

Microbial Physiology Final
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Microbial Physiology explores the functional processes and metabolic pathways that enable microorganisms to grow, reproduce, and survive diverse environments. The course examines the structure and function of microbial cells, nutrient uptake, energy production, and regulatory mechanisms underlying cell processes. Students will learn about different physiological responses to environmental stress, adaptation strategies, and experimental methods used to study microbial physiology, with a focus on the integration of molecular, biochemical, and genetic approaches to understand microbial life.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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27 Chapters
1367 Verified Questions
1367 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following groups would you find a mushroom
A)bacteria
B)protozoa
C)fungi
D)viruses
Answer: C
Q2) Microbiology is the study of microorganisms which include all of the following except:
A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)plants
D)protozoa
Answer: C
Q3) Bioterrorism:
A)involves using antibiotics and vaccines for terrorist means
B)converts factories to produce tanks,trucks and cars
C)prevents getting bacteria into ground beef to keep our food supply safe
D)uses microbes,such as anthrax,as part of terrorist attacks
Answer: D
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Page 3

Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is NOT one of the enterotypes described for humans
A)Bacteroides-dominant
B)Prevotella-dominant
C)Ruminococcus-dominant
D)all are correct enterotypes
E)E.coli-dominant
Answer: E
Q2) Which disease may be linked to endotoxin release and ensuing inflammation
A)epilepsy
B)Type 2 diabetes
C)altered growth rate
D)obesity
E)all are caused by inflammatory disturbances
Answer: B
Q3) Which is NOT one of the enterotypes described for humans
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type V
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phospholipids:
A)have a charged phosphate group that can mix with water and insoluble fatty acids.
B)can serve as hormones.
C)always remain liquid at room temperature.
D)form straight chains in water.
Answer: A
Q2) Organic molecules with the same molecular formula but different structures are:
A)elements
B)isotopes
C)isomers
D)anions
Answer: C
Q3) Anabolic reactions tend to:
A)use energy and break chemical bonds.
B)produce energy,and break chemical bonds.
C)produce energy and new chemical bonds.
D)use energy and produce new chemical bonds.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) When light passes through an object,________ of the light has occurred.
A)reflection
B)absorption
C)transmission
D)fluorescence
Q2) The total magnification of a specimen being viewed with a 10X ocular lens and a 40X objective lens is _____.
A)4X
B)40X
C)400X
D)4000X
Q3) Why is diffraction a problem for microscopy
A)The lens acts as a large aperture through which light must pass.
B)The small size of higher-power lenses causes severe diffraction.
C)The loss of light results in blurred images.
D)Diffraction of light is useful when using an oil immersion lens to view objects.
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6

Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria with flagella all over their surface are said to be:
A)monotrichous
B)peritrichous
C)amphitrichous
D)lophotrichous
Q2) Genetic information in bacteria is:
A)found in the nucleus
B)found only in RNA
C)found in DNA condensed by histones
D)sometimes found in the form of plasmids
Q3) Removal of the cell wall of a Gram positive bacteria results in the formation of a _____.
A)protoplast
B)spheroplast
C)periplast
D)polyplast
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration,except:
A)carbon dioxide
B)oxygen
C)nitrate ions
D)sulfate ions
Q2) The first step in protein metabolism is the breakdown of proteins into:
A)nucleotides
B)fatty acids
C)amino acids
D)coenzymes
Q3) Photoautotrophs obtain energy from:
A)light and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
B)organic molecules and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
C)inorganic substances and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
D)light and use organic substances as a carbon source
Q4) The end product of glycolysis is:
A)fructose-1,6-diphosphate
B)1,3 diphosphoglyceric acid
C)phosphoenolpyruvic acid
D)pyruvic acid
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Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A growth medium consisting of only known amounts of water,magnesium,calcium chloride,potassium and glucose would be considered:
A)a defined synthetic medium
B)a complex medium
C)a chemically nondefined medium
D)two of these
Q2) A bacterial population grows most rapidly during ________ phase.
A)lag
B)log
C)stationary
D)death
Q3) Sabourard's agar has a low pH which encourages the growth of molds and discourages the growth of bacteria.Sabourard's agar could best be described as being: A)selective
B)differential
C)complex
D)enriched
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9

Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fluctuation tests done by Luria and Delbruck showed that:
A)antibiotics induce the development of resistance in bacteria
B)the growth of bacteria fluctuates based on the concentration of antibiotics in the media
C)the concentration of antibiotics fluctuates in response to the number of bacteria in a sample
D)resistance to antibiotics occurs spontaneously in bacteria
Q2) Mutagens such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by:
A)substituting for one of the bases normally found in DNA
B)adding an alkyl group to a nucleotide
C)removing an amino group from a nucleotide
D)causing breaks in chromosomes
Q3) A frameshift mutation occurs when:
A)an adenine is inserted into the DNA sequence of an organism
B)a thymine replaces a guanine in the DNA sequence of an organism
C)three new bases are inserted into the DNA strand
D)three bases are deleted from the DNA strand
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that contain recombinant plasmids can be easily isolated because:
A)they are larger than non-recombinant bacteria
B)they are designed to be resistant to certain antibiotics
C)their colonies will be distinguished by a color variation from those colonies containing nonrecombinant plasmids
D)they are smaller than non-recombinant bacteria
Q2) Plasmids do which of the following
A)Direct synthesis of conjugation pili
B)Provide resistance to certain antibiotics
C)Induce the formation of tumors in plants
D)All of these are functions of plasmids
Q3) In specialized transduction the bacterial genes transduced tend to be:
A)those genes in greatest use by the bacteria
B)those genes that are currently not being transcribed
C)those genes that are located close to the site of the prophage insertion
D)those genes that are small enough to fit in the viral head
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the five-kingdom system of classification,_____.
A)viruses cannot be classified
B)all prokaryotic organisms are found in the kingdom eubacteria
C)all organisms that can photosynthesize are found in the plant kingdom
D)a domain is a division of a kingdom
Q2) The five kingdom system of classification was developed by _____.
A)Charles Darwin
B)Robert Hooke
C)Louis Pasteur
D)Robert Whittaker
Q3) Genetic homology determines evolutionary relationships among organisms based on:
A)the similarity of antibody reactions between species
B)the similarity of DNA between species
C)morphological similarities between species
D)the number of traits shared by two organisms
Q4) Rickettsiae and Chlamydiae are unusual in that they _____.
A)are sometimes gram negative and sometimes gram positive
B)have no cell walls
C)must live inside other living cells
D)are extremely large
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Chapter 11: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses have some of the properties of cellular life forms.Which of the following is a characteristic of all organisms except viruses
A)presence of a plasma membrane
B)capable of mutation
C)ability to reproduce inside a living host
D)grow in response to their environment conditions
Q2) A drug or other agent that induces defects during embryonic development is known as a:
A)syncytia
B)capsomere
C)teratogen
D)carcinogen
Q3) Because viruses such as bacteriophages lead to bursting of the bacterial host cell they are known as ________ viruses.
A)lytic
B)lysogenic
C)recurring
D)lethal
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13

Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that are normally free living but can also obtain nutrients from a host are called _____.
A)facultative parasites
B)obligate parasite
C)biological vectors
D)accidental parasites
Q2) Diatoms possess:
A)photosynthetic pigments other than chlorophyll
B)an outer layer containing silicates
C)abrasive qualities
D)all of these
Q3) A tapeworm's hydatid cyst:
A)contains only one cysticercus or bladder worm
B)migrates to the host's digestive gland
C)can enlarge and develop many tapeworm heads
D)develops into mature flukes
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Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about detergents are true
A)Detergents act as chemical mutagens of DNA or RNA
B)Germicidal soaps are just as effective disinfectants as surgical scrubs
C)Cationic detergents are effective in killing endospores
D)Anionic detergents used for laundering clothes are less effective than cationic detergents
Q2) What is the most susceptible phase of growth for most microorganisms by an antimicrobial agent
A)lag phase
B)log phase
C)stationary phase
D)death phase
Q3) All of the following apply to the control of microbial growth EXCEPT:
A)a definite proportion of organisms die within a given time interval.
B)the fewer organisms present,the shorter the time needed for sterility.
C)microorganisms differ in their susceptibility to antimicrobial agents.
D)heat is not considered an antimicrobial agent.
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Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A decreased efficacy of an antimicrobial agent during combination therapy is called:
A)antagonism
B)cross-resistance
C)synergism
D)second-line
Q2) The ideal antimicrobial agent:
A)should be soluble in body fluids
B)have an unpredictable toxicity
C)should have interactions with other drugs or foods
D)criteria are met by most antimicrobial agents
Q3) Examples of antiviral agents include all of the following agents except:
A)acyclovir
B)ribavirin
C)quinine
D)zidovudine (AZT)
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16

Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that improve the chances of a pathogen's ability to invade a host and cause infection are known as:
A)contagious factors
B)non-communicable factors
C)viral factors
D)virulence factors
Q2) The virus that causes chicken pox in childhood:
A)is noncommunicable infectious disease
B)has no convalescence stage
C)produces hemolysins that release iron
D)is the causative agent of shingles
Q3) A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits from the association while the other species is not harmed but does not benefit from the relationship.
A)Parasitism
B)Mutualism
C)Commensalism
D)Contamination
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Page 17

Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mortality rate is typically expressed as the _____.
A)number of illnesses from a disease per 100,000 people in the population per year
B)fraction of susceptible population that dies
C)speed at which a disease spreads through a population
D)number of deaths from a disease per 100,000 people in the population per year
Q2) An epidemiological study that tests a hypothesis is referred to as what type of study
A)Analytical
B)Experimental
C)Prospective
D)Descriptive
Q3) An epidemic that arises from horizontal transmission and where the of cases slowly rises and then falls is said to be of what type
A)Common-source outbreak
B)Sporadic
C)Pandemic
D)Propagated epidemic
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Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Macrophages include all of the following except:
A)wandering macrophages
B)cells that phagocytize large debris
C)the fastest phagocytes to reach an infection site
D)histiocytes,kupffer cells and osteoclasts
Q2) Which of the following does NOT occur in the process of phagocytosis
A)chemotaxis
B)granulation
C)adherence
D)ingestion
Q3) Which statement about chemical barriers is false
A)high salt content of sweat inhibits the growth of bacteria
B)chemical barriers include mechanisms to limit free iron
C)secreted defensins form pores in microbes membranes
D)chemical barriers include eosinophils and macrophages
Q4) Exogenous and endogenous __________ are fever causing substances.
A)prostraglandins
B)pyrogens
C)cytokines
D)bradykines
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Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) All are hallmarks of an effective vaccine except:
A)safe and stable
B)no adverse side effects
C)sustained protection
D)should generate antibodies but not T cells
Q2) The role of activated macrophages is to:
A)produce polyclonal antibodies
B)produce toxic hydrogen peroxide and accelerate the inflammatory response
C)bind to the MHC II molecule and T cell receptor molecule not in the receptor site
D)none of these
Q3) All of the following correctly describe the structure of an antibody molecule except:
A)two identical light chains
B)heavy and light chains held together by disulfide bonds
C)binds 2 antigens per molecule
D)two Fc fragments and one Fab fragment
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Page 20

Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which serological test uses sheep red blood cells and complement in making diagnostic choices
A)agglutination test
B)precipitin test
C)Fab tests
D)complement fixation test
Q2) Allergens bind to sensitized mast cells carrying surface ____ molecules,causing degranulation.
A)IgG
B)IgB
C)IgM
D)IgE
Q3) HIV has an affinity for cells that bear the _______ antigen(s)on their surface.
A)CD4
B)HLA-B27
C)CD8
D)two of these
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of organisms normal to the skin are:
A)Gram-negative
B)Gram-positive
C)fungi
D)viruses
Q2) Viral infections of the eye include:
A)trachoma
B)epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
C)acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
D)two of these
Q3) Athlete's foot is a type of:
A)ringworm
B)subcutaneous fungal infection
C)opportunistic fungal infection
D)tiny worm-like parasite
Q4) Roseola:
A)causes a sudden rash and brief high fever
B)is also known as german measles
C)causes a lifelong latent infection of T cells
D)two of these
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Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disseminated CMV:
A)always involves the brain and in adults leads to neural damage
B)can occur 1 to 4 months after an organ transplant
C)can lead to severe and often lethal pneumonia in bone marrow transplant patients
D)two of these
Q2) Syphilis is caused by _____.
A)Immunodeficiencies
B)Neisseria gonorrhea
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Haemophilus ducreyi
Q3) Glomerulonephritis is caused by cross-reacting antibodies produced in response to the bacterial pathogen _____.
A)Escherichia coli
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Streptococcus mutans
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
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23

Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can evade the killing power of macrophages and replicate in them
A)Mycobacterium
B)Streptococcus
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Two of these choices
Q2) Hantaviruses:
A)is transmitted in urine of infected mice
B)causes foamy sputum and rupture of alveolar septa
C)causes granulomatous lesions in lungs and spleen
D)two of these choices
Q3) Sinusitis can be caused by:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)All of these choices
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Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does fluoride help reduce dental decay
A)absorbs the acid that seeps down between rods of enamel
B)mineralization of fluoride fills in the spaces between enamel rods
C)kills the bacteria that are responsible for dental decay
D)two of these choices
Q2) Viral enteritis is caused by:
A)Rotavirus
B)Norwalk virus
C)Hepatitis viruses
D)Two of these choices
Q3) Streptococcus form ________ ,polysaccharides that enable bacteria to adhere to the tooth surface.
A)glucose
B)fructose
C)maltose
D)dextrans
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25

Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relapsing fever is characterized by all of the following except:
A)etiology is Borellia
B)vaccine is available
C)vectors are lice or ticks
D)infection was initiated to treat syphilis before antibiotics
Q2) Which infection refers to inflammation of the lining and valves of the heart
A)septicemia
B)rheumatic fever
C)endocarditis
D)puerperal fever
Q3) Brucellosis can be controlled by all of the following except:
A)protective clothing for workers with occupational exposure
B)human vaccine
C)pasteurization of dairy products
D)immunizing animal herds
Q4) Bartonellosis is seen mainly in:
A)Western slopes of the Andes
B)Amazon jungle areas
C)Sub-Saharan Africa
D)Central America
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycobacterium leprae is difficult to cultivate but it can be grown _____.
A)on blood agar
B)in armadillos
C)in tissue culture
D)in embryonated eggs
Q2) All of the following statements about rabies are true EXCEPT:
A)to transmit the virus,the animal must be shedding the virus in the saliva.
B)rabies progresses rapidly to the brain by the flow of cytoplasm through axons.
C)incubation time is proportional to the distance between the bite wound and the brain.
D)symptoms include hydrophobia,aerophobia,confusion,and hallucination.
Q3) Polyomavirus particles can be observed in the _____ cells of the nervous system.
A)microglial
B)oligodendrocyte
C)sensory neuron
D)association neuron
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The indicator organism for human pathogens in a water supply is:
A)Escherichia coli
B)Salmonella typhi
C)Poliovirus
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) Which of the following is used to control the of microbes in the air
A)UV light
B)triethylene glycol
C)cellulose acetate filters
D)all of these choices
Q3) Producers obtain CO from _____.
A)eating other producers
B)the atmosphere
C)dead bodies
D)coal
Q4) Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycles is true
A)Not all living microbes require carbon.
B)Nitrogen fixing bacteria must be in association with legumes.
C)Thiobacillus oxidizes hydrogen sulfide to sulfuric acid.
D)Cyanobacteria are the primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer.
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Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Food processing equipment is disinfected with _____.
A)ultraviolet radiation
B)formaldehyde
C)gamma rays
D)microwaves
Q2) Nisin is:
A)an alkylating agent
B)has anticlostridial activity
C)is produced by Streptococcus lactis
D)two of these choices
Q3) Wort is a precursor for _____.
A)white wine
B)red wine
C)brandy
D)beer
Q4) Which statement about single-cell proteins is incorrect
A)Single-cell proteins are whole organisms rich in protein.
B)They are used in the production of steroid hormones.
C)They can make protein from cheap sources such as pulp or petroleum waste.
D)They are currently used in animal feed.
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