar, their colonies have a "fried-egg" shape.
D) They are parasites of all kinds of multicellular organisms.
E) They have some of the largest bacterial genomes.
Q2) After reading the news of an E. coli threat in the community, your family and friends ask you, "Is E. coli a pathogen?" What would you answer?
Q3) Photoheterotrophs absorb light for energy, but do NOT typically
A) produce endospores.
B) generate biomass from carbohydrates.
C) fix nitrogen.
D) fix carbon dioxide.
E) grow oligotrophically.
Q4) Methylobacterium species are methylotrophs, which means that they A) can oxidize reduced single-carbon compounds.
B) exclusively feed on methane.
C) generate methane as a product of fermentation.
D) perform bacteriochlorophyll-based photosynthesis.
E) are classified as lithotrophs.
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Which archaea uses light energy to drive a retinal-based ion pup to establish a proton potential?
A) all archaea
B) hyperthermophilic Crenarchaeota
C) Methanobacteriales
D) Haloarchaea
E) Sulfolobales
Q2) Which organism has a periplasmic space containing membrane vesicles?
A) Desulfurococcus sp.
B) Ignicoccus sp.
C) Methanosarcina sp.
D) Methanothermus sp.
E) Pyrodictium sp.
Q3) Which of the following is responsible for movement away from DNA-damaging light?
A) bacteriorhodopsin
B) halorhodopsin
C) sensory rhodopsin I
D) sensory rhodopsin II
E) sensory rhodopsin III
Q4) Crenarchaeol is a biosignature for Thaumarchaeota. Describe its structure.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) A kinetoplast is ________ containing a bundle of multiple copies of its circular genome.
A) a type of apicoplast
B) a relict chloroplast
C) mitochondrion
D) in the pseudopodia cytoplasm
E) inside a large chloroplast
Q2) The apicomplexans have gone through extensive evolutionary reduction, in which the apicoplast has retained some genetic capabilities from an ancestral chloroplast in order to
A) allow only for phototrophic dark reactions.
B) produce low levels of ATP as backup metabolism.
C) fix carbon dioxide only.
D) absorb blue/green light only.
E) participate in fatty acid metabolism.
Q3) The brewer's yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae has been called a "single-celled" human because its genome of about 6,000 genes has many human homologs. Briefly describe three human cell processes that can be modeled using yeast.
Q4) What are choanoflagellates and what is their importance in evolutionary studies?
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Rhizosphere bacteria benefit their host plant by
A) degrading plant lignin.
B) attracting symbiotic nematodes.
C) improving water uptake.
D) producing large amounts of photosynthate.
E) discouraging growth of plant pathogens.
Q2) The ________ is a set of conditions, including its habitat, resources, and relations with other species of the ecosystem, that enable an organism to grow and reproduce.
A) benthos
B) environment
C) niche
D) metagenome
E) resource requirement
Q3) All of the following are likely to be found among the benthic microbes EXCEPT A) barophiles.
B) psychrophiles.
C) thermophiles.
D) phototrophs.
E) methanogens.
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Page 24
Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Microbes participate in which step of wastewater treatment?
A) preliminary
B) primary
C) secondary
D) tertiary
E) every step
Q2) Phosphorus is a fundamental element of which biological molecule?
A) cofactors for enzymes
B) siderophores
C) proteins
D) nucleic acids
E) peptidoglycan
Q3) Discuss the difference in environmental availability of phosphorus versus sulfur and nitrogen.
Q4) Acid mine drainage is caused primarily by the microbial genus
A) Thalassiosira.
B) Leptothrix.
C) Prochlorococcus.
D) Acidithiobacillus.
E) Desulfovibrio.
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) A man has been taking excessive amounts of antacids for heartburn. These tablets are very alkaline. Which innate defense mechanism might be altered by his actions?
A) mucociliary elevator
B) lysozyme
C) pH of stomach
D) flushing action of urine
E) skin pH
Q2) Which of the following creates a channel in target cell membranes?
A) complement
B) defensins
C) natural killer cells
D) complement and defensins
E) complement, defensins, and natural killer cells
Q3) Interferons are
A) antibacterial agents produced by skin, GI-tract, and lung cells.
B) secreted by eukaryotic cells in response to intracellular infection.
C) only produced by activated phagocytes.
D) host specific and virus specific.
E) able to block bacterial replication.
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Immunization with the childhood DPT (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) vaccine protects against subsequent exposure to tetanus by
A) stopping isotype switching of B cells from IgM to IgA.
B) preloading antigen-presenting cells.
C) stimulating quick inflammation upon future exposure.
D) producing life-spanning antitetanus IgE antibodies.
E) generating tetanus-specific memory B cells.
Q2) The difference between antibody allotypes and isotypes is that isotypes are ________ and allotypes are ________.
A) the differences in constant regions; differences within isotypes
B) differences within allotypes; the differences in constant regions
C) the differences in constant regions; alternations in the hypervariable regions
D) alternations in the hypervariable regions; differences within isotypes
E) alternations in the hypervariable regions of one person; alternations in the hypervariable regions among a species
Q3) How can a person who has taken penicillin for a childhood ear infection later develop an allergy to penicillin when prescribed that drug again?
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about disease reservoirs?
A) Reservoirs are mammals or birds, but not insects.
B) A vector can be the reservoir of a disease.
C) A reservoir is an integral part of the disease cycle.
D) Disease-control measures must consider the biological reservoir.
E) A reservoir is ultimately the source of infection in a population.
Q2) The enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli heat-labile toxin
A) damages membranes.
B) increases protein synthesis.
C) activates second messenger pathways.
D) activates immune response.
E) acts as a capsule.
Q3) Thick polysaccharide capsules are important virulence assets for
A) Escherichia coli and Vibrio cholera.
B) Clostridium tetani and Bacillus anthracis.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Streptococcus pneumonia.
D) Salmonella spp. and Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Helicobacter pylori and Enterobacter cloacae.
Q4) What are ubiquitination signals? Describe how a microbe can redirect these signals for its own purposes.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Regarding the neurotoxigenic disease caused by Clostridium tetani, which of the following is NOT correct?
A) The tetanospasmin toxoid is an effective vaccine.
B) It is a spasmic paralytic disease.
C) The causative agent produces endospores.
D) Herd immunity can decrease the risk of acquiring it.
E) It inhibits neurotransmitters.
Q2) The ________ vaccine is recommended for administration when one becomes an adolescent (11-12 years).
A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) pneumococcal
D) meningococcal
E) tuberculosis
Q3) What makes uropathogenic Escherichia coli different from the other E. coli?
Q4) Why is antibiotic treatment NOT recommended for the enterohemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7, or EHEC?
Q5) People who come down with STDs and do not get treated, frequently end up with co-STD infections. Why is this? Explain.
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Platensimycin is a novel antibiotic that was recently discovered. An attribute it does NOT have is that it
A) is bacteriostatic.
B) binds FabF protein found in fatty acid biosynthesis.
C) has a broad spectrum of activity.
D) works on both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria. E) targets the bacterial translation of proteins.
Q2) The antiviral nucleoside inhibitor zidovudine, used in treating HIV infection, works by A) fooling reverse transcriptase to incorporate it, causing a chain termination reaction.
B) disabling protease and preventing HIV protein folding.
C) blocking gag and pol genes from transcription.
D) binding directly to reverse transcriptase and allosterically inactivating the enzyme.
E) sterically hindering integrase from cutting into the host nuclear DNA.
Q3) Compare and contrast the utility of the antibiotic polymyxin versus cephalosporin in clearing up an Escherichia coli skin infection that has become systemic.
Q4) Why are drug-resistant bacteria less viable in comparison with wild type?
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14993
Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial diagnosis of Mycobacterium avium in a sputum sample from an AIDS patient would be best determined by which method?
A) blood agar culture
B) acid-fast (Ziehl-Neelsen) staining
C) MacConkey agar culture
D) Gram staining
E) bacitracin susceptibility
Q2) Describe what the One Health Initiative is and the role it played in the 2006 outbreak of food-borne O157:H7 in spinach.
Q3) Compare and contrast the epidemiological terms "endemic," "epidemic," and "pandemic." Give an example of each to support your answer.
Q4) Which of the following organisms falls within biosafety group category II?
A) Ebola virus
B) SARS
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Escherichia coli strain K-12
E) Campylobacter jejuni
Q5) Why are clinical viral diseases more challenging to diagnose than are clinical bacterial diseases?
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