Microbial Pathogenesis Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Microbial Pathogenesis is a comprehensive course that explores the mechanisms by which bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites cause disease in humans. Students will examine the molecular and cellular strategies pathogens use to invade hosts, evade immune responses, and damage tissues. The course covers topics such as host-pathogen interactions, virulence factors, microbial toxins, and the genetic regulation of pathogenicity. Emphasis is placed on current research techniques, model systems, and the development of therapeutic approaches to target infectious agents. Through case studies and problem-solving exercises, students gain insights into both classic and emerging infectious diseases and the public health significance of microbial pathogenesis.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
25 Chapters
2233 Verified Questions
2233 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2513
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49972
Sample Questions
Q1) Microorganisms are best defined as organisms that
A)can only be found growing in laboratories.
B)are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.
C)are infectious particles.
D)lack a cell nucleus.
E)cause human disease.
Answer: B
Q2) Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right).
A)Class, phylum, order
B)Family, genus, species
C)Kingdom, domain, phylum
D)Family, order, class
E)Genus, species, family
Answer: B
Q3) All bacteria and archaea are microorganisms, but only some eukaryotes are microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49971
Sample Questions
Q1) A culture of an organism believed to cause intestinal symptoms is viewed under the microscope, and the microbiologist observes a cell membrane, flagella, mitochondria, and some dark unrecognizable structures within each cell.The microbiologist notes that the cells are eukaryotic because
A)the dark structures must be the cell nuclei.
B)only eukaryotic cells have a cell membrane.
C)only eukaryotic cells have flagella.
D)only eukaryotic cells have mitochondria.
Answer: D
Q2) All proteins are enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) All of the following are monosaccharides except ______.
A)glycogen
B)fructose
C)glucose
D)deoxyribose
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 4
Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49970
Sample Questions
Q1) Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of some microbes to facilitate the growth of other desired microbes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following parts of a microscope magnifies the specimen to produce a real image of the specimen?
A)Body
B)Condenser
C)Objective lens
D)Ocular lens
E)Nosepiece
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49969
Sample Questions
Q1) The division of microbes termed the Mendosicutes have a cell wall type best described as ______.
A)lacking a cell wall
B)archaeal
C)gram-positive
D)gram-negative
Q2) Which of the following bacteria is not closely related to the others?
A)Salmonella enterica subsp.enterica
B)Salmonella enterica subsp.indica
C)Salmonella bongori
D)Salmonella enterica subsp.Arizonae
Q3) The division of microbes termed the Firmicutes have a cell wall type best described as ______.
A)gram-positive
B)archaeal
C)lacking a cell wall
D)gram-negative
Q4) A slime layer gives bacterial cells greater pathogenicity than a capsule.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49968
Sample Questions
Q1) You are observing an organism under the microscope and you note that it has a cell wall, no chloroplasts, and a nucleus.Your prediction would be that this organism is a(n)
A)alga
B)protozoan
C)bacterium
D)fungus
E)virus
Q2) Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the ______.
A)Golgi apparatus
B)nucleus
C)ribosome
D)lysosome
E)nucleolus
Q4) Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49967
Sample Questions
Q1) Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the immune system produces against the virus.
A)glycoproteins
B)antibodies
C)complement proteins
D)antigens
Q2) Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called ______.
A)patches
B)buds
C)plaques
D)cytopathic effects
E)pocks
Q3) Uncoating of viral nucleic acid
A)does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication.
B)involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid.
C)occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle.
D)occurs before replication.
E)All of the choices are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 8
Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49966
Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrient absorption is mediated by the ______.
A)nuclear membrane
B)proteins in the periplasmic space
C)peptidoglycan layer
D)cell wall
E)cell membrane
Q2) An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a(n) ______.
A)element
B)trace element
C)growth factor
D)macronutrient
E)compound
Q3) Organisms called _____ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm.
A)aerobes
B)pathogens
C)commensals
D)mesophiles
E)halophiles
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
99 Verified Questions
99 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49965
Sample Questions
Q1) Metabolic pathways that regenerate their starting molecule are called _____ pathways.
A)linear
B)bidirectional
C)convergent
D)cyclic
E)divergent
Q2) A type of cofactor would be ______.
A)vitamins
B)metallic ions
C)active sites
D)substrates
E)ribozymes
Q3) All of the following are exoenzymes except ______.
A)ATP synthase
B)streptokinase
C)penicillinase
D)collagenase
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49964
Sample Questions
Q1) Hfr transfer involves all of the following except
A)gene integration into the bacterial chromosome.
B)independent plasmid transfer.
C)F factor is part of the F+ donor chromosome.
D)high frequency transfer.
E)a pilus connection between F+ and F- cells.
Q2) A primer comprised of _______ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.
A)polymerase III
B)polymerase I
C)helicase
D)RNA
E)DNA
Q3) Introns have no detectable functions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DNA Polymerase I
A)removes primers.
B)adds bases to new DNA chain.
C)seals DNA gaps.
D)proofreads DNA chain.
Page 11
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49963
Sample Questions
Q1) Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are A)plasmids.
B)viruses.
C)bacteriophages.
D)artificial chromosomes.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Micro RNA therapy is based on the premise that
A) miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by inhibiting transcription; a non-functional miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted protein production.
B) miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by promoting translation; a non-functional miRNA can be repaired thereby reducing unwanted protein production.
C) miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by initiating transcription; an over-production of miRNA can be replaced thereby promoting necessary protein production.
D) miRNA molecules function to regulate protein production, usually by inhibiting translation; a hyperactive miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted proteins.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49962
Sample Questions
Q1) The lowest temperature needed to kill or inactivate all microbes in 10 minutes is the
A)thermal death point (TDP).
B)thermal death time (TDT).
C)sporicidal time.
D)death phase point.
Q2) Microbial death occurs when there is
A)no movement.
B)no reproduction.
C)a change in appearance.
D)a decrease in size.
E)All of the choices occur.
Q3) Dry heat
A)is less efficient than moist heat.
B)cannot sterilize.
C)includes tyndallization.
D)is used in devices called autoclaves.
E)will sterilize at 121°C for 15 minutes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49961
Sample Questions
Q1) The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include
A)bacterial chromosomal mutations.
B)synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.
C)prevention of drug entry into the cell.
D)alteration of drug receptors on cell targets.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following antibacterial drug groups does not target protein synthesis?
A)Oxazolidinones
B)Macrolides
C)Aminoglycosides
D)Sulfonamides
E)Tetracyclines
Q3) Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called ______.
A)inhibitors
B)blockers
C)competitive inhibitors
D)noncompetitive inhibitors
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49960
Sample Questions
Q1) Various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots are ______.
A)coagulases
B)mucinases
C)keratinases
D)kinases
E)hyaluronidases
Q2) When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of ______.
A)toxemia
B)inflammation
C)sequelae
D)a syndrome
E)latency
Q4) Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49959
Sample Questions
Q1) Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all
A)mediators that increase chemotaxis.
B)mediators of T-cell activity.
C)fever inducers.
D)mediators of B-cell activity.
E)vasoactive mediators.
Q2) Which of the following is incorrect about complement?
A)It acts in a cascade reaction.
B)It is composed of at least 20 blood proteins.
C)It involves a classical pathway.
D)It only appears in the blood during a response to a pathogen.
E)It involves an alternate pathway.
Q3) The alternate complement pathway uses complement proteins C1, C2, and C4.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Plasma cells
A)are derived from T lymphocytes.
B)function in cell-mediated immunity.
C)function in blood clotting.
D)produce and secrete antibodies.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
93 Verified Questions
93 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49958
Sample Questions
Q1) Antitoxins
A)are always genetically engineered.
B)confer passive immunity.
C)contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D)utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen.
E)contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
Q2) Live, attenuated vaccines
A)include the Sabin polio vaccine.
B)include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
C)contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
D)require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) An example of artificial active immunity would be
A)chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox.
B)a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
C)giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D)chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49957
Sample Questions
Q1) A systemic, sometimes fatal, reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is ______.
A)atopic
B)delayed
C)systemic anaphylaxis
D)antibody-mediated
E)T-cell-mediated
Q2) Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A)autoantibodies.
B)failure of B-cell development and maturity.
C)congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
D)delayed hypersensitivity.
E)a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.
Q3) Which of the following is not a possible outcome of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A)Diarrhea
B)Rashes
C)Contact dermatitis
D)Sneezing
E)Rhinitis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49956
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a genotypic method of identification?
A)Pulse-field gel electrophoresis
B)DNA analysis with probes
C)G + C composition
D)Direct antigen testing
E)rRNA sequencing
Q2) Phenotypic testing is often beneficial in identifying infectious agents from patient samples; however, some disadvantages include
A)organisms must be grown on the same culture media so it is difficult to distinguish them from each other.
B)lengthy culturing times and the inability to grow some bacteria in vitro.
C)difficulty in identifying motile organisms.
D)non-specificity of some biochemical tests since all pathogens utilize the same substrate as a fuel source.
Q3) When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
19
Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49955
Sample Questions
Q1) Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites, and sexual activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Protective features of the skin include all of the following except ______. 7.
A)high pH
B)high salt content
C)lysozyme
D)a keratinized surface
E)resident biota
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding vaccines as disease preventatives is incorrect?
A)Zostavax is recommended for older adults to prevent shingles.
B)The Carter Center has promoted the development of a vaccine against river blindness.
C)There is currently no smallpox vaccine available to the general public.
D)Immunization is currently not possible against Clostridium perfringens.
Q4) All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49954
Sample Questions
Q1) Cryptococcal meningitis is highly communicable among humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Meningococcemia is
A) best treated with penicillin G.
B) associated with vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae.
C) started from a nasopharyngeal infection.
D) caused by a gram-negative diplococcus.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis?
A) The condition involves infection of both the brain and meninges.
B)The mode of transmission is via respiratory droplets.
C) The treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is mostly ineffective.
D)The causative organisms are Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba.
Q4) Up to 50% of persons who survived polio as children will suffer from post-polio syndrome later in life.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic
Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49953
Sample Questions
Q1) Humans should be routinely vaccinated against Lyme disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The causative agent in a case of sepsis can be isolated by
A)inoculating blood agar with a sample of the patient's blood.
B)performing a Kirby-Bauer assay on a sample of the patient's blood.
C)sending a blood sample to the CDC laboratories in Atlanta.
D)centrifugation of the blood to separate cells and plasma.
Q3) The heart wall has three layers.In order from the outer layer to the inner layer, they are ______.
A)epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium
B)endocardium, epicardium, and myocardium
C)endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium
D)myocardium, endocardium, and epicardium
Q4) Rabbits and rodents are the chief reservoirs of the causative agent of ______.
A)tularemia
B)plague
C)Lyme disease
D)brucellosis
E)mononucleosis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49952
Sample Questions
Q1) Hantavirus is transmitted by which of the following ways?
A)Aerosolized droplets from human to human
B)Directly from the saliva of a deer mouse after being bitten
C)From a mosquito that first bites a deer mouse, and then bites a human
D)Aerosolized particles of deer mouse feces, urine, or saliva
E)Via the oral-fecal route when deer mouse feces contaminate drinking water
Q2) Which of the following is not true of influenza?
A)Influenza has glycoprotein spikes of hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N).
B)Antigenic drift changes the antigens to reduce immune recognition.
C)Antigenic shift causes changes in the RNA strands.
D)Influenza B viruses undergo both antigenic drift and antigenic shift.
E)H5N1 is the bird flu strain that may cause a pandemic.
Q3) Which of the following respiratory tract defenses is mismatched?
A)Complement - second line of defense
B)Ciliary escalator - first line of defense
C)Mucous membranes - third line of defense
D)Nasal hairs - first line of defense
E)IgA antibody - third line of defense
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49951
Sample Questions
Q1) Outbreaks of which protozoan disease have been associated with fecal-contaminated imported raspberries, fresh greens, and drinking water?
A)Toxoplasmosis
B)Cyclosporiasis
C)Trichinosis
D)Cryptosporidiosis
Q2) A current news story describes a cruise ship in the Carribbean with an outbreak of diarrheal illness, affecting hundreds of people.With all of those people in a small area, opening and closing doors, using handrails, etc, you are trying to figure out what infectious agent may be the cause.Your most likely guess is that the pathogen is
A)Clostridium difficile
B)hepatitis B
C) norovirus
D) cholera
E)coli
Q3) The only body fluid that can transmit Hepatitis B virus is blood.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49950
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common causative agent of urinary tract infections is ______.
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)Pseudomonas aeurginosa
D)Escherichia coli
Q2) Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes
A)genital lesions.
B)intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals.
C)symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching.
D)infection in neonates that contact lesions in the birth canal.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is ______.
A)a hemolysin
B)an endotoxin
C)fimbriae
D)an exotoxin
E)a protease
Q4) Gardasil prevents infection by group B Streptococcus types 6, 11, 16, and 18.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
76 Verified Questions
76 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49949
Sample Questions
Q1) You have drained a pond on your property to make it deeper.In the process of using a machine to dig, you find that the mud is black and smells terrible.Your prediction is that ______ bacteria predominate in this area of the mud.
A) denitrifying
B) sulfur-reducing
C) sulfur-oxidizing
D) nitrifying
E) nitrogen-fixing
Q2) Organisms whose sole source of carbon for growth is CO<sub>2</sub> are called ______.
A)consumers
B)autotrophs
C)decomposers
D)saprophytes
E)lithotrophs
Q3) The combustion of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and gas, have contributed to the steady increase in atmospheric CO<sub>2</sub> gas over the last 25 years.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 26
Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49948
Sample Questions
Q1) Biotechnology includes all of the following except
A)using bacterial antifreeze proteins to protect crops from lethal frosts.
B)using genetically-modified
C)using bacterial insecticidal proteins as a means to combat mosquitoes as disease vectors.
D)modifying antibiotics with different chemical functional groups to increase their potency.
E)coli as a tool to detect cancer.
Q2) Which of the following activities uses microbial biotransformation?
A)Yogurt production
B)Production of antibiotics
C) Alcohol production
D) Sewage treatment
Q3) In the secondary phase of water treatment, organic matter undergoes biodegradation by a diverse mix of bacteria, algae, and protozoa.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Irradiated food becomes radioactive.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27