Microbial Physiology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Microbial Physiology explores the structural, functional, and metabolic processes that enable microorganisms to grow, reproduce, and interact with their environments. The course investigates cellular organization, nutrient uptake, energy production, biosynthesis of macromolecules, regulatory mechanisms, and adaptation to stress or changing conditions. Emphasis is placed on the diversity of microbial life encompassing bacteria, archaea, and selected eukaryotic microbes as well as experimental approaches used to study physiological functions. This foundational knowledge is essential for understanding microbial roles in ecosystems, biotechnology, health, and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Q1) All of the following are true statements about the development of antibiotics,except:
A)most bacteria that stopped the growth of other bacteria by producing antibiotics were soil bacteria
B)Fleming noticed that a contaminant mold (Penicillium)prevented the growth of bacteria adjacent to itself
C)an antibiotic was discovered in the sea after a scientist noted the absence of disease causing organisms in the seawater where the sewage entered D)sulfa drugs did not prove to be useful as the body converted them into inactive molecules
Answer: D
Q2) The first person to use a microscope to observe cells invisible to the naked eye was:
A)Robert Hooke
B)Matthias Schleiden
C)Anton van Leeuwenhoek
D)Louis Pasteur
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Q1) Which is NOT one of the enterotypes described for humans
A)Bacteroides-dominant
B)Prevotella-dominant
C)Ruminococcus-dominant
D)all are correct enterotypes
E)E.coli-dominant
Answer: E
Q2) Risks from obesity do NOT include:
A)poor cold tolerance
B)metabolic syndrome
C)high blood pressure
D)heart disease
E)stroke
Answer: A
Q3) A C-section affects the milk microbbiome by reducing its diversity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to become an ion,an atom of chlorine must _____.
A)gain an electron
B)form a covalent bond
C)lose an electron
D)form a hydrogen bond
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not a colloid
A)salt water
B)gelatin desserts
C)agar plates used to grow microorganisms
D)fluid in cells
Answer: A
Q3) What is true about oxidation
A)The more oxidized a molecule,the less energy it contains.
B)Oxidation is the removal of oxygen or the addition of hydrogen or electrons to a substance.
C)Gasoline represents the extreme of energy-rich oxidized compounds.
D)Oxidation reactions only occur in polar compounds.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Q1) Electron microscopes:
A)that are scanning have better resolution than those that are transmission
B)are much more expensive and take up more space than light microscopes
C)can use the same preparations of specimens that have been prepared for viewing with a light microscope
D)have a resolving power approximately 10 times better than the best light microscope
Q2) Which of the following is not a differential stain
A)Gram stain
B)Schaeffer-Fulton
C)Acid-fast stain
D)Flagellar stain
Q3) During microscopic observation of a specimen,the amount of light that is allowed to pass through the specimen is controlled by the:
A)condenser
B)objective lens
C)iris diaphragm
D)ocular lens
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Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) A small comma shaped bacteria is described as being a ________.
A)spirochete
B)bacillus
C)spirillum
D)vibrio
Q2) Some bacteria can transfer DNA to another cell using:
A)conjugation pili
B)fimbriae
C)axial filaments
D)lophotrichous flagella
Q3) Mitochondria:
A)are responsible for converting sunlight to chemical energy
B)are present only in photosynthetic organisms
C)have a double membrane
D)are responsible for protein synthesis
Q4) Which of the following statements about cell walls is false
A)All bacterial cell walls contain teichoic acids.
B)Plants and fungi have cell walls.
C)Bacteria which have lost their cell wall are known as L-forms.
D)Algal protists have cell walls.
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) Photoautotrophs obtain energy from:
A)light and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
B)organic molecules and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
C)inorganic substances and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
D)light and use organic substances as a carbon source
Q2) Sulfa drugs bind to the active site of the enzyme which normally converts para-amino benzoic acid (PABA)to folic acid,preventing the production of folic acid and,eventually purine synthesis.In this case,the sulfa drug is acting as a/an:
A)allosteric inhibitor
B)competitive inhibitor
C)noncompetitive inhibitor
D)uncompetitive inhibitor
Q3) Enzymes work by:
A)lowering the energy of the reactants.
B)raising the energy of the products.
C)decreasing the activation energy of the reaction.
D)increasing the activation energy of the reaction.
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8
Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a trace element
A)carbon
B)zinc
C)sulphur
D)phosphorous
Q2) Halophiles require an environment with a high concentration of ________ for optimal growth.
A)sugar
B)alcohol
C)salt
D)phosphorous
Q3) Microaerophiles:
A)grow best when the environment has a small amount of carbon dioxide.
B)grow best when the environment has a small amount of free oxygen.
C)need a high concentration of carbon dioxide.
D)need a high concentration of oxygen.
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9
Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following properties are exclusive to tRNA
A)Combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes
B)Carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein
C)Molecules contain an anticodon
D)Contains the nucleotide thymine
Q2) Mutations:
A)when occurring on a particular Okazaki fragment can lead to different loci
B)often change a person's blood from type A to type AB
C)are responsible for heritable variations seen in progeny
D)occur only when the DNA is transmitted to a daughter cell
Q3) The information carried by DNA is used to create a ________ which then moves to the ribosome for protein synthesis.
A)tRNA
B)rRNA
C)siRNA
D)mRNA
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following processes requires contact between donor and recipient cells
A)transduction
B)transcription
C)conjugation
D)transformation
Q2) Competence refers to a bacterium's ability to _____.
A)synthesize a protein from another species gene that has been engineered
B)undergo conjunction with an F cell
C)take up DNA fragments
D)be infected by a phage
Q3) The Ti plasmid is known primarily for its ability to:
A)direct synthesis of conjugation pili
B)provide resistance to certain antibiotics
C)induce the formation of tumors in plants
D)two of these
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Q1) In the three-domain classification system _____.
A)all prokaryotes are grouped into the same domain
B)eukaryotes are found in two of the domains
C)archaea may be more closely related eukaryotes than to bacteria
D)two of these
Q2) The science of classification is generally known as _____.
A)nomenclature
B)taxonomy
C)morphology
D)dichotomy
Q3) Fungi can be differentiated from plants by the fact that _____.
A)fungi are all unicellular,plants are all multicellular
B)fungi do not have a cell wall,plants have a cell wall
C)fungi cannot photosynthesize,plants can photosynthesize
D)fungi are prokaryotic,plants are eukaryotic
Q4) Which one of the following is a prokaryote without a cell wall
A)Virus
B)Cyanobacterium
C)Mycoplasma
D)Rickettsia
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Viruses
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Q1) The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by:
A)the presence of oncogenes in humans
B)the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients
C)treating cancer patients with antibiotics
D)development of a cancer following an injection of viruses
Q2) Which of the following explains how DNA tumor viruses may cause human cancers
A)viral proteins infect other uninfected host cells.
B)viral proteins block the effect of tumor-suppressor genes which prevent uncontrolled cell division.
C)viral particles infect sex cells and transmit the virions to offspring.
D)use viral reverse transcriptase to integrate the DNA tumor viruses into the host chromosome.
Q3) The families of RNA viruses are distinguished from one another by all of the following EXCEPT:
A)presence of an envelope
B)shape of the capsid
C)sense or antisense RNA
D)whether RNA is linear or circular
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Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Organisms that are normally free living but can also obtain nutrients from a host are called _____.
A)facultative parasites
B)obligate parasite
C)biological vectors
D)accidental parasites
Q2) Which of the following statements about protists is true
A)The protozoan responsible for malaria is classified as a ciliate.
B)Eutrophication occurs when protists stop growing in a body of water.
C)Amoeba move by means of cilia.
D)All protists are eukaryotic.
Q3) The major characteristic used to divide protozoans into four major groups is _____.
A)type of feeding behavior
B)habitat
C)reproduction strategies
D)type of motility
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Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a cationic detergent having four organic groups attached to a nitrogen atom and used to sanitize utensils
A)Quaternary ammonium compound
B)Propionic acid
C)Methylene blue
D)Ethylene oxide
Q2) Microwave radiation:
A)damages DNA by ionizing radiation.
B)destroys bacterial endospores.
C)produces peroxides,which oxidize molecules.
D)when tuned to energy levels of water releases the energy as heat.
Q3) Membrane filters are used for sterilization because _____.
A)filters with smallest pore size do not clog easily
B)many materials are destroyed by heat sterilization
C)they are used to sterilize only very small amounts of liquid
D)they are impractical for the filtration of beer,sera,media,vitamins and drugs
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Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Imidazoles and triazoles are antimicrobial agents that are effective:
A)bacteriostatic agents
B)bactericidal agents
C)antifungal agents
D)antiviral agents
Q2) Interferons and immunoenhancers:
A)are widely used to treat viruses
B)cause no side effects
C)include levamisole and inosiplex
D)have been thoroughly researched
Q3) Characteristics of an ideal antimicrobial agent include all of the following except:
A)resistance by microorganisms
B)reasonable cost
C)long shelf life
D)toxicity not easily altered
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Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) All of the following refer to the normal microflora except _____.
A)no microflora is found in the fetus
B)resident microorganisms normally do not cause disease
C)some microorganisms are resident while others are transient
D)resident microorganisms are found in nervous system and blood
Q2) The rapid transfer of a microbial pathogen through animals of a susceptible species
A)does not change the pathogenicity
B)increases its fitness in broth culture
C)can increase the intensity of the disease produced by that pathogen
D)can decrease the intensity of the disease produced by that pathogen
Q3) Streptococcus pyogenes is a causative agent of:
A)scarlet fever
B)bacillary dysentery
C)anthrax
D)diphtheria
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Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) Which of following is a true statement about outbreaks
A)An outbreak is considered vastly more serious than an epidemic.
B)A propagated outbreak arises from contact with contaminated substances.
C)In common-source outbreaks new cases are continually seen during time.
D)Outbreaks can be classified by the rate of increase of new cases.
Q2) An infectious disease in which transmission can occur during the incubation period of disease is considered to be:
A)chronic
B)acute
C)carrier
D)communicable
Q3) A zoonosis refers to an infectious disease that is transmitted:
A)to a vertebrate animal from a human
B)from a water reservoir to a human
C)from a human to their pets
D)to a human from vertebrate animal
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Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) Macrophages include all of the following except:
A)wandering macrophages
B)cells that phagocytize large debris
C)the fastest phagocytes to reach an infection site
D)histiocytes,kupffer cells and osteoclasts
Q2) All of the following are components of the nonspecific host defenses except:
A)fever
B)mucus
C)antibodies
D)interferon
Q3) A protein that interferes with the ability of a virus to replicate inside a host cell is
A)streptolysin
B)leukocidin
C)interferon
D)histamine
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Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) The process whereby lymphocytes which recognize self antigens are removed,thus producing tolerance in the host is:
A)heterogeneity
B)memory
C)primary response
D)clonal deletion
Q2) Cross reactions occur in all of the following cases except:
A)when an antibody reacts with structurally similar antigens
B)when syphilis has the same antigens as human cells
C)between a hapten and a carrier molecule
D)recognition of two strains of bacteria
Q3) Cells that synthesize and release antibody molecules are:
A)plasma cells
B)stem cells
C)cytotoxic T lymphocytes
D)helper T lymphocytes
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Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Q1) The immunologically privileged site that protects the fetus from mother's immune system is most likely due to the fact that _____.
A)mother's IgG do not cross the placenta
B)fetal portion of placenta does not exhibit MHC molecules
C)alpha-fetoprotein inhibits immune responses
D)two of these
Q2) Which of the following could result in a Type II hypersensitivity
A)a patient with A blood given B blood by mistake
B)an Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus
C)an Rh-positive mother carrying an Rh-negative fetus
D)two of these
Q3) Which of the following definitions of tissue transplants is incorrect
A)Autograft - tissue is moved from one part of the body to another
B)Allograft - tissue is grafted between two individuals who are not genetically identical
C)Xenograft - tissue is grafted from one animal species to another
D)Isograft - tissue is grafted from parent to child
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Roseola:
A)causes a sudden rash and brief high fever
B)is also known as german measles
C)causes a lifelong latent infection of T cells
D)two of these
Q2) Which of the following Staphylococcal infections are matched correctly with infection sites
A)folliculitis - deep internal pus-filled infection
B)furuncle - massive lesion on neck and upper back
C)boil - an exterior pus-filled infection
D)abscess - base of an eyelash
Q3) Pediculosis is an infestation of:
A)lice
B)ticks
C)chiggers
D)mites
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Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Gonorrhea and syphilis share which of the following properties
A)Both may be diagnosed by direct culture of the pathogen
B)Both pathogens are spirochetes
C)Both may be passed to a newborn (either during gestation or at birth)
D)Two of these
Q2) What are the signs associated with congenital syphilis
A)Huchinson's teeth
B)Saber shin
C)Saddle-nose
D)All of these
Q3) Diagnosis of syphilis is confirmed by _____.
A)immobilization tests
B)using molecular probes
C)culturing the organism
D)PCR
Q4) Genital herpes can be acquired:
A)by kissing gingivostomatitis lesions of the mouth
B)during sexual contact with a partner infected with HSV-2
C)by oral sex - often with HSV-1
D)two of these choices
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Pontiac fever is a mild form of _____.
A)tuberculosis
B)pneumonia
C)legionellosis
D)diphtheria
Q2) The paroxysmal stage of whooping cough is characterized by _____.
A)mild,dry,persistent cough
B)a migraine headache
C)violent coughing
D)pseudomembrane forming in throat
Q3) Lung fluke infection is associated with _____.
A)Paragonimus westermani
B)larvae maturing in bronchioles
C)chronic cough,bloody sputum and difficulty breathing
D)all of these choices
Q4) Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by:
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Mycobacterium pneumoniae
C)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D)Klebsiella pneumoniae
24
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Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which pathogen is correctly matched with the symptoms it causes
A)Crytosoporidium - amoebic dysentery
B)Entamoeba histolytica - copious and frothy diarrhea
C)Cyclospora cayentanenisis - extreme fatigue,flu-like symptoms,watery diarrhea
D)Giardia intestinalis - watery diarrhea seen in 400,000+ Milwaukee residents in 1993
Q2) Traveler's diarrhea is caused by:
A)Rotavirus
B)Salmonella
C)Entamoeba
D)All of these choices
Q3) All of the following refers to typhoid fever EXCEPT:
A)the Widal test is used to confirm the diagnosis
B)chloroamphenicol,cephalosporine and fluoroquinolones are used in the treatment
C)it requires a surrogate virus infection in order to cause disease
D)internal hemorrhage and perforation of the bowel are serious complications
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Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following diseases was first seen in New York City about 60 years ago,associated with the mites of house mice and often misdiagnosed as chickenpox
A)Ehrlichiosis
B)Turkeypox
C)Rickettsialpox
D)Shingles
Q2) Arenavirus fevers include:
A)Colorado fever
B)Fifth disease
C)Toxoplasmosis
D)Lassa fever
Q3) Group B Streptococcal disease is characterized by:
A)early onset neonatal sepsis and meningitis
B)late onset neonatal meningitis
C)etiology is Streptococcus agalactiae
D)all of these choices
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26
Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Prions infectivity:
A)can be destroyed by autoclaving for 1 hour
B)is reduced after formaldehyde treatment
C)can be retained in buried brains left for 3 years in soil
D)two of these choices
Q2) One problem with treating Hansen's disease is _____.
A)antibiotics are not effective against the Mycobacterium
B)dapsone-resistant strains are beginning to appear
C)the organism is growing too rapidly for the antibiotic to work
D)the bacteria survive inside the microglial cells
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to special thick-walled capillaries without pores in their walls
A)ganglia
B)meninges
C)blood-brain barrier
D)two of these choices
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The indicator organism for human pathogens in a water supply is:
A)Escherichia coli
B)Salmonella typhi
C)Poliovirus
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) Which bacteria are found in the desert and are oil eating
A)Halobacterium
B)Desulfurovibrio
C)Thiobacillus
D)Arthrobacter
Q3) Which of the following is used to control the of microbes in the air
A)UV light
B)triethylene glycol
C)cellulose acetate filters
D)all of these choices
Q4) Tertiary treatment of sewage could include:
A)chlorine
B)UV light
C)ozone
D)all of these choices
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Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) The commonest method of pasteurization that currently is used to sterilize milk is
A)high-temperature short-time pasteurization
B)holding method pasteurization
C)ultra-high temperature treatment
D)all of these choices
Q2) Floppy baby syndrome is caused by _____.
A)Bacillus species in milk
B)Clostridium botulinum in milk
C)Clostridium botulinum in honey
D)Bacillus in honey
Q3) Which alkylating agent is used to control microbes in nuts and spices
A)ethylene oxide
B)nisin
C)propylene oxide
D)two of these choices
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