Microbial Physiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Microbial Physiology explores the functional processes and biochemical activities of microorganisms, focusing on their metabolic pathways, energy generation, growth, and adaptation to various environments. The course covers nutrient uptake, enzyme function, respiration and fermentation, regulation of cellular processes, and the response to environmental stress. Students will gain an understanding of how bacteria, archaea, and other microbes maintain homeostasis, interact with their surroundings, and contribute to ecological and industrial systems. Through lectures and laboratory exercises, this course provides a foundation in the principles underlying microbial survival, diversity, and applications in biotechnology and healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scientist who studies the influence of microbes in the formation of caves is called a(n) ______.
A)astrobiologist
B)epidemiologist
C)geomicrobiologist
D)immunologist
Answer: C
Q2) Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of ______.
A)biotechnology
B)bioremediation
C)decomposition
D)epidemiology
E)immunology
Answer: B
Q3) Archaeal cells are about ______ bacterial cells.
A)ten times smaller than B)the same size as
C)ten times larger than
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Substances that release ions when dissolved in water and conduct electricity are ______.
A)covalent
B)solvents
C)nonpolar
D)electrons
E)electrolytes
Answer: E
Q2) All of the following are monosaccharides except ______.
A)glycogen
B)fructose
C)glucose
D)deoxyribose
Answer: A
Q3) All of the following pertain to the atom Carbon-14 except it
A)has 14 neutrons.
B)is an isotope of carbon.
C)has 6 protons.
D)has 6 electrons.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Q1) Which type of medium distinguishes different types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
A)Enriched
B)Enumeration
C)Selective
D)Reducing
E)Differential
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is not a benefit of agar as a solid medium?
A)Holds moisture
B)Flexibility
C)Solid at room temperature
D)Can be inoculated and poured at a temperature that is not harmful
E)Easily digested by most microbes
Answer: E
Q3) Following a properly-performed Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will appear as pink or red cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gram-negative bacteria
A)have a more complex cell envelope with a greater variation in chemical composition.
B)appear purple following the Gram stain.
C)are generally more susceptible to antibiotics than gram-positive bacteria.
D)include all pathogens.
Q2) The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be that
A)material would not cross the cell membrane.
B)the chromosome would unravel.
C)protein synthesis would stop.
D)holes would appear in the capsule.
E)glycogen inclusions would form.
Q3) Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shape?
A)Spirochete
B)Vibrio
C)Coccus
D)Bacillus
E)Tetrad
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the life cycle of the pinworm Enterobius, a common pediatric infection, the child carries the adult worm in his/ her intestine.The adult worm releases eggs, which are transmitted out of the body in the feces.The child will scratch the itching anal region, picking up the worm eggs and re-inserting them into his/her mouth.For this helminth life cycle, the human is the ______ host.
A)intermediate
B)definitive
C)primary
D)intermediate and definitive
Q2) Eukaryotic flagella differ from bacterial flagella because only eukaryotic flagella
A)facilitate chemotaxis.
B)are used for cell motility.
C)are long, whip-like structures.
D)contain microtubules.
E)facilitate phototaxis.
Q3) Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Satellite viruses are
A)also called viroids.
B)dependent on other viruses for replication.
C)the cause of spongiform encephalopathies.
D)significant pathogens of plants.
Q2) A/an _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
A)capsomere
B)capsid
C)spike
D)envelope
E)monolayer
Q3) Viral spikes
A)are always present on enveloped viruses.
B)attach the viral capsid and envelope.
C)allow bacteria to evade host defenses.
D)are derived from host proteins.
E)are for recognition among the various types of viruses.
Q4) Viruses are simple, noncellular, and lack mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cultures of a bacterial strain were incubated in a refrigerator (5°C), on a lab bench (22°C), in a 37°C incubator, and in a 50°C incubator.After incubation, there was no growth at 37°C and 50°C, slight growth in the refrigerator, and abundant growth on the lab bench top.Which term best describes this organism?
A)Halophile
B)Psychrotroph
C)Capnophile
D)Mesophile
E)Anaerobe
Q2) Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) ATP is composed of deoxyribose, adenine, and three phosphate groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a process that regenerates ATP?
A)Oxidative phosphorylation
B)Reductive phosphorylation
C)Substrate-level phosphorylation
D)Photophosphorylation
Q3) An oxidase detection test can be used to identify certain bacteria because they are missing or lack expression of ______.
A)cytochrome C oxidase
B)NAD
C)mitochondria
D)ATP synthase
E)coenzyme Q
Q4) Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration?
A)It involves glycolysis.
B)It generates some ATP.
C)It utilizes an electron transport system.
D)It uses the same final electron acceptor as aerobic respiration.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by
A)DNA ligase
B)DNA polymerase
C)DNA helicase
D)DNA gyrase
E)primase
Q2) Split genes
A)are common in bacteria and eukaryotes.
B)only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA.
C)have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region.
D)are acted upon by spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons.
Q3) The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except
A)they contain codons within their rRNA molecules.
B)they participate only in translation.
C)they bind to the 5'end of mRNA by their small subunit.
D)they use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding.
E)they shift towards the 3'direction along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next.
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of introducing a needed, normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When micro RNA molecules malfunction, their effect is limited to the inhibition of protein production, which results in tumor growth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The primers in PCR are
A)synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.
B)reverse transcriptases.
C)bacterial enzymes.
D)DNA polymerases.
E)short RNA strands.
Q4) Which of the following is the second step in gene mapping?
A)Target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B)Cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid
C)Separate DNA fragments with gel electrophoresis
D)Desired protein is produced by cloning host
E)Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) The alcohol wipe used on a patient's skin before an injection is an example of
A)antisepsis
B)disinfection
C)sterilization
D)decontamination
E)sanitization
Q2) _____ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA, which leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers.
A)Ultraviolet
B)Ionizing
C)Infrared
D)Gamma
E)Particle
Q3) Aniline dyes like crystal violet have antimicrobial activity particularly against gram-positive bacteria and some fungi.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics that disrupt bacterial ribosomes can also affect
A)eukaryotic large ribosomal subunit.
B)eukaryotic small ribosomal subunit.
C)ribosomal RNA.
D)eukaryotic mitochondrial ribosomes.
Q2) Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have ______.
A)a beta-lactam ring.
B)an expanded spectrum of activity.
C)resistance to the action of penicillinase.
D)a semisynthetic nature.
Q3) The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore a healthy acidic environment is an example of ______.
A)prebiotics
B)probiotics
C)lantibiotics
D)phytobiotics
E)riboswitches
Q4) Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intermediary inanimate object from which an infectious agent is acquired is termed a ______.
A)fomite
B)carrier
C)vector
D)reservoir
Q2) The suffix -osis means ______.
A)blood
B)a disease or morbid process
C)an inflammation
D)tumor
E)pertaining to
Q3) Which genus is the most common resident biota of mouth surfaces?
A)Lactobacillus
B)Streptococcus
C)Haemophilus
D)Escherichia
E)Mycobacterium
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Components of the first line of defense include all of the following, except
A)the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin.
B)the flushing action of tears and blinking.
C)nasal hairs.
D)phagocytic white blood cells.
E)the flushing action of urine.
Q2) Which of the following is incorrect about blood cells?
A)They develop from undifferentiated stem cells.
B)They include glial cells.
C)They include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei.
D)After birth, they are produced in red bone marrow sites.
E)They include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes.
Q3) Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all
A)mediators that increase chemotaxis.
B)mediators of T-cell activity.
C)fever inducers.
D)mediators of B-cell activity.
E)vasoactive mediators.
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is _____.
A)IgE
B)IgM
C)IgA
D)IgG
E)IgD
Q2) Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed ______.
A)haptens
B)antigen binding sites
C)epitopes
D)variable regions
Q3) Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule, thereby disrupting their activity?
A)Opsonization
B)Neutralization
C)Complement fixation
D)Agglutination
E)Anamnestic response
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in
A)hemolytic disease of the newborn.
B)anaphylaxis.
C)serum sickness.
D)delayed hypersensitivity.
Q2) High levels of tryptase in the blood is indicative of
A)a viral and/or fungal infection.
B)high levels of degranulating mast cells suggesting an allergic reaction.
C)overuse of dietary supplements.
D)a bacterial infection.
Q3) An antihistamine will
A)bind to histamine receptors on target organs.
B)reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles.
C)block synthesis of leukotrienes.
D)inhibit the activity of lymphocytes.
Q4) A viral infection can lead to the development of type I diabetes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which test compares the percentage of cytosine and guanine bases to adenine and thymine bases?
A)Direct antigen testing
B)DNA analysis with probes
C)Electrophoresis
D)G + C composition
E)rRNA sequencing
Q2) ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to trace antigen-antibody reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Phenotypic testing is often beneficial in identifying infectious agents from patient samples; however, some disadvantages include
A)organisms must be grown on the same culture media so it is difficult to distinguish them from each other.
B)lengthy culturing times and the inability to grow some bacteria in vitro.
C)difficulty in identifying motile organisms.
D)non-specificity of some biochemical tests since all pathogens utilize the same substrate as a fuel source.
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Current recommendations for the treatment of MRSA infections in the United States will change based on
A)patterns of antibiotic resistance.
B)the cost of different antibiotics.
C)the availability of different antibiotics.
D)congressional approval.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
A)It can be caused by S.pyogenes or S.pneumoniae.
B)Infection produces a clear discharge from the eye.
C)It can be transmitted through both direct and indirect contact.
D)Treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic.
Q3) In a recent surgery, when the cut area was sutured, bacteria entered the open tissue.As a result, you now have an infection of deep tissue exhibiting redness, swelling, pain, fever, and a rash.With your knowledge of microbiology, you predict that you have a developed an infection caused by ______.
A)Neisseria
B)human herpesvirus 3
C) E.coli
D)Staphylococcus
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the likelihood that a patient infected by West Nile virus will develop West Nile encephalitis?
A)Less than 1%
B)Between 1% and 10%
C)Between 10% and 15%
D)Greater than 20%
E)Greater than 50%
Q2) Treatment for Neisseria meningitidis consists of ______.
A)intravenous penicillin G
B)vancomycin
C)rifampin
D)oral penicillin G
E)tetracycline
Q3) Prions can be transmitted by all of the following except
A)ingesting brain material.
B)ingesting meat from infected animals.
C)surgical instruments.
D)cornea transplants.
E) All of the choices have been documented as methods of prion transmission.
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding HIV is incorrect?
A)The virus attaches to host cells with CD4 receptors.
B)PCR is the primary technique for detecting HIV in blood.
C)The viral DNA integrates into the host DNA.
D)The virus becomes latent in host cells.
E)The virus can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities.
Q2) The causative agent of Lyme disease is ______.
A)Leptospira interrogans
B)Ixodes pacificus
C)Borrelia burgdorferi
D)Borrelia hermsii
E)Ixodes scapularis
Q3) Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the severe pain in muscles and joints?
A)Chikungunya
B)Marburg
C)Lassa fever
D)Ebola
E)Dengue fever
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common mode of transmission for sinusitis is _______.
A)exotoxin
B)direct contact
C)indirect contact
D)endogenous infection
E)droplet contact
Q2) Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in cases of _______.
A)diphtheria
B)pharyngitis
C)tuberculosis
D)pertussis
E)SARS
Q3) All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except
A)live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life.
B)symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats.
C)lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB.
D)the BCG vaccine is used in other countries.
Page 23
E)antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Q1) The most common cause of liver cancer in the United States is hepatitis ______ virus.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q2) Only feces from humans that contaminates food and water can be involved in transmission of amoebiasis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) WASH initiatives are public health initiatives that address WAter, Sanitation, and Hygiene.Which of the following diseases would not be expected to show a decrease in prevalence following a successful WASH campaign?
A)Ascaris lumbricoides infection
B)Entamoeba infection
C)Schistosomiasis
D)Clostridium difficile infection
E)Shigella infection
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) The most commonly reported STI in the United States is ______.
A)Chlamydia infection
B)syphilis
C)gonorrhea
D)genital herpes
E)HIV infection
Q2) Schistosoma haematobium infection
A)predisposes victims to bladder cancer.
B)is transmitted via the fecal-oral route.
C)has no effective treatment at this time.
D)begins with larval entry through abraded skin.
E)predisposes victims to liver cancer.
Q3) Chlamydia infection can lead to cervicitis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gardasil prevents infection by group B Streptococcus types 6, 11, 16, and 18.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding red tides is incorrect?
A)Toxins produced by dinoflagellates are skin irritants.
B)Red tides are also known as harmful algal blooms (HABs).
C)Dinoflagellates produce a toxin that causes paralytic shellfish poisoning.
D)Red tides result from an overgrowth of dinoflagellates.
Q2) The advantage of nitrogen fixation to the host plant is
A)the ability to synthesize amino acids and proteins from the ammonia produced.
B) the production of nucleotides required for nucleic acid synthesis.
C) the production of antibiotics that protect the plant against pathogenic soil bacteria.
D) the ability to use nitrogen gas instead of oxygen gas in cellular respiration, particularly when the soil is compacted.
Q3) The thin envelope of life that surrounds the earth's surface is called the ______.
A)hydrosphere
B)lithosphere
C)biosphere
D)atmosphere
E)ecosystem
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water
Safety
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Q1) Dehydration is an excellent microbicidal method.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mass, controlled culture of microbes to produce desired organic compounds is ______.
A)fermentation
B)biotechnology
C)bioremediation
D)biosynthesis
Q3) A good range of temperature to store food is ______.
A)0° to 50°C
B)20° to 80°C
C)below 10°C and above 80°C
D)below 4°C and above 60°C
E)below -10°C and above 100°C
Q4) Secondary metabolites are essential molecules needed by the microorganism.
A)True
B)False
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