Microbial Physiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Microbial Physiology explores the functional biology of microorganisms, focusing on their metabolic processes, growth, and adaptation to diverse environments. This course examines key mechanisms such as energy generation, nutrient transport, regulation of gene expression, and responses to environmental stresses across bacteria, archaea, and select eukaryotic microbes. Emphasis is also placed on the experimental techniques used to study microbial physiology and the relevance of microbial processes in health, industry, and ecology. Through lectures, readings, and laboratory exercises, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how microbes function and interact with their surroundings.
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Microbiology 1st Edition by Dave Wessner
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Q1) What are the three Domains of life?
A) Monera, Animals, and Plants
B) Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
C) Prokaryote, Eukaryote, and Fungi
D) Animals, Plants, and Bacteria
E) Animals, Plants, and Protista
Answer: B
Q2) Macromolecules that catalyze chemical reactions in the cell are called
Answer: enzymes
Q3) What is the Endosymbiotic Theory is used to explain?
A) the rapid evolution of viruses
B) antiphagocytic abilities of parasitic protozoa
C) pathogenicity of parasitic bacteria
D) presence of mitochondria in eukaryotes
E) development of the nucleus in eukaryotes
Answer: D
Q4) The main difference between the two cell types,prokaryote and eukaryote,is the presence of a ________________ in the eukaryote.
Answer: nucleus
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Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) In the scientific name Bacillus cereus,the term Bacillus represents the organism's ___ and cereus its ____.
Answer: genus ,species
Q2) Which statement is FALSE in regards to the plasma membrane?
A) Glucose cannot easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
B) Protons can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
C) Oxygen can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
D) Water can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
E) Potassium ions cannot easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
Answer: B
Q3) The lipopolysaccharides (LPS)of most Gram-negative bacteria is able to trigger a very strong inflammatory response in humans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The movement of a bacterial cell toward a chemical attractant is called
Answer: chemotaxis
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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Q1) Amitochondriates are eukaryal microbes that lack mitochondria.What evidence shows that some of these microbes may at one time have had mitochondria?
A) They can respire on oxygen.
B) They have peptidoglycan in their cell wall.
C) They have 70S ribosomes.
D) They have some alpha-proteobacterium DNA in their chromosome.
E) They have circular chromosomes.
Answer: D
Q2) What is the function of sterols in the eukaryal membrane?
A) To increase membrane fluidity.
B) To help stabilize the membrane.
C) To aid in transport of nutrients into the cell.
D) To participate in the synthesis and assembly of lipids in the membrane.
E) To contribute to cell movement.
Answer: B
Q3) Plasmodium falciparum causes the disease ______.
Answer: malaria
Q4) Microfilament are made of the protein ___.
Answer: actin
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) The archaeal chromosome is:
A) linear and contained within a nuclear membrane.
B) circular and contained within a nuclear membrane.
C) circular and contains histones.
D) linear and contains histones.
E) circular, contains histones, and contained within a nuclear membrane.
Q2) How do the Bacteria and Archaea differ in the way the flagellum proteins are handled?
A) Archaea proteins are assembled inside the cell for transport out of the cell.
B) Archaea proteins are excreted to the outside of the cell for self-assembly.
C) Archaea proteins are added to the growing flagellum shaft at the base.
D) Archaea proteins are transported through the hollow flagellum tube for assembly at the end of the flagellum.
E) Archaea proteins are enclosed within a membrane and moved to the outside of the cell.
Q3) All members of the Archaea domain contain a cell wall.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the function of the protein bacteriorhodopsin in Halobacterium salinarum?
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) The zone of clearing as a result of a phage infection on a lawn of E.coli growing on the surface of an agar plate is called a ________.
Q2) What do proto-oncogenes encode?
A) proteins that cause cell death
B) proteins that cause apoptosis in the cell
C) proteins that control cell division
D) proteins that prevent virus infection
E) retroviral proteins
Q3) Which Domain contains the viruses?
A) Bacteria
B) Archaea
C) Eukarya
D) It depends upon their host.
E) They are not classified at the domain level.
Q4) What is the average size of a virus?
A) 10 - 100 nm
B) 0.5 - 1 µm
C) 5 - 10 µm
D) 100 - 500 µm.
E) 1 - 10 mm
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Q1) The process commonly used by the dairy industry to reduce the number of microbes in milk and destroy any pathogens that may be present is called ______________.
Q2) What is the term for microbes that grow optimally at a pH below 5.5?
A) alkalophiles
B) psychrophiles
C) halophiles
D) acidophiles
E) barophiles
Q3) What is a chemostat?
A) A system used for the continuous culture of microbial cells.
B) A chemical used as a substrate for growth of microbial cells.
C) The maximum growth rate that can be obtained for a useable substrate.
D) A batch culture that uses a defined medium for growth.
E) A nutrient that is able to control the growth rate of a bacterial culture.
Q4) What are the ingredients in MacConkey agar makes it both selective and differential? Give an example for its use.
Q5) Nucleic acids strongly absorb _____________ radiation of 260 nm.
Q6) Would ionizing radiation be safe to use on food? Why?
Q7) A device used for the continuous culturing of bacteria is called a _________.
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Q1) The Watson and Crick model showed that in the DNA molecule:
A) purines paired with pyrimidines, and the strands align anti-parallel to one another.
B) purines paired with purines, and the strands align parallel to one another.
C) purines paired with purines, and the strands align anti-parallel to one another.
D) purines paired with pyrimidines, and the strands align parallel to one another.
E) pyrimidines paired with pyrimidines, and the strands align parallel to one another.
Q2) Which enzyme is responsible for adding the final bases to the end of a chromosome during DNA replication in eukaryal cells?
A) DNA pol
B) DNA pol
C) DNA primase B
D) telomerase
E) topoisomerase
Q3) All living organisms use the same genetic code for the translation of mRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) Phage lambda ( )is referred to as a temperate phage.What is a temperate phage?
A) A phage that always causes a lytic infection.
B) The same thing as a lysogen.
C) A phage that only lyses a cell at a specific temperature.
D) A phage that can undergo either a lytic or lysogenic phase of replication.
E) A bacteriophage that contains single-stranded RNA for its genome.
Q2) Which of the following viral replication processes would not be a good target for an antiviral drug?
A) Attachment
B) Viral entry
C) Translation of viral proteins
D) Uncoating of viral capsid
E) Assembly of virus capsid
Q3) Describe the series of events that usually occur for an enveloped virus to exit the cell with an intact envelope containing the outer envelope viral proteins.
Q4) Reverse transcriptase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most enveloped viruses exit their host cell through a process called __________.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Q1) The enzyme ___________ hydrolyzes the chromogenic substrate X-gal.
A) -amylase
B) -lactamase
C) xylanase
D) -galactosidase
E) glucuronidase
Q2) The process of molecular cloning was mainly brought about through the discovery of these.
A) bacteriophages
B) transposons
C) transformations
D) restriction enzymes
E) conjugation events
Q3) Term for cells that can naturally take up extracellular DNA.
A) porous
B) competent
C) conjugant
D) susceptible
E) primed
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) Dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs)are used in the Sanger sequencing method.What are ddNTPs,and what is the explanation for the theory behind this method?
Q2) What are paralogs?
A) Genes that arise from a duplication event in an organism.
B) Mutant genes in an organism.
C) Genes that are seldom expressed in an organism.
D) Genes that are expressed at a high level in an organism.
E) Genes that have no function in an organism.
Q3) Horizontal gene transfer occurs when an organism acquires genetic information from another organism in its own generation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Microarray analysis may be used to study:
A) gene expression in cells grown under different conditions.
B) protein expression in cells grown under different conditions.
C) rate of chromosomal replication in cells.
D) enzyme activity in cells.
E) growth rate of cells when grown under different conditions.
Q5) Explain how % G + C analysis of a genome can detect horizontal gene transfer.
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of these is typically involved in a two-component regulatory system?
A) Histidine kinase and a response regulator.
B) Repressor protein and an activator protein.
C) Repressor protein and a co-repressor.
D) An activator protein and a co-activator.
E) A repressor protein and an inducer.
Q2) The use of sigma factor by RNAP for promoter identification is a type of A) induction.
B) global regulation.
C) activation.
D) attenuation.
E) quorum sensing.
Q3) The phenotype of a lacI mutant that has the lacI gene partially deleted is constitutive expression of -galactosidase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The enzyme -galactosidase hydrolyzes lactose to glucose and fructose.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The directed movement toward a light source is called ______________.
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of these would be an example of a "secondary metabolite" fermentation product?
A) ethanol
B) acetone
C) butanol
D) penicillin
E) propanol
Q2) Random mutagenesis is often used in industry to produce microbial strains that have increased production ability.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In industry,fermentation must be done anaerobically.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why are microalgae an attractive source of biodiesel?
Q5) Modern laundry detergents contain proteases,lipases,amylases,and oxidases for the removal of stains.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The first recombinant protein produced for human use was ________.
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Q1) Fermentation reactions reoxidize NADH.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The key carbon dioxide fixation reaction in the Calvin Cycle is carried out by which enzyme?
A) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase
B) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate kinase
C) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase
D) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate kinase
E) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate transcarboxylase
Q3) Distinguish between anaerobic respiration and fermentation.
Q4) The biochemical reaction,PEP + ADP Pyruvate + ATP,is an example of which of these?
A) An oxidation/reduction reaction.
B) Oxidative phosphorylation.
C) Substrate-level phosphorylation.
D) An aldolase catalyzed reaction.
E) An electron transport reaction.
Q5) Metabolic processes in the cell that yield energy are called ____________.
Q6) Organism that use light as energy sources are called _____________.
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) Which of these summarizes the overall process of nitrogen fixation?
A) ammonia N
B) N ammonia biomass
C) NO ammonia biomass
D) NO N
E) ammonia NO
Q2) What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in nitrate?
A) -3
B) -1
C) +1
D) +3
E) +5
Q3) What is the oxidation state of carbon in carbon dioxide?
A) 0
B) -2
C) -4
D) +2
E) +4
Q4) The chemoautotrophic process that results in the oxidation of ammonia to nitrite is called ____________.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) Lignocellulose is primarily mineralized by this group of organisms during plant decomposition.
A) fungi
B) Gram positive bacteria
C) Gram negative bacteria
D) Archaea
E) slime molds
Q2) Describe the beneficial relationship that exists between plants and microorganisms.
Q3) Which of these characterizes dead zones in the ocean?
A) Low temperatures.
B) Lacking microbial life.
C) Being hypoxic.
D) Being oligotrophic.
E) Lacking nutrients.
Q4) The depth of a stratified lake that is characterized by a rapid decrease in temperature and oxygen is called the ________________
Q5) Biofilms in the environment are usually comprised of a single species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) LHT Pasteurization is a method of preservation that involves heating the liquid to _______ °C for 30 min.
A) 45
B) 63
C) 85
D) 100
E) 121
Q2) Small proteins produced by some bacterial to inhibit the growth of closely related bacteria are called __________________.
Q3) The most common food preservation method used in US households is
A) canning.
B) curing meat.
C) refrigeration.
D) heating.
E) freeze-drying.
Q4) Pasteurization is a process of food preservation that results in sterilization.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast a food-borne infection to intoxication.
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) The type of symbiotic relationship in which one member benefits and the other member is not affected is called _________________.
Q2) Most microbe-host relationships are harmful.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some herbivorous cecal fermenters obtain additional nutrients from their food sources by this method.
A) Regurgitating their food and chewing it again.
B) Retaining it in their large intestine for long periods of time.
C) Eating their feces.
D) Selectively eating certain plants.
E) Moving the cecal-digested food back to the small intestine for absorption.
Q4) Hindgut fermenters have greater fermentation efficiency than ruminants.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most endosymbionts of invertebrates can easily be cultured.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Endophytes are microorganisms that live within the tissue of ___________.
Q7) Describe the characteristics of a primary endosymbiont.
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) When the incidence of a disease occurs at a level higher than expected,it is called a(n)______________.
Q2) Koch's Postulates still play an important role today in identifying the causative agents of emerging diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the virulence of a pathogen is decreased to such a degree that it no longer can cause disease it is termed a(n)_______________ strain.
Q4) Term for pathogen properties that aid it in causing disease.
A) virulence factors
B) pathogenics
C) proteases
D) enhancers
E) promoters
Q5) A single mutation in a pathogenic gene may cause the pathogen to become avirulent.
A)True B)False
Q6) Why is Koch's third postulate sometimes problematic?
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Q1) Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)recognize PAMPs and play an important role in non-specific surveillance of foreign microbe recognition.What organisms contain PRRs besides humans? (Pick most complete answer.)
A) other vertebrates
B) vertebrates and invertebrates
C) vertebrates and plants
D) plants and invertebrates
E) other vertebrates, invertebrates, and plants
Q2) The inflammatory response will sometimes produce a fever.Why is fever considered a defense mechanism?
A) Fever slows the body's metabolism.
B) Fever decreases the inflammatory response.
C) Fever prevents a person from becoming cold.
D) Fever inhibits or decreases pathogen growth.
E) Fever stimulates antibody production.
Q3) Iron deficiency may protect the body against certain pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do toll-like receptors (TLRs)function to recognize foreign cells in the body?
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Which of these is the antibody secreted in the largest amount by the body?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q2) Exogenous antigen can be taken up by antigen-presenting cells through phagocytosis,processed,and presented to T cells on their surface by these.
A) MHC I molecules
B) MHC II molecules
C) interleukin 2 molecules
D) tumor necrosis factor alpha
E) interferon gamma
Q3) CD8 T cells are activated by specifically binding to an antigen displayed on the surface of an antigen presenting cell in the major histocompatibility (MHC)marker type
Q4) Describe how an endogenous antigen is processed and displayed on an antigen presenting cell.
Q5) Describe the role of TH2 in antibody production.
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Chapter 21: Survival in the Host
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Q1) Which of these bacteria causes gangrene?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Clostridium perfringens
E) Bacillus subtilis
Q2) Perfringolysin is produced by Clostridium perfringens.What is its mechanism to cause lysis?
A) Through pore formation within the host cell membrane.
B) By disruption of protein synthesis.
C) By disruption of membrane synthesis.
D) Through the breakdown of membrane phospholipids.
E) By destroying host cell membrane proteins.
Q3) By what mechanism does the enzyme streptokinase allow Streptococcus pyogenes to spread through tissue?
A) By lysing smooth muscle cells.
B) By lysing skin epithelial cells.
C) By breaking down fibrin clots.
D) By lysing red blood cells.
E) By lysing white blood cells.
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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) Which virus group has played a pivotal role in helping us understand the cell cycle and the identification of proto-oncogenes?
A) papillomaviruses
B) herpes viruses
C) retroviruses
D) adenoviruses
E) polioviruses
Q2) Rhinovirus is a cause of the common cold.What type of infection does it usually cause?
A) acute
B) latent
C) persistent
D) latent or persistent, with equal likelihood
E) acute or latent, with equal likelihood
Q3) Some viruses,like the influenza virus,are able to cause disease in humans multiple times because they quickly alter their antigenic proteins through mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Distinguish between an acute viral infection and a persistent viral infection.
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) Malaria was eradicated in the United States by 1951.This was primarily accomplished by:
A) successful vaccine development.
B) the use of preventative drugs.
C) successful antibiotic therapy.
D) reduction of the mosquito population.
E) the quarantine of infected individuals.
Q2) Why are trypanosomes not endemic to the United States?
A) Because of an active vaccination program.
B) Because the insect vector is absent.
C) Because the weather is too cold.
D) Because antibiotics keep the disease in check.
E) Because of rigorous water treatment standards.
Q3) The toxin -amanitin specifically inhibits this.
A) DNA polymerase.
B) RNA polymerase II.
C) cell membrane synthesis.
D) ribosomal function.
E) DNA helicase.
Q4) Describe the life cycle of the parasite Giardia lamblia.
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) -lactam antibiotics bind to proteins located within the cell wall known as penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs).The enzymatic action of PBPs is to function as a(a)_____.
A) ATP kinase.
B) dehydrogenase.
C) transpeptidase.
D) hydrolase.
E) isomerase.
Q2) Azoles are a class of antifungal drugs that target ___________ biosynthesis,causing cell membrane disruption.
A) sterol
B) glycerol
C) fatty acid
D) transport protein
E) folic acid
Q3) The use of antimicrobial drugs is directly linked to the development of antibiotic resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe two unique targets for antimicrobial drugs in bacteria.
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