Microbial Physiology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Microbial Physiology explores the functional processes that govern the life of microorganisms, including bacteria, archaea, and select eukaryotic microbes. This course delves into the molecular and biochemical mechanisms underlying microbial growth, metabolism, energy production, nutrient uptake, and adaptation to diverse environments. Students will examine the regulatory pathways controlling cellular functions and responses to environmental changes, with emphasis on the integration of metabolic networks and the physiological diversity among microbes. Through lectures and laboratory components, the course provides a comprehensive understanding of how microbes sustain life, interact with their habitats, and contribute to ecological and industrial processes.
Recommended Textbook
Nesters Microbiology A Human Perspective 9th Edition by Denise G. Anderson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Humans and the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the control step in the scenario described.
A) Inoculating the test microbe into nutrient medium containing lead.
B) Isolating the microbe from a contaminated water source.
C) Inoculating the test microbe into nutrient medium lacking lead.
D) Inoculating the test microbe into medium containing lower levels of lead than used initially.
E) Inoculating the test microbe into contaminated water containing high levels of lead.
Answer: C
Q2) Ulcers, previously thought to be caused by stress, are in fact often caused by
A) a bacterial infection.
B) an insufficient diet.
C) a genetic mutation.
D) pathogenic normal microbiota.
E) a viral infection.
Answer: A
Q3) An organism is categorized in a domain according to its cell size.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The subunits (building blocks) of proteins are
A) nucleotides.
B) phospholipids.
C) amino acids.
D) carbohydrates.
E) monosaccharides.
Answer: C
Q2) Lipids are polar, hydrophilic molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What type of bond holds one strand of DNA to the complementary strand of DNA?
A) Covalent
B) Hydrogen
C) Disulfide
D) Ionic
E) Peptide
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria
A) contains a thin layer of peptidoglycan.
B) contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan.
C) is an excellent barrier to most molecules.
D) contains an outer membrane containing LPS.
E) contains a thick layer of peptidoglycose.
Answer: B
Q2) Which is NOT True of the cytoplasmic membrane?
A) It defines the boundaries of the cell.
B) It is a selectively permeable barrier.
C) It consists mainly of a fixed, static, phospholipid bilayer.
D) It contains proteins used as selective gates and sensors.
E) All of the answer choices are True.
Answer: C
Q3) Lysosomes are bags of digestive enzymes found in prokaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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5
Chapter 4: Dynamics of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagnosis of legionellosis depends partly on culture of the causative agent from medical samples. Typically, the organism is grown on buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar. What essential component must this medium have to ensure growth of L. pneumophila?
A) red blood cells
B) chlorine
C) NaCl
D) cysteine
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) The colonies of interest in this case are the blue-green presumptive Shigella colonies. However, growth on hektoen enteric agar is not sufficient for definitive identification. Further tests are needed. First, the lab technicians need to prepare larger numbers of Shigella from your patient's stool sample, and then they need to ensure that they are culturing a single species. The methods used to do this are ________, followed by ________.
A) streak plating; pour plates
B) enrichment culture; Gram staining
C) Gram staining; enrichment culture
D) Gram staining; capsule staining
E) enrichment culture; streak plating
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally, membrane filters are not used to remove
A) bacteria from liquids.
B) enzymes from liquids.
C) microorganisms from gases.
D) spoilage agents from alcoholic beverages.
E) bacteria from nutrient broths.
Q2) Typical conditions used for sterilization are
A) 100°C for 10 minutes.
B) 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes.
C) 80°C for 15 minutes.
D) 72°C for 15 seconds.
E) 100°C for 10 seconds.
Q3) Dry heat takes a much shorter time to sterilize material than wet heat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) 100% ethanol is twice as effective as 60% ethanol at controlling bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Microbial Metabolism: Fueling Cell Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sugar component of RNA and DNA nucleotides is synthesized
A) as deoxyribose and then changed to ribose.
B) as ribose and then changed to deoxyribose.
C) as ribose and then changed to riboxy.
D) using the Calvin cycle.
E) as deoxyribose and then changed to deboxy.
Q2) The term "precursor metabolite" refers to molecules that
A) activate cell components.
B) are used in biosynthesis.
C) result from cell activities.
D) are present but inactive.
E) denature enzymes.
Q3) Pyruvate can be metabolized along two major routes. They are
A) oxidation and reduction.
B) fermentation and respiration.
C) metabolism and anabolism.
D) anabolism and catabolism.
E) fermentation and oxidation.
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Chapter 7: The Blueprint of Life, from DNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic code has more than one codon for some amino acids. This is an example of
A) evolution.
B) stringency.
C) redundancy.
D) translation.
E) replication.
Q2) DNA replication is
A) conservative.
B) interspersive.
C) semiconservative.
D) redundant.
E) configurative.
Q3) How many nucleotides are in a codon?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Please select the INCORRECT statement regarding mutation.
A) A reversion is a mutation that corrects a defect caused by an earlier mutation.
B) A base substitution is a mutation in which the wrong nucleotide has been incorporated.
C) A missense mutation is also called a synonymous mutation, meaning no change in the amino acid encoded.
D) Insertional inactivation is the disruption of a gene's function due to a DNA segment inserted into the gene.
E) Spontaneous mutations are those that occur during the normal processes of a cell.
Q2) Crown gall is caused by a prokaryote plasmid that can be expressed in plant cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mutations are likely to persist after SOS repair, but not after light-induced or excision repair.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sequence of cDNA synthesized from an mRNA template with the sequence AUGGUA would be ________. This cDNA probe would hybridize to gene chip DNA with the sequence ________.
A) UACCAU; ATGGTA
B) TACCAT; AUGGUA
C) AUGGUA; AUGGUA
D) TACCAT; ATGGTA
E) AUGGUA; TACCAT
Q2) The Ti plasmid is used as a vector to transfer DNA into A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) plant cells.
D) animal cells.
E) protozoa.
Q3) Bacteria use CRISPR for gene editing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A very common vector is a plasmid. A)True B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Identifying and Classifying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are working in a clinical lab. Two E. coli samples are sent to you for analysis and you are asked to determined whether they are the same strain. You perform an antibiogram and find that the two samples exhibit the same sensitivity to the antibiotics you use in the procedure. This indicates
A) the organisms are likely the same strain but you need to confirm this with other methods.
B) the organisms are likely different strains but you need to confirm this with other methods.
C) the two organisms are not likely to be susceptible to the same bacteriophages.
D) the two organisms will show different results if they are Gram stained.
E) the organisms are the same strains but they will react differently in serology tests.
Q2) If the GC content of two organisms is 45% in both,
A) they are definitely related.
B) they are definitely not related.
C) they may or may not be related.
D) the AT content is 65%.
E) they are definitely related AND the AT content is 65%.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Diversity of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sulfolobus species are found at the surface of acidic sulfur-containing hot springs such as many of those found in Yellowstone National Park. They only grow at temperatures above 50°C and at a pH between 1 and 6. How would you classify these organisms?
A) Anaerobic, acidophilic mesophiles
B) Aerobic, acidophilic thermophiles
C) Microaerophilic, halotolerant basophiles
D) Aerobic, psychrophilic acidophiles
E) Psychrotrophic neutrophiles
Q2) Movement of spirochetes occurs by means of structures called A) cilia.
B) flagella.
C) endoflagella.
D) pili.
E) microvilli.
Q3) Bacteria and Archaea both have members that use sulfur compounds as a terminal electron acceptor.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once Y. pestis is in the human host, it is ingested by macrophages. Conditions within the macrophage activate certain genes in the bacterium, one of which is a gene for a capsule production. The capsule
A) allows the bacteria to float in water.
B) allows the bacteria to exchange DNA with other bacteria.
C) allows the bacteria to avoid phagocytosis.
D) provides a source of nutrients for the bacteria.
E) allows the bacteria to survive excess heat.
Q2) Why were the slime molds and water molds once considered to be fungi?
A) Early identification methods focused on appearances rather than biochemical characteristics.
B) Early identification methods focused on appearances rather than genetic similarities/differences.
C) Water molds and slime molds are STILL considered to be fungi.
D) They have the same material in their cell walls (chitin) that fungi possess.
E) Water molds and slime molds always occur in the same habitats as fungi.
Q3) Fungus grows well on fruits and many vegetables due to their alkaline pH.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A temperate phage
A) may be lysogenic.
B) may be lytic.
C) enters a lysogenic or lytic life cycle shortly after entering the host cell.
D) may be lytic AND enters a lysogenic or lytic life cycle shortly after entering the host cell.
E) may be lysogenic AND enters a lysogenic or lytic life cycle shortly after entering the host cell.
Q2) The changes that occur in virally infected cells are characteristic for a particular virus and are referred to as the
A) cytopathic effect.
B) phenotypic effect.
C) genotypic expression.
D) cytology.
E) symptomatic effect.
Q3) Capsids are made of a number of capsomeres that are covalently bonded to one another.
A)True
B)False
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15
Chapter 14: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) What two functions do phagocytes serve in immune responses?
A) Production of antibodies AND engulfment/destruction of foreign cells.
B) Engulfment/destruction of foreign cells AND alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader.
C) Alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader AND serving as a physical barrier against microbial invasion.
D) Production of antibodies AND serving as a physical barrier against microbial invasion.
E) Alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader AND production of antibodies.
Q2) White blood cells also called leukocytes are important in immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In which organism were phagocytes first reported?
A) Bacteria
B) Amoeba
C) Red blood cells
D) Starfish larvae
E) Humans
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16
Chapter 15: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ellie wonders whether she has fully understood what you have told her, so she tells you what she knows but she makes one mistake. Which statement made by your friend is INCORRECT?
A) When a person is exposed to an antigen, B cells get activated by TH cells, proliferating and differentiating to form populations of plasma cells and memory cells.
B) Plasma cells produce antibodies which are specific proteins that bind to the antigens, tagging them for elimination by other immune cells such as macrophages and neutrophils.
C) On first exposure to an antigen, a person makes IgM followed by IgG. On second exposure to that same antigen, memory cells produce large amounts of IgG.
D) If a woman experiences a primary exposure to a particular while pregnant, she makes IgM in response. This antibody crosses the placenta and protects her fetus from that pathogen.
E) If a woman experiences a secondary exposure to a particular pathogen while pregnant, she makes IgG that crosses the placenta and protects the fetus from that antigen.
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Chapter 16: Host-Microbe Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct sequence for proving Koch's postulates.
1) The microorganism must be recovered from the experimentally infected hosts.
2) The microorganism must be present in every case of the disease.
3) The same disease must be produced when a pure culture of the microorganism is introduced into susceptible hosts.
4) The microorganism must be grown in pure culture from diseased hosts.
A) 2, 4, 3, 1
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 2, 4
D) 4, 3, 1, 2
E) 4, 1, 2, 3
Q2) A more modern equivalent to Koch's postulates is termed
A) Pasteur's systematics.
B) Hoch's postulates.
C) atomic theory.
D) molecular postulates.
E) protein theory.
Q3) Obligate intracellular parasites may be grown in special synthetic media.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Immunological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Graft-versus-host disease is primarily a
A) type I reaction.
B) type II reaction.
C) type III reaction.
D) type IV reaction.
E) type V reaction.
Q2) You discuss treatment approaches that are taken for various autoimmune diseases. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable option for treating autoimmunity?
A) Limiting the immune response with anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressant medications.
B) Replacement therapy to restore damaged tissues or tissue products, for example giving insulin to diabetics.
C) Gene therapy, using retroviruses to replace defective genes coding for enzymes involved in recognizing "self" antigens.
D) Inducing tolerance by introducing the antigen by the oral route, so that the immune system "learns" to tolerate it.
E) These are all reasonable approaches to treating autoimmunity.
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19
Chapter 18: Applications of Immune Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The change from negative serum, without antibodies specific to an infecting agent, to positive serum, containing antibodies against that infecting agent, is called
A) seroconversion.
B) complement fixation.
C) ELISA.
D) serum reversion.
E) serology.
Q2) Herd immunity
A) only occurs in a population in which all individuals are immune.
B) occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune.
C) only provides protection to those that are already immune.
D) is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases.
E) occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune AND is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases.
Q3) Alum is an adjuvant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A picnic was attended by 1,000 people. Potato salad was served at the event. The next day, 140 people reported vomiting and diarrhea. What was the attack rate of this food-borne illness?
A) 1.4%
B) 14%
C) 140%
D) 10%
E) More information is needed.
Q2) Diseases with long incubation periods are more likely to spread extensively.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An infection acquired during hospitalization is referred to as a(n) ________ infection.
A) antibiotic-induced
B) therapeutic
C) medication-stimulated
D) nosocomial
E) herd initiated
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses are completely unaffected by antibiotics because
A) they rely almost completely on the host cell's metabolic machinery for their replication, making it difficult to find a target for selective toxicity.
B) they have no cell wall, ribosomes, or any other structure targeted by antibiotics.
C) they rely almost completely on the host cell's metabolic machinery for their replication, making it difficult to find a target for selective toxicity AND most viruses are innately resistant to broad- and narrow-spectrum antibiotics.
D) They have no cell wall, ribosomes, or any other structure targeted by antibiotics AND they rely almost completely on the host cell's metabolic machinery for their replication, making it difficult to find a target for selective toxicity.
E) most viruses are innately resistant to broad- and narrow-spectrum antibiotics.
Q2) Viruses are very effectively treated with antibiotics.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 21: Respiratory System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Klebsiella species easily acquire and are a source of R pneumococcal pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sudden, violent, uncontrollable cough of pertussis is described as
A) productive.
B) contagious.
C) infective.
D) paroxysmal.
E) catastrophic.
Q3) The rhinovirus contains
A) single-stranded RNA and is an enveloped virus.
B) double-stranded RNA and is an enveloped virus.
C) single-stranded RNA and and is a non-enveloped virus.
D) double-stranded RNA and is a non-enveloped virus.
E) single-stranded RNA and and is a retrovirus.
Q4) Pneumonias are inflammatory diseases of the lung in which fluid fills the alveoli.
A)True
B)False
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23
Chapter 22: Skin Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complications of measles may include pneumonia and encephalitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does coagulase help Staphylococcus aureus evade phagocytes?
A) It coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein.
B) It coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood.
C) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area.
D) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood.
E) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein.
Q3) Chickenpox and measles are both acquired by the respiratory route.
A)True
B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Wound Infections
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Q1) How is it possible for anaerobes to be involved in bite wound infections?
A) Most bite wounds are on hands or fingers, which have little tissue and few blood vessels, and are thus fairly anaerobic.
B) Facultative anaerobes in bite wounds reduce available oxygen in the affected tissue, creating anaerobic conditions.
C) Bite wounds result in the release of anaerobinases by keratinocytes; these convert oxygen to nitrogen, generating anaerobic conditions.
D) Although anaerobes are introduced into a wound through biting, they do not multiply in the aerobic tissue and do not contribute to a bite wound infection.
E) In fact, anaerobes are never involved in bite wound infections; tissues are always well oxygenated, which inhibits any anaerobes from multiplying in them.
Q2) The fungal disease that may be associated with gardening is
A) candidiasis.
B) actinomycosis.
C) tinea capitis.
D) sporotrichosis.
E) histoplasmosis.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
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Q1) Your patient asks what treatment she will be given for the CDI. You explain that initially, she will be taken off all antibiotics. This may cure her by
A) allowing her own gut normal microbiota to recover and to outcompete the C. difficile.
B) strengthening her innate and adaptive immune responses against the Clostridium difficile.
C) destroying any endospores that the C. difficile may have produced.
D) destroying any endospores that the C. difficile may have produced AND strengthening her innate and adaptive immune responses against the Clostridium difficile.
E) increasing antibiotic sensitivity in the Clostridium difficile, thereby weakening the pathogen so that the person's own immune system gets effectively rid of it.
Q2) Vibrio cholerae and most salmonellae are
A) killed by acid conditions.
B) stimulated by acid conditions.
C) killed by low concentrations of salt.
D) killed by neutral conditions.
E) acidophiles.
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Chapter 25: Blood and Lymphatic Infections
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Q1) The disease caused by an enveloped single-stranded RNA arbovirus of the flavivirus family is
A) brucellosis.
B) yellow fever.
C) malaria.
D) herpes.
E) chikungunya.
Q2) Which of the following may be transmitted by saliva?
A) Infectious mononucleosis
B) Dengue fever
C) Plague
D) Yellow fever
E) Chikungunya
Q3) Yellow fever is caused by a protozoan infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Borrelia burgdorferi is a microaerophilic spirochete.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Nervous System Infections
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Q1) Why can't botulism be transmitted from person to person?
A) The disease is caused by eating spores that germinate into vegetative cells that produce toxin.
B) The disease is a toxin-mediated disease; it is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with botulinum toxin produced under anaerobic conditions by Clostridium tetani.
C) The disease is caused by eating spores that germinate into vegetative cells that produce toxin AND people with botulism die before they can transmit the disease to others.
D) The disease is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with botulinum toxin AND the disease is caused by eating spores that germinate into vegetative cells that produce toxin.
E) Botulism is a toxin-mediated blood-borne disease AND people with botulism die before they can transmit the disease to others.
Q2) Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are frequently part of the normal microbiota of the nasal passages and throat.
A)True
B)False
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Genitourinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urinary tract infections
A) are relatively rare.
B) are the most common nosocomial infections.
C) include puerperal fever.
D) are considered STIs.
E) are the most common nosocomial infections AND are considered STIs.
Q2) HIV attacks a variety of cell types but the most critical are
A) red blood cells.
B) nerve cells.
C) platelets.
D) T helper cells.
E) T cytotoxic cells.
Q3) Which of the following diseases may manifest themselves with painful genital ulcers?
A) chancroid AND rubeola
B) chancroid AND herpes
C) herpes AND leptospirosis
D) leptospirosis AND chancroid
E) rubeola AND herpes
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Microbial Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used to describe the interrelationship between the living and non-living environments in an area is called a(n)
A) group.
B) community.
C) ecosystem.
D) ecological niche.
E) habitat.
Q2) The organisms that convert carbon dioxide into organic matter are the
A) secondary consumers.
B) primary consumers.
C) producers.
D) decomposers.
E) secondary decomposers.
Q3) Azotobacter
A) are the chief suppliers of fixed nitrogen in grasslands.
B) form symbiotic associations with algae.
C) have a very low respiratory rate.
D) are methanogens.
E) are the chief suppliers of fixed nitrogen in grasslands AND form symbiotic associations with algae.
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Chapter 29: Environmental Microbiology: Treatment of
Water, Wastes, and Polluted Habitats
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is oil not degraded when in a natural habitat underground, yet is susceptible to bioremediation in an oil spill?
A) The high pressure the oil is subjected to underground prevents bacteria from growing and consuming it.
B) The bacteria can't be given the right amounts or types of nutrients to foster an increase in their number deep underground. Nearer the surface, human intervention can increase the factors that will raise the microbe quantity.
C) The bacteria that degrade the oil require a higher than normal salt content, much like what is found in seawater. Underground, they lack this salt level.
D) Oil IS degraded underground, but it happens at a much slower rate because a portion of the cycle is photosynthetic in nature. This process is dramatically increased nearer to the water's surface.
E) There is no oxygen underground, so bacteria are unable to metabolize oil, an aerobic process. When the oil leaks into a water supply, the bacteria present in that oxygen-rich habitat begin to break it own.
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Chapter 30: Food Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The toxin causing botulism is classified as a(n)
A) enterotoxin.
B) endotoxin.
C) neurotoxin.
D) toxoid.
E) superantigen.
Q2) Which of the following is not an intrinsic factor affecting growth of microorganisms on food?
A) Water availability
B) Benzoic acid
C) Lysozyme
D) Temperature
E) Fruit rinds
Q3) Why do bacteria generally predominate on fresh meats?
A) Fresh meat provides a moist, acidic, salty, nutrient-rich environment.
B) Most bacteria obtain iron from red blood cells-these are abundant in meat.
C) Fresh meat provides a moist, pH-neutral, nutrient-rich environment.
D) Fresh meat provides a somewhat dry, pH-neutral, saline environment that bacteria prefer.
E) The preservatives found on fresh meat stimulate the growth of bacteria.
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