Course Introduction
Microbial Pathogenesis Test Questions
Microbial Pathogenesis explores the mechanisms by which bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites cause disease in human hosts. The course covers microbial strategies for invasion, immune evasion, toxin production, and adaptation to host environments. Students will learn about host-pathogen interactions at the molecular and cellular levels, as well as the role of genetics, host immunity, and environmental factors in infection outcomes. Emphasis is placed on current research, experimental techniques, and emerging pathogens, preparing students to understand and investigate infectious diseases in both clinical and research settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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Page 2
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Q1) If a person is immunocompromised,it is very likely that he or she may be
A)A carrier
B)An AIDS patient
C)Disease-resistant
D)Lacking sugar
E)Lacking minerals
Answer: B
Q2) Temperature,pain,redness,and swelling are the hallmarks of A)Inflammation
B)Virulence
C)Nosocomial infections
D)Immunological memory
E)None of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Q1) Cations are different from anions because cations
A)Have a positive charge
B)Are formed by the loss of an electron
C)Are attracted to negatively charged ions
D)Include Na?, Li?, Mg²?, Al³?
E)All of the choices
Answer: E
Q2) The term antiparallel means that DNA
A)Has two strands that run in opposite directions
B)Has secondary structure in both strands
C)Has one strand containing deoxyribose sugars and the other containing ribose sugars
D)Can bind to RNA by using complementary base pairs
E)Contains purines, whereas RNA contains pyrimidines
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Q1) In the figure which step indicates the molecules produced by hydrolysis?
Answer: C
Q2) Enzymes catalyze reactions because they increase the difference in energy between the substrate and the products.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Explain why anabolism is important during the replication of bacteria during an infection.
Answer: When bacteria replicate,anabolism is required to ensure that a continuous supply of large molecules is provided for the new cells generated.Anabolism is the process of biosynthesis,and it requires energy from the cell to build large molecules from small building blocks.
Q4) In the figure which step would produce a polysaccharide?
Answer: A
Q5) Nearly all infectious organisms are chemoheterotrophs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) Which of the following is not associated with the eukaryotic plasma membrane?
A)Peptidoglycan
B)Proteins
C)Phospholipids
D)Cholesterol
E)Cytoskeletal microfilaments
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a differential stain?
A)Endospore stain
B)Gram stain
C)Acid-fast stain
D)Simple stain
E)Flagella stain
Q3) Explain why basic dyes and not acidic dyes are used when examining the morphology and arrangement of bacterial cells.
Q4) Which of the following is the first vesicle for molecules taken up by cells?
A)Plasma membrane
B)Endosome
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) Many A-B toxins consist of two subunits, and .Which has specificity for a target cell receptor?
A)
B)The binding site is dependent on both subunits.
C)
D)Neither nor bind specifically to the target cell; the exotoxin is taken up by pinocytosis.
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of exotoxins?
A)Highly antigenic
B)Cause disseminated intravascular clotting (DIC)
C)Converted to toxoids for vaccine use
D)Lethal in small quantities
E)Unstable at high temperatures
Q3) What are produced by many pathogens to anchor them to host tissue?
A)Adhesions
B)Pellicles
C)Leucocidins
D)Hyaluronidase
E)Invasins
Q4) How does tooth brushing protect teeth from cavity formation?
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Explain the difference between morbidity rate and mortality rate.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A)It is possible for a bacterium to be part of the normal flora in one anatomical location and pathogenic in a different anatomical location
B) Females are more likely than males to acquire urinary tract infections
C) The presence of fecal microorganisms in water used for drinking and cooking causes fecal-oral transmission
D)Patients with neutropenia are more susceptible to bacterial and fungal infections
E)Neutropenia refers to a type of anemia in which red blood cell numbers are lower than normal
Q3) Diseases that health care workers must report to the Centers for Disease Control are known as _____ diseases.
A)Incidental
B)Nationally notifiable
C)Endemic
D)Propagated
E)Common-source
Q4) Explain how global warming could affect the spread of infectious diseases.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a secondary infection?
A)Pathogens use blood or lymph to access all organs
B)Symptoms reappear long after initial infection
C)Symptoms immediately follow a primary infection
D)Rapid symptom development and rapid subsequent improvement
E)Symptoms are between those of acute and chronic disease
Q2) The eyelash mite (Demodex folliculorum),is a harmless parasite which lives inside human hair follicles.Its relationship to humans is
A)Parasitism
B)Mutualism
C)Microbial antagonism
D)Commensalism
E)Opportunism
Q3) Name and describe the three strategies used by health professionals to control communicable diseases.Characterize each of them.
Q4) Explain why normally harmless bacteria that comprise our microbial flora have the potential to be pathogenic.Provide examples.
Q5) Explain why Koch's postulates cannot be applied to all pathogens.
Q6) List and describe the five specific periods of infection.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of transmissible spongiform encephalitis diseases?
A)They cause neurodegeneration
B)They are treated with proteases inhibitors
C)They require long incubation periods
D)The earliest documented cases were in the Fore people of New Guinea
E)They are caused by abnormal PrP??prions
Q2) Name and describe four different transition patterns that emerging diseases have followed through history.Provide an example for each.
Q3) What are the three molecular processes that contribute to viral diversity? Describe each process and explain why these mechanisms are of concern.
Q4) All of the following are characteristics of Ebola hemorrhagic fever except
A)Circulatory shock
B)Possibility of transmission from human to human
C)Effective vaccine if received in advance of exposure
D)Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
E)Petechial hemorrhaging
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates recruitment by chemokines?
Q6) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates virus particles?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Fosfomycin: inhibition of cytoplasmic phase of cell wall formation
B)Lipid A: endotoxin
C)M protein: Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Gram-positive cell wall: teichoic acid
E)Bacitracin: inhibition of extra-cytoplasmic phase of cell wall formation
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the bacterial cell wall?
A)It protects from differences in osmolarity between intracellular and extracellular environments
B)It uses non-covalent bonds, permitting rapid synthesis during active growth periods
C)It is made, in part, of a peptidoglycan backbone
D)It is synthesized using enzymes such as transglycosylase, transpeptidase, polymerase, and hydrolase
E)Its synthesis is inhibited by the antibiotic fosfomycin
Q3) Describe two types of passive transport.Explain how they are similar and different from each other.
Q4) Explain what happens to a solute when it is transported across a membrane by using the group translocation method.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Pathogens of humans are chemoautotrophs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How would you differentiate Streptococcus pyogenes from nonpathogenic streptococci?
A)Grow colonies on blood agar plates
B)Grow colonies on Mannitol salt agar plates
C)Grow colonies on EMB plates
D)Gram stain the cells
E)Acid fast stain the cells
Q3) You have cultured a bacterial specimen obtained from an abscess on mannitol salt agar.On the following day you note growth and a yellow zone around the colonies.Your specimen is most likely to be
A)Gram-negative
B)Gram-positive
C)Salt-sensitive
D)Unable to ferment mannitol
Q4) What is a chemostat? Why are chemostats used by biotechnology and pharmaceutical companies?
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Q1) Uracil is a component of
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Both DNA and RNA
D)Neither DNA or RNA
Q2) A point mutation causing a nucleotide to change from an adenine to a guanine is a(n)
A)Transversion
B)Insertion
C)Frameshift
D)Transition
E)Deletion
Q3) Identify the three types of RNA that are made in bacterial cells.How are they similar and what is the specific function of each?
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: No errors are made during DNA replication
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the figure which letter (A-C)refers to the codon,UAA?
Q6) Explain how RNA differs from DNA in structure and function.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) Identify the sequence of events that occurs during the lytic cycle of an animal virus infection.Describe in basic terms what takes place at each step.
Q2) Retroviruses contain _____ which catalyzes the synthesis of DNA encoded by their RNA.
A)Reverse transcriptase
B)RNA polymerase
C)DNA polymerase
D)RNA transcriptase
E)RNA replicase
Q3) Regions on the host cell's plasma membrane rich in cholesterol and particular types of fatty acids to which some viruses attach are called
A)Syncytia
B)Protein coats
C)Capsomeres
D)Lipid rafts
Q4) What processes can viruses use to spread within a host and describe how they help avoid and evade host defenses?
Q5) How does a simple icosahedral virus differ from a complex icosahedral virus?
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is not an example of a virus associated with persistent infections of humans?
A)Epstein-Barr virus
B)Human immunodeficiency virus
C)Influenza virus
D)Hepatitis C virus
E)Herpes simplex virus type 1
Q2) Active viremia describes
A)Replication of viruses and the initial site of entry
B)Replication of viruses in secondary organs
C)Replication of viruses in the blood
D)Replication of viruses in the next host after viral transmission
Q3) The varicella-zoster virus establishes latency in the _____,and if reactivated causes the development of _____.
A)Conjunctiva; seed warts
B)Respiratory tract; pneumonia
C)Central nervous system; Negri bodies
D)Sensory ganglia; shingles
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Q1) All of the following are possessed by helminths except
A)An excretory system
B)A circulatory system
C)Anaerobic respiration
D)A primitive nervous system
E)Bilateral symmetry
Q2) Ascaris lumbricoides infection would result in which symptoms?
A)Pain, vaginal discharge, and dysuria
B)A chancre and swollen lymph nodes
C)Tissue cysts in skeletal muscle
D)Nausea, abdominal pain, and diarrhea
E)Fever accompanied by worms vomited up or passed in the stool
Q3) What type of host immune response is needed to eliminate trypomastigotes from the blood? Why is this often not sufficient for complete eradication of the pathogen?
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: In contrast with bacteria,fungi incorporate ergosterol into their plasma membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify and describe three categories of pathogenic fungal infection.
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Q1) Explain how natural killer (NK)cells discriminate healthy cells from target cells.How do NK cells mediate target-cell killing?
Q2) All of the following contain lysozyme except
A)Tears
B)Perspiration
C)Urine
D)Stomach acid
E)Saliva
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: The lachrymal apparatus produces tears continuously,with increased production in times of irritation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Neutrophils are tightly controlled to prevent damage to host cells for all the following reasons except that they
A)Produce perforins that produce pores in plasma membranes
B)Are programmed for apoptosis
C)Produce granzymes which enter the pores and induce apoptosis in target cells
D)Can release toxic substances into extracellular fluids
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Explain the key differences between superantigens and conventional antigens recognized by T cells.Provide an example of a super antigen.
Q2) How many antigen-binding sites do T cell receptors have in comparison with B cell receptors?
A)Half the number
B)Twice the number
C)The same number
D)Three times as many
Q3) The movement of antibodies across epithelial barriers is called
A)Transcytosis
B)Secretion
C)Dimerization
D)poly-Ig transport
E)Vesicular exocytosis
Q4) The B cell antigen receptor is called a(n)
A)Co-receptor
B)Immunoglobulin
C)Major histocompatibility complex
D)Secretory piece
E)Memory molecule
18
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) The "AIDS dementia" that some people with HIV get is most associated with what body system?
A)Nervous system
B)Lymphatic system
C)Circulatory system
D)Cranial system
Q2) Which of the following body fluids contains the highest number of infectious HIV particles per milliliter of fluid from infected individuals?
A)Saliva
B)Vaginal-cervical fluid
C)Cerebrospinal fluid
D)Breast milk
E)Tears
Q3) Explain what accounts for the high level of mutation associated with HIV. Why does this pose a problem for the host?
Q4) Summarize the sequence of events during HIV infection,beginning with adsorption of the virion on the host cell surface and ending with the release of virions from the infected cell.
Q5) Describe the three phases of HIV infection.
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Nucleic acids are most sensitive to which of the following procedures
A)Filtration
B)Pasteurization
C)Ionizing radiation
D)Freeze-drying
E)Surfactants
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: The environment in which the microbes to be treated exist is important,because many pathogens will be associated with organic materials such as blood and saliva.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not susceptible to the effects of surfactants?
A)Non-endospore forming Gram-positive bacteria
B)Gram-negative bacteria
C)Non-enveloped viruses
D)Enveloped viruses
E)Protozoans
Q4) Identify and describe five factors that affect the death of microbes by antimicrobial agents. To
Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Cephalosporins are more effective than the penicillins against Gram-negative bacteria because they
A)Are unable to penetrate the outer membrane through the porin molecules
B)Lack a beta-lactam ring
C)Have a longer half-life in vivo
D)Contain Cilastatin, which prevents destruction of the antibiotic by the kidneys
E)Are resistant to ?-lactamase enzyme activity
Q2) Why is it advantageous for bacteria such as Streptomyces species to synthesize antibiotics? Explain three ways in which antibiotic-producing microorganisms protect themselves from the effects of these compounds.
Q3) Which of the following is not a drug used for fungal infections?
A)Azoles
B)Foscarnet
C)Pentamidine
D)Amphotericin B
E)Flucytosine
Q4) Compare the mechanisms of the anti-trypanosomal drugs eflomithine and melasoprol.
Q5) Discuss selective toxicity as it relates to antimicrobials.
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Resistance to Methicillin developed rapidly because
A)It was overprescribed
B)It was used inappropriately
C)Bacteria can synthesize this compound
D)It was never used in hospital settings
E)It was not destroyed by ?-lactamase
Q2) Explain the testing process through which potential new antibiotics must pass before therapeutic use in humans is considered.
Q3) The process used to generate thousands of drugs daily with the aid of computer programs is referred to as
A)High-throughput screening
B)Bioinformatics
C)Combinatorial chemistry
D)Genome sequencing
E)Mechanism-based screening
Q4) The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)is determined using the A)Kirby-Bauer method
B)E test
C)Disk diffusion method
D)Broth dilution test
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which individuals are most likely to develop a severe fungal infection of the respiratory tract?
Q2) Compare the parainfluenza and influenza viruses.Which virus is associated with little antigenic drift or antigenic shift?
A)Parainfluenza virus
B)Influenza virus
C)Both parainfluenza and influenza viruses
D)Neither parainfluenza and influenza
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Strep throat: pyrogenic toxin
B)Scarlet fever: pseudomembrane in throat
C)Mycoplasma: walking pneumonia
D)Corynebacterium: "snapping" during cell division
E)Diphtheria: protein synthesis-inhibiting toxin
Q4) Which of the following is most appropriate for histoplasmosis?
A)Not associated with AIDS
B)Spores are encased in spherules
C)Associated with bird and bat droppings
D)Contains cholesterol in plasma membrane
E)100% mortality when invasion of lung tissue occurs
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Flagella of the Enterobacteriaceae used for antigen classification are collectively known as _____ antigens.
A)O
B)A
C)H
D)F
E)K
Q2) Salmonella infections are categorized as all of the following except
A)Typhoid fever
B)Gastroenteritis
C)Chronic infections
D)Enteric fever
E)Bacillary dysentery
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Saliva will protect against the establishment of many bacteria because it contains IgG.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain why hepatitis D is referred to as a satellite virus.Describe the conditions under which hepatitis D is replicated.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Which of the following is not a means by which Neisseria gonorrhoeae escapes host defenses?
A)Induction of apoptosis by neutrophils
B)Production of large quantities of catalase
C)Interference with bacteriocidal activity of antibodies
D)Blocking C3 deposition on bacterial surface
E)Inhibition of phagocyte attachment
Q2) All of the following cause common sexually transmitted diseases except A)Herpes simplex virus
B)Rubella virus
C)Chlamydia trachomatis
D)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
E)Papillomavirus
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement:
C. trachomatis does not have an outer membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the virulence factors associated with uropathogenic Escherichia coli.
Q5) What is congenital syphilis and what are the physiological consequences? Can this condition be avoided?
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Explain why swelling in the central nervous system (CNS)poses potentially harmful consequences.Identify and differentiate two different forms of swelling in the nervous tissue.
Q2) The _____ form of rabies occurs in wild animals.
A)Urban
B)Zoonotic
C)Sylvatic
D)Encephalitic
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: It is important to know which organism is producing the meningitis,because the severity of the illness as well as the treatment will differ.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because the exotoxin is the problem not the bacteria,antibiotic treatment of the bacterial infection is ineffective.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do the effects on the nervous system differ between botulism and tetanus?
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Which of the following statements about filariasis is false?
A)Filariasis is caused by threadlike nematodes
B)Microfilariae move between the systemic circulation during the day to the pulmonary circulation during the night
C)Humans are the only host for the causative agents of filariasis
D)Recurrent filariasis may lead to elephantiasis
E)There are no known treatments for filariasis
Q2) Bacteremia is associated with which of the following conditions?
A)Meningitis
B)Skin infections
C)Respiratory tract infections
D)Urinary tract infections
E)All of the choices
Q3) Which of the following regarding cytomegalovirus (CMV)is not correct?
A)More than 50% of the population has been exposed to CMV
B)CMV can be transmitted through breast milk, blood transfusions, and organ transplants
C)Congenital infection with CMV rarely has consequences
D)Reactivation of latent CMV infections occurs in immunosuppressed individuals
Q4) Explain the difference between bubonic plague and pneumonic plague.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Which of the following is the best match for smallpox?
A)Variola major
B)Dermal warts
C)Scarring of conjunctiva
D)MMR vaccine
E)Latency in nerve ganglia
Q2) Compare cutaneous to inhalation anthrax.Which is transmitted as spores?
A)Cutaneous anthrax
B)Inhalation anthrax
C)Both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax
D)Neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of rubella?
A)Inflammation of mucous membranes of vagina or oral cavity
B)Staphylococcal or streptococcal skin lesions
C)Skin lesions common in adolescents
D)Exotoxins termed exfoliatins
E)Congenital infection can be dangerous
Q4) What is the etiological agent of gas gangrene? Explain the sequence of events leading to the development of this condition and the associated pathology.How is gas gangrene treated?
Page 28
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