Microbial Physiology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Microbial Physiology explores the structure, function, and metabolic activities of microorganisms, focusing on the molecular and biochemical processes that drive their growth, adaptation, and survival. Topics include cell structure, nutrient uptake, energy production, regulation of metabolic pathways, stress responses, and the physiological diversity among bacteria, archaea, and fungi. By integrating concepts from biochemistry, genetics, and cell biology, the course emphasizes how microbes interact with their environment and each other, highlighting their roles in ecosystems, industry, and human health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 2nd Edition by Dave Wessner
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24 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which molecule is the occurence of mutation most likely to be detected and repaired?
A)Single stranded DNA
B)Single stranded RNA
C)Double stranded DNA
D)Protein
E)None of these is an information storage molecule
Answer: C
Q2) When Dictyostelium discoideum transitions from single cells to a multicellular form,which life characteristics are being recruited for the process to occur? (Select all that apply)
A)metabolism
B)growth
C)reproduction
D)evolution
E)response
F)homeostasis
Answer: A,B,C,E
Q3) The three domains of life are ________,________,and ________.
Answer: Bacteria,Archaea,Eukarya.
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Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) Which of these gene products appears to confer a survival advantage on bacteria living in a competitive environment?
A)TonB dependent receptors
B)TonB
C)Flagellin
D)ExbB
E)ExbD
Answer: A
Q2) What protein plays an important role in determining cell shape by directing cell wall synthesis in non-spherical bacteria?
A)FtsZ
B)MreB
C)ParM
D)FlaA
E)PepZ
Answer: B
Q3) Short hair-like protrusions on the surface of some bacterial cells,used primarily for attachment but occasionally for motility,are called ___ .
Answer: pili
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) You discover a new microbe whose cell wall appears to be heavily enriched with glycopeptides.Which type of organism do you suspect?
A)bacteria
B)archaea
C)fungus
D)alga
E)protozoan
Answer: B
Q2) An encysted protozoan cell is located in a temperate lake which is thawing as Spring weather finally arrives.What plasma membrane modifications might be observed as it adapts to its changing environment? (Select all that apply)
A)increased concentrations of saturated fatty acids within its phospholipid bilayer
B)increased concentrations of unsaturated fatty acids within its phospholipid bilayer
C)decreased sterol concentrations within the plasma membrane
D)presence of hopanoids in the plasma membrane
E)generation of a phospholipid monolayer in some lipid rafts
Answer: A,C
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) You would be able to find methanogens in all of the following environments EXCEPT:
A)the rumen of bovines.
B)the bottom of a swamp.
C)a well aerated aquifer.
D)sediments from a freshwater lake.
E)the benthic region of the ocean.
Q2) Which member of the Archaea domain is a parasite of the archaeon Ignicoccus hospitalis and has one of the smallest genomes of all living microbes?
A)Pyrolobus fumarii
B)Thermoplasma acidophilum
C)Nanoarchaeum equitans
D)Nitrosopumilus maritimus
E)Sulfolobus solfataricus
Q3) Halobacterium salinarum possess the red-colored protein ___ that absorbs light energy to pump protons across the membrane to create a proton motive force.
Q4) All members of the phylum Crenarchaeota are hyperthermophiles.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A single virus-infected cell may produce up to __________ new virions.
A)10
B)100
C)1000
D)10,000
E)one million
Q2) Expression of which of these oncogenes leads to enhanced cell susceptibility to Reovirus infection?
A)Ras
B)SV40
C)T-VEC
D)CFTR
E)None is a correct response
Q3) Determining virus load by examining plant leaves for mosaicism might be considered as: (Select all that apply)
A)end point determination
B)determination of LD<sub>50</sub>
C)direct count via immunofluorescence
D)determination of ID<sub>50</sub>
E)None is a correct response
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Q1) The enzyme catalase is used to detoxify which harmful oxygen species?
A)hydroxyl radical
B)superoxide
C)hydrogen peroxide
D)ozone
E)singlet oxygen
Q2) In order for a chemostat to operate properly,what must the reservoir contain?
A)a complex medium
B)vitamins
C)all twenty amino acids
D)a limiting nutrient
E)oxygen
Q3) During steady state growth in a chemostat,the growth rate of the cells is equivalent to:
A)the nutrient concentration.
B)the generation time.
C)the cell yield.
D)the flow rate.
E)the dilution rate.
Q4) A device used for the continuous culturing of bacteria is called a _________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is a point mutation that results in changing a codon from an amino acid codon to a stop codon?
A)frameshift
B)silent
C)nonsense
D)missense
E)deletion
Q2) Which of these best differentiates DNA and RNA?
A)RNA is single-stranded and DNA is double stranded.
B)RNA contains ribose and DNA contains deoxyribose.
C)RNA contains the base uracil in place of thymine,which is in DNA.
D)Both a and b are true.
E)a,b,and c are true.
Q3) What is the first protein to bind to the oriC region of the DNA molecule to start the replication process?
A)DNA polymerase
B)the primase
C)DnaA
D)gyrase
E)DnaI
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following proteins would be found at the base of the tail fibers of a genetically modified PP01 bacteriophage which is now capable of infecting E.coli K12 cells? (Select all that apply. )
A)Gp37
B)Gp38
C)ompF
D)lipopolysaccharide
E)none of the choices is correct
Q2) Which of these viruses is most likely to possess a T-antigen equivalent?
A)Bacteriophage T4
B)Poxvirus
C)Poliovirus
D)HPV
E)HIV
Q3) Most non-enveloped viruses exit the cell by the following process
A)exocytosis.
B)budding.
C)Golgi transport.
D)cell lysis.
E)cytokinesis.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) You insert a gene for tetracycline resistance into one plasmid and a gene for ampicillin resistance into another plasmid.You successfully introduce both plasmids into a sample of E.coli cells,but fail to grow any of them in culture medium with both antibiotics present in it.What could best explain the problem?
A)Random mutation has inactivated the antibiotic resistance genes
B)Plasmid incompatibility will not allow both plasmids to persist
C)E)coli cannot maintain two plasmids
D)The plasmid(s)have integrated into the bacterial chromosome
E)A phage has neutralized one of the plasmids
Q2) A mutation in which genes could render Haemophilus incapable of transformation?
(Select all that apply)
A)RecA
B)DNA translocase
C)Single strand exonuclease
D)Single strand endonuclease
E)DNA polymerase
Q3) Mutations in a cell can occur in the absence of selective pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Illumina sequencing method is not completely described.Given what you read about it in the text,and given that the method relies upon sequential additions of a single nucleotide,where might you expect the fluorescent removable tag to reside?
A)on a 3' OH-blocker
B)on a 5' phosphate-group
C)on a 2' OH-blocker
D)on the organic base
E)none is a logical position
Q2) A bacterial genome has an overall GC content of 60%.Two percent of the genome is considered to be a symbiosis island whose GC content is 40%.What GC richness does the rest of the genome actually possess?
A)70%
B)65%
C)60%
D)55%
E)85%
Q3) The Sanger method of sequencing used special nucleotides that are called ________ nucleotides.
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12
Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify mechanisms that can reduce functional enzyme levels.(Select all that apply)
A)Phosphorylation
B)Methylation..
C)Acetylation.
D)mRNA synthesis inhibition,.
E)translation inhibition,
Q2) Tryptophan has the molecular property of:
A)being able to bind directly to DNA
B)acting as an activator
C)acting as an inducer
D)acting as a repressor
E)acting as a co-repressor
Q3) Which sigma factor associates with RNA polymerase during high temperatures?
A)sigma 70
B)sigma 35
C)sigma 38
D)sigma 54
E)sigma 32
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13
Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these amino acids are commonly used as supplements in animal feed to promote growth?
A)glycine and glutamate
B)methionine and lysine
C)proline and valine
D)tryptophan and tyrosine
E)aspartate and histidine
Q2) Which of these proteins would be useful in experiments designed to use a DNA shuffling approach for directed evolution?
A)Restriction endonucleases
B)Zinc finger nucleases
C)Repressor proteins
D)Inducer molecules
E)Transcription activator-like effector nucleases
Q3) Why might butanol be a better biofuel than ethanol?
A)Butanol has a higher octane rating.
B)Butanol is easier to produce.
C)Butanol contains more energy per unit volume.
D)Butanol can be produced from cheaper feedstocks.
E)Butanol costs less to produce.
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purple sulfur bacteria produce reducing power during the light reactions of photosynthesis by what process?
A)cyclic photophosphorylation
B)the Calvin cycle
C)reverse electron flow
D)the reverse TCA cycle
E)the Parnas pathway
Q2) If aspartic acid synthesis within a cell is abnormally low,which of these molecules may also be present in abnormally low concentrations? (Select all that apply)
A)glycine
B)UTP
C)ATP
D)threonine
E)valine
Q3) The -oxidation pathway is used for the breakdown of nucleotides for use as carbon source.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The photosynthetic membranes in cyanobacteria are called __________ membranes.
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many metabolic reactions in anaerobic environments are driven by methanogens because of the rapid utilization of this material during methanogenesis.
A)carbon dioxide
B)sulfate
C)formate
D)hydrogen
E)nitrogen
Q2) Select the correct choice for the abundances of elements found in cells,from lowest to highest:
A)carbon,sulfur,nitrogen,phosphorous
B)sulfur,phosphorus,nitrogen,oxygen
C)carbon,nitrogen,oxygen,sulfur
D)carbon,potassium,phosphorous,hydrogen
E)carbon,oxygen,nitrogen,sulfur
Q3) Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.
Q5) Methanogens are members of the Domain _______.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) What possible sources of energy may be used by microbes that live deep within the Earth?
A)carbon dioxide and oxygen
B)hydrogen gas and ferrous iron
C)nitrate and sulfate
D)sulfate and ferric iron
E)nitrate and ferric iron
Q2) Deep subsurface environment are considered to be void of microbial life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Microbes which display the same physiological responses to environment and others within a community are said to occupy the same:
A)ecosystem
B)biofilm
C)community
D)niche
E)environment
Q4) The use of living organisms to clean up chemically contaminated soils is called
Q5) Sulfur emitted from hydrothermal vents is in the form of __________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) An MPN test where lactose-fermenting microbes have been observed is known as a:
A)Presumptive test
B)A confirmed test
C)A completed test
D)A conclusive test
E)None is a correct choice
Q2) Vacuum packaging inhibits the growth of microbes that
A)are obligate anaerobes.
B)rely on fermentation for energy metabolism.
C)are aerotolerant anaerobes.
D)rely on aerobic respiration for growth.
E)are chemolithotrophs.
Q3) The activated sludge method of wastewater treatment uses
A)a microbial biofilm for organic carbon reduction.
B)an inoculum from the previous activated sludge treatment.
C)chemolithotrophic bacteria for carbon reduction.
D)special chemicals for the removal of organic pollutants.
E)large screens to filter out particulate matter.
Q4) Vinegar is made by bacteria from one of two genera,either Gluconobacter or
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) Which of these is not able to be detected by bacterial NodD protein?
A)genistein
B)luteolin
C)flavonoid
D)C4-dicarboxylic acid
E)All can be detected
Q2) The correct order of structures ingested grass will pass through in a ruminant is:
A)reticulum,omasum,abomasom,rumen
B)reticulum,rumen,omasum,abomasom
C)omasum,reticulum,rumen,abomasom
D)reticulum,abomasom,omasum,rumen
E)abomasom,reticulum,rumen,omasum
Q3) Most microbe-host relationships are harmful.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Plaque on human teeth is considered a biofilm.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) How is the protozoan Plasmodium falciparum transmitted from host to host?
A)an aerosol route
B)a fomite
C)contaminated food or water
D)a vector-borne route
E)sexual contact
Q2) Which of these factors complicates the application of Koch's postulates?
A)Host cell receptor variability
B)Diseases with clearcut syndromes (collections of associated signs and symptoms)
C)Antibiotic resistance of pathogens
D)International travel
E)All are equally confounding
Q3) Endotoxins are toxins that are made in the cell and excreted to the external environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The measure of the ability of a pathogen to cause severe disease in a host is called
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial
Invasion
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Q1) The classical pathway of complement activation is initiated through the recognition of bound antibody to antigen on the microbe surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) TLR-3 recognizes double-stranded RNA.The presence of double stranded RNA in a cell usually indicates the cell is infected by which of these?
A)a Gram negative bacterium
B)an RNA virus
C)a Gram positive bacterium
D)a protozoan
E)yeast
Q3) Which of these would induce the liver to produce C-reactive protein?.
A)phosphatidyl choline.
B)phosphatidyl inositol
C)endotoxin
D)peptidoglycan
E)fungal cell wall components
Q4) The body's programmed nonspecific response to tissue injury is called
Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) How many potentially different heavy chain rearrangements are possible by the time class switching occurs?
A)Roughly 10²
B)10 - 10
C)Roughly 10
D)Roughly 5 x 10
E)None is a correct choice
Q2) Which of these can activate T cells during the adaptive immune response?
A)Only B cells.
B)B cells and macrophages.
C)Macrophages and dendritic cells.
D)B cells and dendritic cells.
E)B cells or macrophages or dendritic cells.
Q3) A direct ELISA test would be suitable for: (Select all that apply)
A)assessing pesticide levels in lake water
B)identifying Vibrio cholerae in a patient's bloodstream
C)detecting anti-HepatitisB antibody in donated blood
D)quantifying nitroglycerine levels in soil samples taken from a munitions dump
E)all samples are suitable for analysis with the test
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Chapter 21: Virulence Factors and Pathogenic Mechanisms of
Bacterial Infections
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Q1) Which of these bacteria produce toxins that increase cAMP levels? (Select all that apply)
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Clostridium difficile
D)Bordetella pertussis
E)Enterotoxigenic E.coli
Q2) Which component of lipopolysaccharide is responsible for inducing a strong inflammatory response?
A)phospholipid
B)lipid A
C)core polysaccharide
D)O-antigen
E)teichoic acid
Q3) Enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus are weak superantigens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A primary pathological feature of a Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection is the appearance of ___________ in the lungs.
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Q5) Exotoxins that act specifically on the intestine are called __________________.
Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) Poxvirus achieves host cell translation inhibition by: (Select all that apply)
A)Cap-snatching from tRNA molecules
B)Cleavage of host DNA
C)Use of a fragment of eIF-4G to initiate viral mRNA translation
D)Addition of a cap from host mRNA onto a fully transcriibed viral mRNA
E)Binding the 40S ribosomal subunit
Q2) Evolution of viruses by reassortment causes dramatic changes to the virus.This is referred to as _____________ .
A)transformation.
B)transduction.
C)antigenic shift.
D)antigenic drift
E)transmutation.
Q3) How does the polio virus cause cell death?
A)By preventing host cell protein synthesis.
B)Through destruction of the cytoplasmic membrane.
C)By inhibition of DNA replication.
D)Through destruction of the nuclear membrane.
E)By repression of host cell transcription.
Q4) Warts are caused by the human _______________.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) Identify all forms of Plasmodium which can be isolated from mosquitoes: (Select all that apply)
A)Merozoite
B)Gametocyte
C)Sporozoite
D)Ookinete
E)Oocyst
Q2) How do spores of the causative agent of Dutch elm disease,Ophiostoma novo-ulmi,spread from a dead infected tree to a non-infected tree?
A)an airborne route of transmission
B)woodpeckers
C)an elm beetle
D)squirrels that live in the dead tree
E)mosquitos
Q3) Which of these worms causes the mildest syndrome?
A)Hookworms
B)Roundworms
C)Whipworms
D)Pinworms
E)Schistosomes
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Mutational resistance to an antimicrobial drug usually occurs
A)only in the presence of the drug.
B)spontaneously in the absence of the drug.
C)in the presence of the drug and a mutagen.
D)as a result of horizontal gene transfer.
E)only in the presence of a mutagen.
Q2) Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs listed below does not target the 30S ribosomal subunit activities?
A)tetracycline
B)doxycycline
C)oxytetracycline
D)carbomycin
E)all target the 30S ribosomal subunit
Q3) The use of antimicrobial drugs is directly linked to the development of antibiotic resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tetracylines are considered to be __________-_______________ antibiotics because they show activity against a wide range of bacteria.
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