Microbial Pathogenesis Practice
Questions
Course Introduction
Microbial Pathogenesis explores the molecular and cellular mechanisms by which microorganisms cause disease in humans and animals. The course covers the strategies employed by bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites to invade hosts, evade immune responses, and cause tissue damage. Topics include microbial adherence, invasion, toxin production, and genetic regulation of virulence, as well as host defenses and the pathophysiology of infectious diseases. The course emphasizes current research techniques and approaches used to study host-pathogen interactions, providing students with a foundational understanding essential for careers in microbiology, infectious disease medicine, and biomedical research.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lipid group that serves as energy storage molecules is ________.
A)prostaglandins
B)waxes
C)phospholipids
D)steroids
E)triglycerides
Answer: E
Q2) Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy,it is permanent and cannot be revised.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which statement correctly compares the sizes of different microorganisms?
A)Bacteria are larger than viruses
B)Bacteria are larger than eukaryotic microorganisms
C)Eukaryotic microorganisms are smaller than viruses
D)Archaea are larger than eukaryotic microorganisms but smaller than bacteria
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Q1) Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
A)Differential
B)Selective
C)Enumeration
D)Enriched
E)Reducing
Answer: A
Q2) The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is ________.
A)isolation
B)inoculation
C)immunization
D)infection
E)contamination
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gram-positive cell wall is considered stronger than that of gram-negative cells since its hydrophobic outer membrane contains an endotoxin.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) If during the Gram stain procedure,the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied,gram-positive cells would be purple but gram-negative cells would be colorless.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) During the Gram stain,________ cells decolorize when the alcohol is applied.
A)gram-positive
B)gram-negative
C)both gram-positive and -negative
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fiber of the cytoskeleton is a hollow tube that is also a component of flagella and the spindle fibers that form during mitosis?
A)Microtubules
B)Actin filaments
C)Intermediate filaments
D)Hyphae
Q2) In the specimen,it is noted that some of the cells are producing filamentous structures called hyphae.The RN educates the patient about the microscopic analysis.A term referring to the ability of a yeast able to exist in either yeast or hyphal form is
A)dioecious
B)dimorphic
C)dichotomous
D)pseudohypha
Q3) Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery)is most commonly contracted through the
A)fecal-oral route from contaminated food or water
B)direct transmission from one host to another
C)puncture wounds
D)insect bites
E)None of the choices are correct.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Multiplication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viral tissue specificities are called ________.
A)ranges
B)virions
C)receptacles
D)tropisms
E)uncoating
Q2) The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is ________.
A)adsorption to the host cells
B)injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
C)host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins
D)assembly of nucleocapsids
E)replication of viral nucleic acid
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding the structure and function of viral spikes?
A)They are found on both enveloped and naked viruses
B)They are coded for by the host genome
C)They are coded for by the viral genome
D)They mediate the docking process of virus to host cell
E)They consist of proteins and carbohydrates
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of cell division equals the rate of cell death is the ________.
A)lag phase
B)log phase
C)stationary phase
D)death phase
E)telophase
Q2) The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the ________.
A)lag phase
B)exponential (log)phase
C)stationary phase
D)death phase
E)prophase
Q3) Aerobic respiration is an example of ________.
A)photosynthesis
B)methanoheterophy
C)photoheterotrophy
D)chemoheterotrophy
E)photoautotrophy
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organism sample is further tested and found to grow in the absence of oxygen.Which of three main pathways of catabolism may this organism utilize to produce energy under these circumstances?
A)Aerobic respiration and fermentation
B)Anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration
C)Fermentation and anaerobic respiration
D)Aerobic respiration,anaerobic respiration,and fermentation
Q2) In the electron transport chain,the collective,captured energy released by electrons is used to phosphorylate ________.
A)ATP
B)ADP
C)pyruvic acid
D)oxygen
E)NAD
Q3) Enzymes are ________.
A)broken down in reactions that require energy input
B)proteins that function as catalysts
C)used up in chemical reactions
D)not needed for catabolic reactions
E)All of the choices are correct
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to both DNA and RNA?
A)The molecule is synthesized in the 5'-3' direction when a polymerase adds a nucleotide onto the 3' end of the existing polymer.
B)The molecule is synthesized in the 5'-3' direction when a polymerase adds a nucleotide onto the 3' end of the existing polymer,creating a bond between the phosphate group and the ribose.
C)The molecule is synthesized in the 5'-3' direction when a polymerase adds A,T C,and G nucleotides onto the 3' end of the existing polymer.
D)The molecule is synthesized in the 5'-3' direction then,on completion,the single strand folds to form secondary and tertiary level structures.
Q2) Which cell can transfer chromosomal and plasmid genes to a recipient cell by conjugation?
A)F cell
B)F cell
C)Hfr cell
D)R cell
E)B cell
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ethylene oxide is a sterilizing gas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The betadine swab before blood donation is an example of ________.
A)antisepsis
B)disinfection
C)sterilization
D)decontamination
E)sanitation
Q3) The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of disinfectants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following represents the use of osmotic pressure as a microbial control method?
A)Bleaching a kitchen counter
B)Salting meat
C)Rinsing a cut with Betadine
D)Both bleaching a kitchen counter and rinsing a cut with Betadine are correct.
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What cell wall inhibiting drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance?
A)Penicillin G
B)Vancomycin
C)Tetracycline
D)Erythromycin
E)Isoniazid
Q2) Which of the following statements does not accurately reflect the origins of antimicrobial drugs?
A)All antimicrobial drugs are synthesized by medicinal chemists in a laboratory environment.
B)Bacteria and fungi are natural producers of antimicrobial drugs; the molecules are synthesized to maintain competition for nutrients and space to a minimum.
C)Scientists have learned how to modify antimicrobial molecules naturally produced by organisms to enhance their efficacy and range.
D)Some antimicrobial agents are synthesized wholly in the laboratory.
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Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the emergency department RN,you document the care and assessment of the patient in the chart prior to transfer to an inpatient unit.What is the most appropriate term for the clinical manifestations of disease as reported by the patient?
A)Signs
B)Symptoms
C)Syndromes
D)Signs and symptoms
Q2) Microbial hyaluronidase,coagulase,and streptokinase are examples of ________.
A)adhesive factors
B)exotoxins
C)hemolysins
D)antiphagocytic factors
E)exoenzymes
Q3) Which of the following is transmission of disease from mother to fetus?
A)Vertical
B)Direct
C)Vector
D)Horizontal
E)Fomites
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Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is involved in the migration of white blood cells except
A)chemotaxis
B)diapedesis
C)motility
D)vasodilation
E)phagocytosis
Q2) During phagocytosis,intracellular digestion begins as soon as the phagosome is formed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Plasma is also called lymph.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which line(s)of defense has been breached for this injury?
A)First line of defense
B)Second line of defense
C)First and second lines of defense
D)First,second and third lines of defense
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) After secreting antibodies during an immune response,plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What process provides many B cells and T cells that are activated against specific antigens?
A)Antigen expression
B)Antibody production
C)Clonal expansion
D)Antigen presentation
E)Opsonization
Q3) The most significant cells in graft rejection are ________.
A)helper T cells
B)suppressor T cells
C)cytotoxic T cells
D)delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E)natural killer (NK)cells
Q4) Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters that body for a second time?
A)Degranulation
B)Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)Histamine acts on smooth muscle
E)Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Q2) Allergic rhinitis is also known as asthma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In multiple sclerosis,autoantibodies attack ________.
A)myelin sheath cells of the nervous system
B)acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle
C)acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle
D)sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane
E)cells in thyroid follicles
Q4) A xenograft is graft tissue from a donor of one species transplanted to a recipient of another species.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A positive indirect ELISA result requires ________.
A)one known antibody,one unknown antibody,and an unknown antigen
B)a known antigen,an unknown antibody,and a known antibody
C)two known antibodies and one known antigen
D)two known antibodies and one unknown antigen
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The value of whole genome sequencing is that it can separate larger strands of DNA by slowly applying alternating voltage levels from three different directions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a genotypic method of identification?
A)rRNA sequencing
B)PCR
C)Biosensor
D)Direct antigen testing
E)DNA analysis with probes
Q4) The Weil-Felix test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
A)Pulmonary
B)Gastrointestinal
C)Cutaneous
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
A)Transmitted through both direct and indirect contact
B)Can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic
D)Has a clear discharge
E)Can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus,Haemophilus influenzae,or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q3) Smallpox is a disease ________.
A)in which fever,prostration,rash,and possible toxemia and shock occur
B)in which the virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons
C)in which recurrent episodes are called shingles
D)that can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of ________.
A)Clostridium botulinum
B)Clostridium perfringens
C)Clostridium difficile
D)Clostridium tetani
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is a sign of meningitis?
A)Headache
B)Stiff neck
C)White blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid
D)Fever
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Each of the following is true for Listeria monocytogenes except ________.
A)resistant to cold
B)fastidious
C)resistant to heat
D)resistant to salt
E)can result in septicemia
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reservoir for Lassa fever is the ________.
A)monkey
B)rat
C)gorilla
D)cat
E)cattle
Q2) Which new class of drugs will interfere with docking onto host cells?
A)Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B)Protease inhibitors
C)Fusion inhibitors
D)Integrase inhibitors
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Rifampin is the drug of choice for malaria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems have limited or no normal biota.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except ________.
A)scarlet fever
B)pertussis
C)rheumatic fever
D)glomerulonephritis
E)erythrogenic rash
Q2) Rheumatic fever is caused by ________.
A)a primary streptococcal infection with Streptococcus pyogenes
B)a combination of infection with Streptococcus pyogenes and the rheumatic fever virus
C)a secondary streptococcal infection with a different type of streptococcus
D)an immunological cross-reaction in which anti-streptococcal antibodies target the heart
E)both a primary viral infection and a secondary streptococcal infection
Q3) People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except it ________.
A)is due to ingestion of contaminated,improperly stored,cooked meats and gravies
B)is a colitis that is a superinfection
C)often has an endogenous source
D)is associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad-spectrum antimicrobials
E)is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals
Q2) Which is not true of Clostridium difficile?
A)A gram-positive,endospore forming rod
B)Part of normal intestinal biota
C)Infection precipitated by broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
D)Also called pseudomembranous colitis
E)Produces "rice-water" stools
Q3) "Rice-water stools" are associated with disease caused by which organism?
A)Vibrio vulnificus
B)Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C)Vibrio cholerae
D)Campylobacter jejuni
E)Helicobacter pylori
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2?
A)Interferon
B)Valacyclovir
C)Acyclovir
D)Famciclovir
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The chancre of syphilis ________.
A)occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries
B)is very painful
C)occurs during the tertiary stage
D)develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated,central crater
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Normal biota of the urethra include all of the following except ________.
A)nonhemolytic Streptococcus
B)Staphylococcus
C)Corynebacterium
D)Escherichia coli
E)Lactobacillus
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Chapter 22: One Health: the Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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Q1) The activated sludge step in wastewater treatment is an example of the ________.
A)primary phase of wastewater treatment
B)secondary phase of wastewater treatment
C)tertiary phase of wastewater treatment
Q2) Indicator bacteria are ________.
A)coliforms
B)enterococci
C)evidence of fecal contamination
D)used in water quality tests
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called ________.
A)decomposition
B)synergism
C)mineralization
D)bioremediation
E)recycling
Q4) Backyard composting in either a pile or a bin is generally an ________ process.
A)aerobic
B)anaerobic
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