Microbial Physiology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Microbial Physiology explores the cellular structure, metabolic processes, and genetic regulation underlying the growth, survival, and adaptability of microorganisms. The course examines energy production, biosynthesis of cellular components, response to environmental changes, and interactions with other organisms. Emphasis is placed on understanding the mechanisms of nutrient uptake, enzymatic pathways, stress responses, and the physiological differences among diverse microbial groups, equipping students with foundational knowledge critical for advanced microbiology, biotechnology, and medical applications.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 2nd Edition by Dave Wessner
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24 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these are key factors in explaining the similarity between death rates in the world versus sub-Saharan Africa in the 1930s? (Select all that apply)
A)Global unavailability of effective antibiotics
B)Poverty of nations
C)Political instability
D)Lack of sanitation
E)Global unavailability of vaccines for endemic diseases
Answer: A,E
Q2) When Dictyostelium discoideum transitions from single cells to a multicellular form,which life characteristics are evident in the multicellular form? (Select all that apply)
A)metabolism
B)growth
C)reproduction
D)evolution
E)response
F)homeostasis
Answer: A,B,C,E,F
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Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The so-called ultra-small bacteriawill likely have a diameter approximating A)1 micrometer
B)1.5 micrometers
C)0.15 micrometers
D)0.5 micrometers
E)0.015 micrometers
Answer: C
Q2) The bacterial flagellum is structurally and functionally related to the eukaryotic flagellum.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which region contains the chromosome in the bacterial cell?
A)Nucleus
B)Nucleoid
C)Plasmid
D)Plastid
E)Prophage
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these best describes chemiosmosis?
A)The movement of water across a biological membrane into or out of a cell.
B)The movement of protons across a biological membrane for energy production.
C)The movement of organic nutrients across a biological membrane into or out of a cell.
D)The movement of inorganic nutrients across a biological membrane into or out of a cell.
E)The production of energy as a result of the reactions occurring in the glycolytic pathway.
Answer: B
Q2) The result of meiosis is the production of:
A)four haploid cells.
B)two diploid cells.
C)two haploid cells.
D)four diploid cells.
E)two haploid cells and two diploid cells.
Answer: A
Q3) Most cell walls of algae are composed of ___.
Answer: cellulose
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) In which of these are Archaea and Bacteria significantly different?
A)cell size
B)chromosome size and organization
C)lack of a membrane-enclosed nucleus
D)membrane lipid structure
E)possessesion of membrane enclosed organelles
Q2) What is the primary reason that Woese and Fox choose the rRNA molecule to study phylogenetic relationships between organisms?
A)Ribosomal RNA is abundant in the cell.
B)Ribosomal RNA is a very stable molecule.
C)Ribosomal RNA is a molecule found in all living organisms.
D)Ribosomal RNA sequencing was very easy to perform at the time.
E)Ribosomal RNA is very easy to isolate and manipulate.
Q3) Which of these statements comparing peptidoglycan and pseudopeptidoglyan is correct? (Select all that apply)
A)NAG is found in glycan strands of both molecules
B)L isomer amino acids are seen in peptide bridges in both molecules
C)The physical strength of each cell wall is equivalent
D)D isomer amino acids are seen in peptide bridges in both molecules
E)The glycosidic bond linkages are different
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prion disease could be defined as a: (Select all that apply)
A)metabolic disease
B)genetic disease
C)protein denaturation disease
D)degenerative disease
E)infectious disease
Q2) What is the premise of the progressive hypothesis of viral origin?
A)Viruses evolved from symbionts of cells.
B)Viruses evolved from self-replicating nucleic acid segments.
C)Viruses originated from cells that lost the ability to replicate.
D)Viruses were present when the first primordial cells evolved.
E)Viruses arose from fragmented DNA in a cell.
Q3) Determining virus load by examining plant leaves for mosaicism might be considered as: (Select all that apply)
A)end point determination
B)determination of LD<sub>50</sub>
C)direct count via immunofluorescence
D)determination of ID<sub>50</sub>
E)None is a correct response
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are using triple sugar iron agar to differentiate intestinal bacteria.You believe you have isolated Salmonella.What appearance would you see in the culture tube?
A)Red slant,red butt
B)Yellow slant,red butt
C)Red slant,yellow butt
D)Yellow slant,yellow butt
E)Red slant,yellow butt with black H S production
Q2) Which of these methods can be used to obtain a viable cell count?
A)counting chamber direct count
B)turbidity measurement
C)plate counts of serial dilutions
D)loop dilution
E)optical density
Q3) Bacteria grow for 12 generations in 4 hours.What is the growth rate?
A)3 generations per hour
B)48 generations per hour
C)0.33 generations per hour
D)33 generations per hour
E)None is correct
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Page 8
Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Basic proteins that help to package the DNA in eukaryal cells are called ________.
Q2) Describe the process of mRNA processing in eukaryal cells.
Q3) Replication termination in E.coli involves which two proteins?
A)Tus protein and topoisomerase II.
B)helicase and DnaG.
C)helicase and topoisomerase II.
D)Tus protein and DnaG.
E)Tus protein and helicase.
Q4) Which of these is a term for a point mutation that results in a change in the amino acid specificity of the codon?
A)frameshift
B)silent
C)nonsense
D)missense
E)amber
Q5) Replication of eukaryal DNA requires RNA primer synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why is the genetic code considered degenerate?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anti-influenza drug interacting with hemaglutinin (HA)could potentially act by (Select all that apply)
A)block viral binding to host cellreceptors
B)chemically modifying the viral binding protein
C)making antibody production unlikely to occur
D)reducing virion release from an infected cell
E)all choices are correct
Q2) If an antiretroviral drug is designed to inhibit an enzyme required for the growth of the virus in an infected cell,which enzyme's inhibition is likely to be both effective and least toxic to the host cell?
A)RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
B)RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C)DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
D)DNA dependent RNA polymerase
E)All would be equally effective and toxic
Q3) Translation of mRNA for the production of viral proteins always takes place in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What sized fragments will be generated by cutting DNA with a four base pair-recognition restriction endonuclease if we assume equal A-T and C-G richness within the DNA?
A)roughly 250 bp
B)roughly 500 bp
C)roughly 100 bp
D)roughly 1,000 bp
E)roughly 5,000 bp
Q2) The sucrose resistance phenotype,employed to distinguish single and double crossover events when non-homologous recombination is taking place,would not be detectible if a recipient cell were:
A)unable to hydrolyse sucrose
B)unable to hydrolyse lactose
C)unable to hydrolyse fructose
D)unable to polymerize fructose
E)unable to polymerize sucrose
Q3) In order for a plasmid to replicate once it enters a cell,it must contain an ______ of replication that is recognized by the cell.
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many scientists deposit their gene sequences in GenBank to make them publicly available to other scientist via the internet.Approximately how many base pairs have been deposited thus far?
A)10,000
B)100,000
C)1 million
D).10 million
E)greater than 10 million
Q2) DNA microarray technology allows a researcher to analyze gene expression in an organism cultured under different growth conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Term for genes from different organisms that encode for proteins that carry out the same function but have different sequences.
A)homologs
B)paralogs
C)orthologs
D)metalogs
E)semilogs
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small non-coding RNA (sRNA)always inhibit translation initiation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sigma-70 allows E.coli RNA polymerase to recognize:
A)a -12 and -35 region upstream of the transcribed region of a gene
B)a -12 and -24 region upstream of the transcribed region of a gene
C)a -10 and -35 region downstream of the transcribed region of a gene
D)a -10 and -35 region upstream of the transcribed region of a gene
E)a -24 and -35 region upstream of the coding region of a gene
Q3) The transfer of T-DNA into a plant cell by Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a highly regulated process.This process only occurs if a plant becomes wounded and excretes various compounds that are detected by A.tumefaciens for expression of its virulence genes.Regulation of virulence gene expression is under the control of which type of system?
A)A two-component system.
B)An inducer/repressor system.
C)An activator/co-activator system.
D)A co-repressor/repressor system.
E)A repressor/co-activator system.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Roundup Ready transgenic plants were created by inserting a glyphosate resistant gene from ___________________ into the plant chloroplast genome.
A)Rhizobium
B)Agrobacterium
C)Pseudomonas
D)Xanthomonas
E)Corynebacterium
Q2) You aim to isolate pyruvate from an overproducing E.coli strain.During which phase of growth should its production be maximal?
A)lag
B)log
C)stationary
D)death
E)all phases are equivalent
Q3) Random mutagenesis is often used in industry to produce microbial strains that have increased production ability.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amino acids which are deaminated can feed catabolically into the pathway(s): (Select all that apply)
A)Glycolysis
B)TCA cycle
C)Fermentation
D)Electron transport system
E)All are correct
Q2) Cyanobacteria use _______ as an electron source for the reduction of NADP+.
A)sulfur
B)glucose
C)water
D)carbon dioxide
E)nitrate
Q3) Which paired pathways can perform the same function(s)? (Select all that apply)
A)EMP,pentose phosphate pathway
B)Entner- Duodoroff,pentose phosphate
C)EMP,Entner- Duodoroff
D)EMP,TCA cycle
E)Pentose phosphate,TCA cycle
Q4) The photosynthetic membranes in cyanobacteria are called __________ membranes.
15
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atmospheric sulfur is primarily:
A)Present as H S
B)Present as sulfate
C)Present as elemental sulfur
D)Present as dimethylsulfoniopropionate
E)Present as the amino acid cysteine
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a reservoir for oxygen?
A)the atmosphere
B)carbon dioxide
C)nitrate
D)ammonia
E)water
Q3) Which microbes metabolize hydrogen during methanogenesis? (Select all that apply)
A)primary fermenters
B)secondary fermenters
C)homoacetogens
D)acetotrophic methanogens
E)hydrogenotrophic methanogens
Q4) Methanogens are members of the Domain _______.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbes which display the same physiological responses to environment and others within a community are said to occupy the same:
A)ecosystem
B)biofilm
C)community
D)niche
E)environment
Q2) What possible sources of energy may be used by microbes living in hydrothermal vents?
A)nitrate and methane
B)methane and sulfide
C)sulfide and nitrate
D)sulfate and nitrate
E)sulfate and methane
Q3) A soil with 50% clay,20% silt and 10% sand is classified texturally as:
A)loam
B)sandy loam
C)clay
D)silty clay loam
E)sandy clay loam
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) The ________________ is a measure of the amount of oxygen required for the microbial oxidation of organic compounds in a water source.
A)chemical oxygen demand
B)biological oxygen demand
C)respiration rate
D)carbon dioxide production
E)cell yield
Q2) The koji and moromi stages of soy sauce fermentation differ by these characteristics: (Select all that apply)
A)Koji is aerobic,moromi is anaerobic
B)Moromi is aerobic,koji is anaerobic
C)Koji is low-salt conditions,moromi is high-salt conditions
D)Moromi is low-salt conditions,koji is high-salt conditions
E)Koji is fermentation for several days,moromi is fermentation for several months
Q3) Foods with high water activity will usually spoil faster than foods with a low water activity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lichens DO NOT form from endosymbiotic:
A)plant and bacterial cells
B)algal and fungal cells
C)plant and algal cells
D)fungal and cyanobacterial cells
E)all are correct choices
Q2) The red color of plant root nodules is due to this oxygen binding protein.
A)cytochrome c
B)flavoprotein
C)leghemoglobin
D)menaquinone
E)nitrate reductase
Q3) When a mutualistic organism acquires virulence factors,it will be recognised as a: A)mutualist
B)commensal
C)parasite
D)endosymbiont
E)ectosymbiont
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19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) What is the prevalence rate of a disease?
A)The number of cases of the disease within a specified number of the population.
B)The number of deaths due to an infectious agent.
C)The ratio of the number of deaths to the number of individuals with the disease.
D)The total number of cases of a disease.
E)The number of deaths within a population.
Q2) A single mutation in a pathogenic gene may cause the pathogen to become avirulent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the CRISPR-Cas system,which component is responsible for phage destruction?
A)Pre-cRNA transcript
B)cRNA subunits
C)Cas helicase
D)Cas nuclease
E)CRISPR locus
Q4) A(n)________________ is a toxin made inside the pathogen and excreted into the external environment.
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Q1) Lysosomal fusion with a phagosome ensures digestion of susceptible microbes through: (Select all that apply)
A)Release of proteases
B)Acidification of the environment
C)Release of hydrogen peroxide
D)Release of deoxyribonucleases
E)Production of nitrous oxide
Q2) The invertebrate immune response involves ALL of the following EXCEPT:
A)phagocytic amoebocytes.
B)antimicrobial peptides.
C)antibody producing B-cells.
D)opsonization of microbes by lectins.
E)melanin encapsulation of microbes.
Q3) Natural Killer (NK)cells specialize in destroying these.
A)fungi
B)protozoa
C)parasitic worms
D)pathogen infected cells
E)viruses
21
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Which of these cell types are activated by dendritic cells? (Select all that apply)
A)Naïve CD4+ cells
B)Naïve CD8+ cells
C)Memory CD4+ cells
D)Memory CD8+ cells
E)Cytotoxic T cells
Q2) MHC II molecules are provided for peptide association through:
A)The Golgi apparatus
B)Lysosomal activity
C)Proteasome digestion
D)Peroxisomal activity
E)None is a correct choice
Q3) Activated B cells will each produce: (Select all that apply)
A)Antibodies with a unique Kappa chain
B)Antibodies with a unique Lambda chain
C)Antibodies with a unique D region in the light chain
D)Antibodies with a unique C region
E)Antibodies with identical variable region amino acid sequences
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22
Chapter 21: Virulence Factors and Pathogenic Mechanisms of
Bacterial Infections
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Q1) Botulinum toxin belongs to a group of toxins called A-B toxins.What does the term "A-B" refer to?
A)Their antigen-binding properties.
B)Their antibody-binding toxins.
C)Their enzymatically active subunit and cell binding subunit.
D)Their action on the brain.
E)Their activation of B-cells.
Q2) Clostridium botulinum toxin(s)act by: (Select all that apply)
A)Cleaving SNAP25
B)Cleaving synaptobrevin
C)Cleaving syntaxin
D)Inhibiting acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
E)Preventing acetylcholine release by inhibitory neurons
Q3) What directly causes the damage during an active Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection?
A)A potent cytolysin that targets alveolar macrophages.
B)A cell-mediated inflammatory response.
C)A cytolysin that destroys lung tissue.
D)Growth of the bacterium in macrophages.
Page 23
E)An exotoxin that enters into the bloodstream and targets heart muscle.
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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) A transducing retrovirus is one that contains a(n)________________ gene from a previous host cell.When this gene is transduced into a new host genome,the cell will be transformed into a cancer cell.
A)phosphorylase
B)oncogene
C)DNA polymerase
D)reverse transcriptase
E)protease
Q2) Poxvirus achieves host cell translation inhibition by: (Select all that apply)
A)Cap-snatching from tRNA molecules
B)Cleavage of host DNA
C)Use of a fragment of eIF-4G to initiate viral mRNA translation
D)Addition of a cap from host mRNA onto a fully transcriibed viral mRNA
E)Binding the 40S ribosomal subunit
Q3) How does the papillomavirus causes tumor formation?
A)By stimulating the host cell to replicate its DNA.
B)By inhibiting tumor suppressor proteins in the host cell.
C)By cap-snatching.
D)By inhibiting apoptosis of the host cell.
E)By inducing meiosis in the host cell.
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) Which of these is an example of an opportunistic disease-causing protozoan in AIDS patients?
A)Plasmodium vivax
B)Trypanosoma brucei
C)Giardia lamblia
D)Entamoeba histolytica
E)Toxoplasma gondii
Q2) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the causative agent of what disease?
A)malaria
B)African sleeping sickness
C)yellow fever
D)diarrheal disease
E)dengue fever
Q3) Humans typically come into contact with saxitoxin through the ingestion of:
A)seawater contaminated with red-tide algae
B)raw shellfish.
C)contaminated drinking water.
D)inadequately treated sewage water
E)raw beef.
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Sulfa drug resistance involves: (Select all that apply)
A)Alteration of an enzyme active site
B)Alteration in degrees of competitive inhibition
C)Alteration of PBP
D)Alteration of ribosomal protein structure
E)Transducing pahage activity
Q2) Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs listed below does not target protein synthesis?
A)aminoglycosides
B)macrolides
C)tetracylcines
D)rifamycins
E)chloramphenicols
Q3) Mechanisma commonly associated with drug resistance development include: (Select all that apply)
A)Plasmid acquisition through transformation
B)Bacteriophage spread
C)Recombination events
D)Transposon activity
E)F plasmid conjugation
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