Microbial Pathogenesis Final Exam
Course Introduction
Microbial Pathogenesis explores the mechanisms by which microorganisms cause disease in humans and other hosts. The course covers the molecular and cellular strategies used by bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites to invade, colonize, and evade host defenses. Topics include microbial virulence factors, host-pathogen interactions, immune responses, transmission dynamics, and epidemiology of infectious diseases. By integrating foundational concepts in microbiology and immunology, students gain an in-depth understanding of how pathogens contribute to disease development and learn about current approaches in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of infectious illnesses.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 14th Edition by Patricia Tille
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
78 Chapters
1245 Verified Questions
1245 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2089 Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41576
Sample Questions
Q1) An example of an organism's genotypic characteristic is its:
A)macroscopic morphologic structure.
B)microscopic morphologic structure.
C)nucleic acid composition.
D)antigenic properties.
Answer: C
Q2) The most basic taxonomic group that can be defined as a collection of bacterial strains that share many common physiologic and genetic features is:
A)genus.
B)species.
C)class.
D)kingdom.
Answer: B
Q3) The difference between a subspecies and biotype is:
A)a subspecies has the same genetic makeup.
B)a subspecies has a differential expression of the same genes.
C)a subspecies is genetically different than the type species.
D)a biotype and subspecies are the same.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41577
Sample Questions
Q1) If a bacterial cell encounters unfavorable environmental conditions,then its metabolism will begin to slow until it eventually transforms into an inactive,dormant state.This survival mechanism is known as:
A)polymerization.
B)oxidation.
C)respiration.
D)sporulation.
Answer: D
Q2) A patient is infected with a bacteria that is resistant to erythromycin (the antibiotic is not effective)and sensitive to clindamycin (the antibiotic is effective).However,the patient is not improving and the organism now appears to be resistant to both antibiotics.The reason for this alteration in gene expression in the bacterium is likely due to:
A)genetic regulation that encodes the resistance mechanism is constitutive.
B)the genetic regulation encoding the enhanced resistance is inducible.
C)the genetic regulation for the enhanced resistance is normally suppressed.
D)the organism was always resistant to both antibiotics and should not have been treated with the combination therapy.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41578
Sample Questions
Q1) The human body is colonized by a variety of bacteria that reside in very specific sites or anatomical locations throughout.These organisms are classified as:
A)opportunistic pathogens.
B)infectious organisms.
C)normal resident organisms.
D)normal human microbiota.
Answer: D
Q2) IgM is the:
A)first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered.
B)antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections.
C)antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes.
D)second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abundant.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41579
Sample Questions
Q1) The method of choice for sterilizing items such as antibiotic solutions,chemicals,radioisotopes,and vaccines that are heat-sensitive is:
A)dry,low temperature heat.
B)moist,low temperature heat.
C)filtration.
D)chemical.
Q2) The laboratory receives a bloody,tissue contaminated surgical forceps.Upon removal the laboratory should dispose of the instrument by:
A)placing in the biohazard container.
B)placing in a sharps container.
C)sending back to surgery for disposal.
D)ensuring proper return to surgery for chemical sterilization.
Q3) Mouth pipetting:
A)should be performed only if necessary and with extreme care.
B)can save valuable time and should be performed whenever quick results are needed.
C)is performed only when material is not expected to pose a biological hazard.
D)should not be performed in any circumstance in the clinical laboratory.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Specimen Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41580
Sample Questions
Q1) Which specimen culture,if positive,should be immediately reported to the clinician?
A)Urine
B)Blood
C)Throat
D)Stool
Q2) Between 5% and 10% hydrogen (H ),5% to 10% CO ,80% to 90% nitrogen (N ),and 0% O produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q3) An example of a selective medium for gram-positive organisms is:
A)MacConkey agar.
B)blood agar.
C)colistin and nalidixic acid.
D)thioglycollate broth.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41581
Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast in microscopy is most commonly achieved by:
A)changing objectives for various specimens.
B)increasing the resolution or resolving power.
C)staining techniques.
D)adding a blue filter to the light path.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning dark-field microscopy?
A)This type of microscopy uses specific stains to enhance the contrast of certain bacteria.
B)The condenser does not allow light to pass directly through the specimen but directs the light to hit the specimen at an oblique angle.
C)Dark-field microscopy allows the visualization of larger viruses.
D)Dark-field microscopy can differentiate various difficult-to-grow organisms by using immunofluorescence.
Q3) The most critical step in the Gram stain is the application of the: A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41582
Sample Questions
Q1) Which medium can be described as suppressing the growth of most gram-negative organisms while allowing gram-positive bacteria to grow?
A)Chocolate
B)CNA blood
C)BHI
D)Thioglycollate broth
Q2) Quality control from commercially prepared media includes all of the following except:
A)receipt and verification of storage or transportation conditions.
B)visual inspection for discoloration or contamination.
C)pH the media using litmus paper.
D)verification of lot numbers and expiration dates.
Q3) In which category of media would MacConkey agar best fit?
A)Selective
B)Differential
C)Selective and differential
D)Supportive only
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41583
Sample Questions
Q1) The probe in the hybridization assay can be described as:
A)originating from the unknown organism to be detected or identified.
B)a reporter molecule that chemically forms a complex with the single-stranded probe deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
C)originating from an organism of known identity with a known sequence.
D)the enzyme needed to elongate the strand.
Q2) The enzyme that is commonly used for primer extensions in the PCR method works best at what temperature?
A)25°C
B)56°C
C)72°C
D)94°C
Q3) Analytical sensitivity is concerned primarily with which of the following PCR parameters?
A)Target specificity
B)Limit of detection
C)Head-to-head comparison to a gold-standard test
D)Gram staining
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41584
Sample Questions
Q1) Specific proteins produced by cells of the immune system in response to the presence of foreign molecules that circulate in the serum and are present in secretions such as saliva are called:
A)antigens.
B)immunoglobulins.
C)cytokines.
D)phagogens.
Q2) The antibody that is predominantly found in tears,saliva,and intestinal secretions is:
A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
Q3) The major advantage of immunofluorescent microscopy assays is that:
A)extensive training is not necessary.
B)it serves as an excellent way to preserve the reaction for referral and archiving.
C)visual assessment of the adequacy of a specimen is possible.
D)fluorescent microscopes are easily accessible to most laboratories.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 11
Chapter 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41585
Sample Questions
Q1) Vancomycin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q2) Tetracycline
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q3) Antibiotic resistance resulting from altered cellular physiologic structure caused by changes in a microorganism's usual genetic makeup is known as __________ resistance.
A)intrinsic
B)inherent
C)acquired
D)environmentally mediated
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
12
Chapter 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41586
Sample Questions
Q1) S.pneumoniae was isolated from a spinal fluid sample from an inpatient.An oxacillin disk screening test was performed and the zone of inhibition measured 19 mm.Which action is most appropriate?
A)Call patient's physician and report the isolate as oxacillin-resistant;no further work-up required.
B)Repeat testing to confirm the identification of the isolate and qualitative susceptibility profile.
C)Report the isolate as penicillin-resistant;inform infection control and patient's physician.
D)Do E-test and report quantitative MIC result and interpretive category using meningitis MIC criteria.
Q2) In the disk diffusion method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing,what is the standard medium used for testing most bacterial organisms?
A)Mueller-Hinton broth
B)Mueller-Hinton agar
C)Brain-heart infusion agar
D)Brucella broth with 5% lysed horse blood
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 13
Chapter 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41587
Sample Questions
Q1) The most frequent agent of nosocomial bacteremia is:
A)catalase-negative micrococci.
B)coagulase-positive staphylococci.
C)catalase-negative stomatococci.
D)coagulase-negative staphylococci.
Q2) The Staphylococcaceae staphylococcus that is more likely to cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections in nonhospitalized hosts,especially sexually active young women,is:
A)S.saprophyticus.
B)S.aureus.
C)S.epidermidis.
D)S.intermedius.
Q3) Which group of bacteria is described as catalase positive and is gram-positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and form grapelike clusters?
A)Neisseria
B)Rothia (stomatococci)
C)Staphylococcus
D)Micrococcus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41588
Sample Questions
Q1) Which species of bacteria is responsible for causing diseases such as rheumatic fever,glomerulonephritis,and exudative pharyngitis?
A)Streptococcus agalactiae
B)S.pyogenes
C)S.pneumoniae
D)Enterococcus
Q2) The development of acute rheumatic fever and subsequent valvular heart disease are problems that may be encountered by patients infected with:
A)Enterococcus faecalis.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.pyogenes.
D)S.agalactiae.
Q3) What morphologic feature is a major consideration in determining an identification scheme for streptococci?
A)Colony shape and color
B)Hemolytic pattern
C)Smell
D)Consistency
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41589
Sample Questions
Q1) The microbiologist identified an organism that produces large -hemolytic colonies on blood agar and appears as a gram-variable rod on Gram staining.In order to further identify the organism,the microbiologist should:
A)no further identification is necessary.
B)complete a biochemical panel and antibiotic sensitivity.
C)complete a biochemical panel,no antibiotic sensitivity is warranted.
D)report the organism as Bacillus spp.
Q2) A U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-cleared immunochromatographic test produces a red line on the cassette and can presumptively identify which gram-positive Bacillus that is g-hemolytic and morphologically has a "Medusa head" appearance when grown on 5% sheep blood agar?
A)Bacillus subtilis
B)B.cereus
C)B.mycoides
D)B.anthracis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41590
Sample Questions
Q1) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is:
A)L.monocytogenes.
B)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C)Bacillus anthracis.
D)Bacillus cereus group
Q2) A catalase-positive,gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast,does not branch,and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Mycobacterium
Q3) Patients who are immunocompromised and women who are pregnant should avoid eating soft cheeses such as Mexican-style,feta,Brie,Camembert,and blue-veined cheeses to prevent:
A)food-borne listeriosis.
B)staphylococcal food poisoning.
C)gastric gangrene.
D)Salmonella infection.
Page 17
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41591
Sample Questions
Q1) Which organism is nonhemolytic on 5% sheep blood agar but hemolytic on human blood?
A)Weissella confusa
B)A.haemolyticum
C)Lactobacillus spp.
D)G.vaginalis
Q2) The reverse Christie,Atkins,Munch-Petersen (CAMP)test is positive for these curved gram-positive bacilli.Which -hemolytic organism is used in conjunction with this organism in the reverse CAMP test?
A)Streptococcus pyogenes
B)S.agalactiae
C)S.saprophyticus
D)S.aureus
Q3) To test the validity of TSI media,quality control should be performed using which two organisms?
A)Gardnerella and Lactobacillus
B)Erysipelothrix and Gardnerella
C)Propionibacterium and Lactobacillus
D)Actinomyces and Arcanobacterium
Page 18
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41592
Sample Questions
Q1) The group of bacteria that can be described as being normal inhabitants of soil and water and primarily responsible for the decomposition of plant material is:
A)Rhodococcus.
B)Nocardia.
C)Gordonia.
D)Tsukamurella.
Q2) A chronic,granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues,which is caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts,is referred to as:
A)actinomycetoma.
B)infectious granulomas.
C)lymphocytoma.
D)Actinomadura.
Q3) Which organisms should be used to run quality control for acid-fast stains?
A)Nocardia and Rhodococcus
B)Streptomyces and Actinomadura
C)Dermatophilus and Nocardiopsis
D)Nocardia and Streptomyces
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Enterobacteriaceae
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41593
Sample Questions
Q1) A green colony with a black center was isolated and presumptively identified as a Salmonella spp.The organism was serotyped with polyvalent antisera;however,the antisera tested negative for all antigens.What is the next course of action?
A)Regrow the organism on sheep blood agar,and serotype again the next day.
B)Make a suspension,and heat to 100°C for 10 minutes.
C)Make a suspension,and place on ice for 30 minutes.
D)Report the organism out as a nontypable Salmonella spp.
Q2) MacConkey-sorbitol agar is useful for detecting pathogenic strains of:
A)E.coli.
B)Shigella spp.
C)Salmonella spp.
D)Vibrio spp.
Q3) A green colony with a black center is isolated on HE agar from a stool specimen.It is most likely which organism?
A)E.coli
B)Salmonella spp.
C)Shigella spp.
D)K.pneumoniae
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41594
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary drug of choice for infections caused by S.maltophilia is:
A)a -lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
B)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
C)ticarcillin and clavulanic acid.
D)chloramphenicol.
Q2) Plump coccobacilli that tend to resist alcohol decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp.are:
A)Bordetella spp.
B)S.maltophilia.
C)Acinetobacter spp.
D)P.oryzihabitans.
Q3) Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A)Acinetobacter spp.
B)B.trematum
C)Burkholderia gladioli
D)S.maltophilia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41595
Sample Questions
Q1) PC agar is a selective media for isolation of B.cepacia.What is the purpose of the polymixin B and ticarcillin in the media?
A)They provide nutrients to enrich the growth of B.cepacia.
B)They cause color change in the media from yellow to pink.
C)They inhibit growth of gram-positive and other gram-negative organisms.
D)They stabilize the media to support growth if prolonged incubation is needed.
Q2) Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of urea agar for quality control purposes?
A)P.fluorescens and B.cepacia complex
B)Ralstonia mannitolilytica and Acidovorax delafieldii
C)Brevundimonas diminuta and Brevundimonas vesicularis
D)B.vesicularis and R.pickettii
Q3) Which species of Burkholderia is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?
A)Burkholderia ralstonia
B)B.pseudomallei
C)B.mallei
D)B.cepacia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41596
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms has clear colonies on MacConkey agar,oxidizes glucose and xylose,and has the ability to hydrolyze esculin?
A)Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
B)Paracoccus yeei
C)Rhizobium radiobacter
D)Shewanella putrefaciens
Q2) Which organism is a nonlactose-fermenter that oxidizes glucose and xylose and also morphologically resembles colonies of Enterobacteriaceae?
A)CDC group Ic
B)O.anthropi
C)S.putrefaciens
D)A.xylosoxidans
Q3) The natural habitat of Ochrobactrum spp.can best be described as the:
A)mucous membranes of animals.
B)gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)natural environment.
D)genitourinary tract of animals.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 22: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41597
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving hemodialysis began spiking a fever shortly after his treatment.Blood cultures were drawn and grew out the following gram-negative rods that were indole positive with variable results for urea,nitrate reduction,and gelatin.The organism is most likely:
A)E.meningoseptica.
B)E.brevis.
C)CDC group O-1.
D)Chryseobacterium spp.
Q2) On Gram stain,which organism appears thin in the center and thicker at the ends?
A)Agrobacterium yellow group
B)CDC groups EO-3 and EO-4
C)E.meningoseptica
D)E.brevis
Q3) Which organism's virulence is due to protease and gelatinase production,which causes the destruction of host cells and tissues?
A)Bergeyella zoohelcum
B)E.meningoseptica
C)Chryseobacterium indologenes
D)Agrobacterium spp.
Page 24
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41598
Sample Questions
Q1) The mode of transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica can best be described as:
A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
Q2) Achromobacter,Alcaligenes,and Bordetella are all: A)urea positive.
B)oxidase negative.
C)nonglucose utilizers.
D)lactose fermenters.
Q3) Quality control is set up to determine the validity of cetrimide agar.Which two organisms should be used?
A)B.bronchiseptica and Cupriavidus pauculus
B)A.denitrificans and Alcaligenes faecalis
C)Achromobacter piechaudii and B.bronchiseptica
D)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)Alcaligenes-like group 1 and C.pauculus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 25
Chapter 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41599
Sample Questions
Q1) Profuse watery diarrhea (i.e. ,"rice water stools"),leading to dramatic fluid loss,severe dehydration,and hypotension that frequently leads to death,is the hallmark of which toxin activity?
A)Cholera toxin (CT)
B)Enteric endotoxin
C)Shiga toxin
D)Toxin A
Q2) Transmission of P.shigelloides to humans is by:
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
Q3) Transmission of Aeromonas spp.to humans is by:
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 26
Chapter 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41600
Sample Questions
Q1) A yellow-pigmented,gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive,motile by wet mount,and has the ability to oxidize glucose,xylose,and sucrose is most likely which of the following?
A)Treponema
B)Leptospira
C)Borrelia
D)Sphingomonas
Q2) When performing quality control on motility media,which of the following organisms should be used?
A)Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)group IIc and CDC group IIe
C)CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii
D)CDC group IIh and A.facilis
Q3) Oxidase-positive,glucose-positive (oxidatively)gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:
A)Pseudomonas.
B)Vibrio.
C)Stenotrophomonas.
D)Sphingomonas.
Page 27
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Moraxella
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41601
Sample Questions
Q1) True cocci,such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella catarrhalis,can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by:
A)comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B)subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C)identifying the resistance of Moraxella to many -lactam antimicrobial agents.
D)performing the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)test.
Q2) The virulence of this organism(s),which is transmitted via a dog bite,is attributed to:
A)protease production.
B)various toxins.
C)hemolysins.
D)something unknown.
Q3) In Gram-stained preparations,M.lacunata will appear as:
A)either gram-negative coccobacilli or short,broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B)gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C)coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D)coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41602
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms is negative for catalase,indole,and arginine dihydrolase tests and pits the agar on a sheep blood agar plate?
A)E.corrodens
B)W.virosa
C)P.maltophilia
D)S.paucimobilis
Q2) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?
A)E.corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.
B)W.virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum
C)B.zoohelcum and Escherichia coli
D)E.corrodens and W.virosa
Q3) The organism that is found in vegetation and occasionally in the hospital environment grows best at which temperature?
A)4°C
B)25°C
C)35°C
D)56°C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41603
Sample Questions
Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B)M.haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C)P.multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D)Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
Q2) An organism that causes infection as a result of a dog or cat bite was tested for catalase,resulting in a positive reaction.What could be the possible source of the error?
A)The catalase reagent could be expired.
B)This organism is normally negative for catalase;therefore a mutation may have occurred.
C)A false-positive result occurred because of the catalase production of the red blood cells in the 5% sheep blood agar.
D)No error is present.This organism is catalase-positive.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41604
Sample Questions
Q1) To test the validity of catalase reagent,which two organisms should be used?
A)A.actinomycetemcomitans and Kingella kingae
B)C.hominis and A.aphrophilus
C)K.denitrificans and K.kingae
D)Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus ureae
Q2) A.actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from A.aphrophilus by its:
A)negative test for catalase.
B)positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)positive test for catalase.
D)negative test for oxidase.
Q3) Of the following organisms,which one is among the Aggregatibacter aphrophilus,Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans,Cardiobacterium hominis,Eikenella corrodens,and Kingella spp.(HACEK)group of organisms that cause slowly progressive bacterial endocarditis?
A)Capnocytophaga gingivalis
B)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
C)E.corrodens
D)A.actinomycetemcomitans
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 30: Haemophilus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41605
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following media,which provides the NAD necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?
A)5% sheep blood agar
B)Brain-heart infusion agar
C)Chocolate agar
D)Nutrient agar
Q2) Which of the following media provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?
A)5% sheep blood agar
B)Brain-heart infusion agar
C)Chocolate agar
D)Nutrient agar
Q3) H.influenzae can be distinguished from H.aegyptius by its _____ test for _____.
A)negative;sucrose fermentation
B)negative;lactose fermentation
C)positive;catalase
D)positive;xylose fermentation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 31: Bartonella and Afipia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41606
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species,which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?
A)B.bacilliformis
B)B.henselae
C)B.elizabethae
D)B.clarridgeiae
Q2) Trench fever,bacteremia,endocarditis,chronic lymphadenopathy,and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:
A)A.felis.
B)B.quintana.
C)B.clarridgeiae.
D)B.henselae.
Q3) Although molecular methods are available,such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species,limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:
A)probes.
B)polymerases.
C)primers.
D)restriction enzymes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41607
Sample Questions
Q1) Campylobacter spp.can sometimes be detected by direct Gram-stain examination of fecal sample,which would reveal many:
A)large,faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
B)small curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.
C)small gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)plump,faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) Curved,microaerophilic,gram-negative rods,with most species having strong urease activity and the majority of which colonize mammalian stomachs or intestines,describe which group of bacteria?
A)Campylobacter
B)Helicobacter
C)Arcobacter
D)Enterobacter
Q3) Antimicrobial therapy for H.pylori infection consists of:
A)penicillin,gentamycin,and imipenem.
B)clindamycin,ceftriazone,and carbapenem.
C)A proton pump inhibitor,clarithromycin,and metronidazole.
D)azithromycin alone.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34
Chapter 33: Legionella
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41608
Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)faintly staining,thin gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) A direct immunofluorescent antibody (DFA)test was performed on a sputum sample that yielded a positive test.The organism grew on BCYE medium and was a thin gram-negative,faintly staining bacillus.What is the drug of choice for this organism?
A)Fluoroquinolones
B)Erythromycin
C)Penicillin
D)Aminoglycosides
Q3) Who is at most risk to develop legionnaires' disease?
A)65-year-old transplant recipient
B)14 year old swimming in a lake
C)90 year old living in an apartment complex
D)Newborn baby to a mother infected with hepatitis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35
Chapter 34: Brucella
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41609
Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A)dairy farmers.
B)fishermen.
C)prison guards.
D)those working with exotic birds.
Q2) Facultative,intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:
A)be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.
Q3) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable,which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A)Penicillin and azithromycin
B)Ampicillin and gentamycin
C)Doxycycline and rifampin
D)Gentamycin and vancomycin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41610
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following toxins contributes to the virulence of B.pertussis and works by hemolyzing red cells and activating cyclic adenosine monophosphate,which inactivates several types of host immune cells?
A)Endotoxin
B)Pertussis toxin
C)Tracheal cytotoxin
D)Adenylate cyclase toxin
Q2) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis,symptoms are:
A)runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
Q3) During the catarrhal stage of pertussis,symptoms are:
A)runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)vomiting and "whooping" as air is rapidly inspired into the lungs past a swollen glottis.
D)lymphocytosis and fever.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 37
Chapter 36: Francisella
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41611
Sample Questions
Q1) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:
A)blood.
B)cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
C)lymph nodes.
D)urine.
Q2) Tularemia,characterized by glandular,ulceroglandular,oculoglandular,oropharyngeal,systemic,and pneumonic presentations,is caused by which of the following species?
A)Brucella
B)Bordetella
C)Pasteurella
D)Francisella
Q3) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory,a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A)Cysteine and cystine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41612
Sample Questions
Q1) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired Spirillum minus is:
A)sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)monillic fever.
D)monillic gastritis.
Q2) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever,or Haverhill fever,which is characterized by acute onset of chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and severe joint pains,as well as a rash on the palms,soles of the feet,and other extremities?
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis
B)Brucella abortus
C)Bordetella spp.
D)Pasteurella spp.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A)sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)monillic fever.
D)monillic gastritis.
Page 39
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41613
Sample Questions
Q1) M.catarrhalis can be described as a:
A)gram-positive diplococcus.
B)gram-negative diplococcus.
C)gram-negative coccobacillus.
D)gram-negative bacillus.
Q2) N.gonorrhoeae is spread by:
A)person-to-person nosocomial spread by respiratory droplets.
B)person-to-person spread by sexual contact.
C)from infected mother to newborn during birth.
D)B and C only.
Q3) The gram-negative coccus that can be described as oxidase-positive,glucose-negative,maltose-negative,sucrose-negative,lactose-negativ e,and DNase-positive is:
A)N.meningitidis.
B)M.catarrhalis.
C)Neisseria cinerea.
D)N.gonorrhoeae.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 39: Overview and General Considerations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41614
Sample Questions
Q1) During specimen collection,an important thing to remember when handling a collection device with an oxygen-free atmosphere is to:
A)take care not to tip the container.
B)hold the collected specimen in the refrigerator until processing.
C)hold the collected specimen in the incubator until processing.
D)avoid opening the container in an aerobic atmosphere.
Q2) Egg-yolk agar
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective;supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q3) CCFA
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective;supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 40: Laboratory Considerations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41615
Sample Questions
Q1) The most likely identification of kanamycin-sensitive and anaerobic gram-negative bacilli that fluoresce a chartreuse color is:
A)Fusobacterium spp.
B)nonpigmented Prevotella.
C)B.ureolyticus.
D)Porphyromonas spp.
Q2) Fusobacterium spp.
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q3) B.fragilis group
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 41: Mycobacteria
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41616
Sample Questions
Q1) What quantity of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is considered sufficient for the detection of tuberculous meningitis?
A)1 mL
B)5 mL
C)10 mL
D)20 mL
Q2) A positive tuberculin skin test,or PPD test,is characterized by:
A)erythema and induration.
B)redness and rash.
C)swelling and erythema.
D)edema and rash.
Q3) The most commonly isolated mycobacterium in the United States is:
A)M.tuberculosis.
B)M.bovis.
C)Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare.
D)Mycobacterium paratuberculosis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 43
Chapter 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41617
Sample Questions
Q1) The C.burnetii,an acute systemic infection,primarily affects the lungs and can exist in two antigenic states.The reference method that is both highly specific and sensitive and is recommended for identification is:
A)immunofluorescent antibody (IFA).
B)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C)Western blot.
D)latex agglutination.
Q2) Of the following organisms,which can be described as a fastidious obligate intracellular parasite that multiplies by binary fission in the cytoplasm of host cells and infects humans as accidental hosts in most cases?
A)Rickettsia
B)Chlamydia
C)Calymmatobacterium
D)Coxiella
Q3) Which of the following vectors transmit scrub typhus?
A)Lice
B)Ticks
C)Fleas
D)Chiggers
Page 44
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41618
Sample Questions
Q1) Incorporation of urea into media is used to enhance the detection of which organism?
A)U.urealyticum
B)M.pneumoniae
C)M.hominis
D)M.genitalium
Q2) Media that can be used for the isolation of Mycoplasma include:
A)Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.
B)5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.
C)beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.
D)hemin and nicotinamide-adenine-dinucleotide (NAD)supplements.
Q3) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Rickettsia
D)Coxiella
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 45
Chapter 44: The Spirochetes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41619
Sample Questions
Q1) The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is associated with the clearance of organism from the bloodstream and the release of cytokines within hours of antibiotic treatment.With which spirochete is this condition associated?
A)Treponema
B)Borrelia
C)Leptospira
D)Brachyspira
Q2) A stage of venereal syphilis characterized by the appearance of a chancre is known as __________ syphilis.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)late
D)tertiary
Q3) Treponemal antibodies are those that are:
A)produced against antigens of the organisms themselves.
B)produced by infected patients against components of mammalian cells.
C)produced by the organism that causes the systemic destruction of the disease.
D)also called reaginic antibodies.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41620
Sample Questions
Q1) Some strains of leishmaniae have reservoir hosts,including dogs and wild rodents.Transmission is via the bite of a:
A)tsetse fly.
B)tick.
C)sandfly.
D)triatomid bug.
Q2) Which of the following is currently the only fixative available that does not contain formalin,polyvinyl alcohol (PVA),or mercury?
A)Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
B)Sodium acetate-acetic acid-formalin (SAF)
C)ECOFIX
D)TOTAL-FIX
Q3) Babesia spp.is transmitted via the bite of a tick and can cause severe disease in patients who have been splenectomized or who are immunocompromised.To diagnose accurately these patient populations,the specimen of choice is:
A)stool.
B)urine.
C)genital sample.
D)blood.
Page 47
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 46: Intestinal Protozoa
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41621
Sample Questions
Q1) The cyst form of Balantidium coli is the infective stage.It has one large kidney-shaped macronucleus and one small,round micronucleus.The troph is quite large,measuring 50 to 150 µm in length and 40 to 70 µm in width.What single feature is associated with this organism?
A)Falling leaf motility
B)Shepherd's crook
C)Presence of oocytes
D)Cilia covering the troph
Q2) Asexual amplification,called merogony,is associated with the life cycle of which organism?
A)Cyclospora
B)Cryptosporidium
C)Toxoplasma
D)Sarcocystis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41622
Sample Questions
Q1) Cerebral malaria is considered to be the most serious complication and major cause of death with which species of Plasmodium spp.?
A)P.vivax
B)P.falciparum
C)P.ovale
D)P.malariae
Q2) Delicate ring forms and crescent-shaped gametocytes are the only forms normally observed in the peripheral blood of which Plasmodium spp.?
A)P.vivax
B)P.malariae
C)P.falciparum
D)P.ovale
Q3) T.rypanosoma cruzi
A)Anopheles mosquito
B)Tsetse fly
C)Sandfly
D)Reduviid bug
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 49
Chapter 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41623
Sample Questions
Q1) Trichomoniasis is the primary nonviral sexually transmitted disease worldwide.One complication of this infection is:
A)keratitis.
B)endometritis.
C)meningitis.
D)appendicitis.
Q2) Laboratory diagnosis of T.gondii is confirmed by:
A)Giemsa stain.
B)tissue culture.
C)serologic testing.
D)Western blot.
Q3) Bradyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q4) Tachyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 50
Chapter 49: Intestinal Nematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41624
Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old man entered the emergency department with bleeding and weight loss several weeks after returning from a trip to South America.A stool sample was taken and microscopically examined.Barrel-shaped eggs with bipolar plugs were observed.The organism can be identified as:
A)T.trichiura.
B)A.duodenale.
C)N.americanus.
D)S.stercoralis.
Q2) Löffler syndrome is associated with which roundworm infection?
A)S.stercoralis
B)Ancylostoma duodenale
C)Trichostrongylus spp.
D)A.lumbricoides
Q3) Direct penetration of which of the following worms results in tissue damage at the site of attachment,blood loss,and an acute gastrointestinal phase demonstrated by an increased eosinophilia?
A)Whipworm
B)Pinworm
C)Threadworm
D)Hookworm
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 51
Chapter 50: Tissue Nematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41625
Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic involvement is rare in infection caused by Ancylostoma braziliense or Ancylostoma caninum;however,pneumonitis may occur.The antihelminthic therapy used to treat this infection is:
A)ivermectin or thiabendazole.
B)metronidazole or thiabendazole.
C)mebendazole or ivermectin.
D)albendazole or diethylcarbamazine.
Q2) Humans acquire infection with Trichinella tissue nematode by ingesting undercooked meat that contains the infective encysted larvae.In which tissue do these larvae encyst?
A)Brain
B)Meninges
C)Myocardium
D)Striated muscle
Q3) Copepods
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 52
Chapter 51: Blood Nematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41626
Sample Questions
Q1) The definitive host and reservoir for Wuchereria bancrofti is:
A)mosquito.
B)microfilaria.
C)humans.
D)tabanid fly.
Q2) A Giemsa stain is performed on an eye exudate on a patient with calabar swelling,eosinophilia,and a recent travel history to Africa.L.loa is suspected;however,the sheath in the adult worm recovered does not stain.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The worm recovered is not L.loa.
B)The specimen should have been stained with trichrome stain.
C)The Giemsa stain is most likely expired.
D)No discrepancy is present.The sheath does not stain with Giemsa stain.
Q3) Brugia spp.
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 52: Intestinal Cestodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41627
Sample Questions
Q1) The Diphyllobothrium latum tapeworm can reach up to 10 meters in length and can have more than 3000 to 4000 proglottids.The definitive host and reservoir host,respectively,are:
A)fish and copepods.
B)crustaceans and humans.
C)copepods and crustaceans.
D)humans and fish.
Q2) The T.solium organism,which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long,contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is: A)dogs.
B)cats.
C)pigs.
D)cattle.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
54
Chapter 53: Tissue Cestodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41628
Sample Questions
Q1) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A)T.solium
B)Echinococcus granulosus
C)Spirometra mansonoides
D)Echinococcus multilocularis
Q2) The Taenia multiceps tapeworm is 5 to 6 cm long and consists of 200 to 250 segments.It has four suckers in its scolex and a proboscis with 22 to 32 hooks arranged in two rows.This organism causes which condition?
A)Coenurosis
B)Cysticercosis
C)Hydatid disease
D)Sparganosis
Q3) Epileptic seizures,headaches,and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:
A)positive direct fluorescent antibody test.
B)observance of eggs in the stool.
C)positive India ink stain.
D)identification of cysts in tissue.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 54: Intestinal Trematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41629
Sample Questions
Q1) The adult form of the fluke,Fasciolopsis buski,is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is: A)snails.
B)birds.
C)rodents. D)dogs.
Q2) A 36-year-old man who has traveled for several weeks in the orient is experiencing abdominal pain and diarrhea with a large amount of mucus.A H.heterophyes egg measuring 28 by 15 µm is identified in the stool.The treatment of choice for this intestinal trematode is:
A)metronidazole.
B)chloroquine.
C)albendazole. D)praziquantel.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41630
Sample Questions
Q1) The eggs of Paragonimus mexicanus measure approximately 80 µm by 40 µm,are unembryonated and operculated,and have thick shells that are brownish-yellow.An individual with this infection has most likely traveled to which endemic area?
A)Japan
B)Africa
C)New Guinea
D)South America
Q2) Sheep liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
Q3) Charcot-Leyden crystals are often observed in specimens infected with which one of the following trematodes?
A)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis)sinensis
B)Opisthorchis viverrini
C)Fasciola hepatica
D)Paragonimus westermani
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 56: Blood Trematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41631
Sample Questions
Q1) Rodents,marsupials,and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A)S.japonicum
B)S.haematobium
C)S.mansoni
D)Schistosoma intercalatum
Q2) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A)Schistosoma mansoni
B)Schistosoma japonicum
C)S.haematobium
D)Schistosoma mekongi
Q3) An egg of the organism of S.mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel;however,his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)Metrifonate should have been administered.
B)Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.
C)Steroids should have been initially administered.
D)A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 58
Chapter 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41632
Sample Questions
Q1) If a fungal colony is described as rugose,then it means that the colony:
A)is furrowed or convoluted.
B)is slightly raised in the center.
C)furrows radiate out from the center.
D)has a smooth surface with no aerial mycelium.
Q2) An example of a thermally monomorphic mold is:
A)P.marneffei.
B)S.schenckii.
C)Epidermophyton.
D)H.capsulatum.
Q3) A 16-year-old male teenager is diagnosed with a fungal infection of his foot,which he acquired at the gym.This infection would most likely be classified as a(n)_______ mycosis.
A)superficial
B)subcutaneous
C)systemic
D)opportunistic
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 59
Chapter 58: Hyaline Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and
Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41633
Sample Questions
Q1) A fungus is recovered from a nail scrapping.Microscopic examination reveals numerous smooth,thin-walled,club-shaped,multiseptate macroconidia;however,microconidia are absent.The organism can be identified as:
A)Microsporum canis.
B)E.floccosum.
C)T.rubrum.
D)M.gypseum.
Q2) A hair perforation test is performed using Trichophyton mentagrophytes and T.rubrum.The expected results are:
A)positive for both organisms.
B)positive for T.rubrum and negative for T.mentagrophytes.
C)positive for T.mentagrophytes and negative for T.rubrum.
D)negative for both organisms.
Q3) Which organism produces mostly shades of green or blue-green colonies? Microscopically,hyphae are hyaline and septate and produce brushlike conidiophores.
A)Paecilomyces
B)Acremonium
C)Scopulariopsis
D)Penicillium
Page 60
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 59: Dematiaceious Molds
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41634
Sample Questions
Q1) Conidia are usually single celled and exhibit prominent attachment scars (disjunctors).
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q2) Conidial heads with a sympodial arrangement of conidia exhibit primary conidia giving rise to secondary conidia.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 61
Chapter 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41635
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify P.jirovecii?
A)Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
B)Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
C)Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D)Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q2) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A)Bradyzoite
B)Trophozoite
C)Sporocyte
D)Cyst
Q3) The cell membrane of P.jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______,which differentiates it from other fungi.
A)sterols;cholesterol
B)ergosterol;sterols
C)cholesterol;ergosterol
D)sitosterol;sterols
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 61: The Yeasts
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41636
Sample Questions
Q1) Polysaccharide capsule
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)C.albicans
C)M.furfur
D)C.neoformans
Q2) Cryptococcus neoformans is widely distributed in nature,and aerosolization is a prerequisite to most infections.This organism is most often associated with exposure to:
A)contaminated soil.
B)pigeon excreta.
C)contaminated food.
D)rat excreta.
Q3) Encapsulated yeast is identified in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)of a patient with AIDS.The most likely stain or reagent used to identify this organism is:
A)potassium hydroxide (KOH).
B)calcofluor white.
C)lactophenol cotton blue.
D)India ink.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 62: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing,
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41637
Sample Questions
Q1) Binds microtubular proteins
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) Alters membrane permeability
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with an invasive Aspergillosis infection.The antifungal therapy that should be administered is:
A)nystatin.
B)griseofulvin.
C)amphotericin B.
D)fluconazole.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 64
Chapter 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41638
Sample Questions
Q1) Hemadsorption
A)RSV
B)HIV
C)CMV
D)Adenovirus
E)HSV
F)Pediatric respiratory virus
G)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
H)Influenzas A and B
Q2) Primary cell line
A)HEp-2 culture cells
B)Monkey kidney cells
C)Fibroblast cells
Q3) The cytomegalovirus (CMV)produces cytopathic effects (CPE)in diploid fibroblast cells in an average of 7 days.The results are available within 16 hours using which type of assay?
A)Conventional cell culture
B)Shell vial
C)Paired sera
D)Western blot
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 65
Chapter 64: Viruses in Human Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41639
Sample Questions
Q1) An 8-month-old female infant is admitted to the emergency department in respiratory distress on Christmas Eve.A nasopharyngeal aspirate is obtained and sent to the laboratory on ice for analysis.The most probable organism that would be isolated is:
A)varicella-zoster virus.
B)respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
C)rotavirus.
D)coxsackievirus.
Q2) Shingles
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV)type 1
B)HSV type 2
C)Zoster
D)Varicella
E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F)CMV
G)Human herpesvirus (HHV)8
Q3) Herpangina
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41640
Sample Questions
Q1) Point mutations in the hemagglutination (HA)or neuraminidase (NA)genes during viral ribonucleoprotein (RNP)replication give rise to new strains.This mechanism is known as the antigenic:
A)drift.
B)shift.
C)re-assortment.
D)modification.
Q2) Viable cells take up neutral red dye.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q3) Amantadine
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 66: Bloodstream Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41641
Sample Questions
Q1) Granulicatella spp.and Abiotrophia spp.are dependent on which nutritional additive for optimal growth?
A)Vitamin K
B)Vitamin B
C)Vitamin B
D)Vitamin D
Q2) A 76-year-old man with intermittent fevers has blood cultures drawn three times.The second set is positive and grew out of a Corynebacterium spp.This organism is considered:
A)pathogenic.
B)virulent.
C)a contaminant.
D)normal flora.
Q3) Patients receiving lipid-supplemented parenteral nutrition are at risk for developing fungemia caused by which organism?
A)Histoplasma capsulatum
B)Malassezia furfur
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Candida albicans
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 68
Chapter 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41642
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults,regardless of age,is:
A)Neisseria meningitidis.
B)S.pyogenes.
C)S.pneumoniae.
D)M.pneumoniae.
Q2) M.pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A)previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)school-age children.
Q3) The most common etiologic agent of community-acquired pneumonia in adults older than 30 years of age is ___ pneumoniae.
A)Mycoplasma
B)Chlamydophila
C)Streptococcus
D)Klebsiella
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41643
Sample Questions
Q1) Laryngitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) Rhinitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 70
Chapter 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41644
Sample Questions
Q1) The innermost membrane layer surrounding the brain and spinal column is the: A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q2) An increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis)in the CSF and negative bacterial and fungal cultures is referred to as:
A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)pleocytosis.
Q3) Infection within the subarachnoid space or throughout the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane is referred to as:
A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)meningitis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 71
Chapter 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41645
Sample Questions
Q1) Orbital cellulitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q2) The organism that can be encountered in the conjunctival sac and that exists as indigenous flora is:
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B)Bacteroides fragilis.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Moraxella lacunata.
Q3) Keratitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41646
Sample Questions
Q1) The most frequent cause of uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infections is:
A)S.saprophyticus.
B)Klebsiella spp.
C)E.coli.
D)Proteus.
Q2) Pyelonephritis
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria,frequency,and urgency,but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma,calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis),and pelvis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 72: Genital Tract Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41647
Sample Questions
Q1) Proper design of a urogenital swab expressly intended for the collection of urethral discharge should include what feature?
A)Charcoal-treated cotton or rayon
B)Antibiotic-treated calcium alginate
C)Non flexible Shaft of wood and not flexible
D)Dacron-tipped swabs
Q2) Bartholinitis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella,Prevotella spp. ,Porphyromonas spp. ,Peptostreptococcus spp. ,Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)N.gonorrhoeae and C.trachomatis
F)E.coli and other enteric organisms
G)Mumps virus
Q3) The flora of the female genital tract:
A)consists primarily of staphylococci,corynebacteria,and Neisseria.
B)consists primarily of Enterobacteriaceae,streptococci,and staphylococci.
C)consists primarily of S.agalactiae and staphylococci.
D)varies with the pH and estrogen concentration of the mucosa.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 74
Chapter 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41648
Sample Questions
Q1) The transport medium that best preserves the viability of most intestinal bacterial pathogens is:
A)buffered glycerol.
B)rectal culture swab.
C)Cary-Blair.
D)Campylobacter thioglycollate broth.
Q2) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) Gram-negative broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 75
Chapter 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41649
Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-year-old girl is diagnosed with a bullous impetigo infection.Based on this information,the catalase and coagulase results of the infecting organism are expected to be catalase-_____ and coagulase-_____.
A)negative;negative
B)positive;negative
C)positive;positive
D)negative;positive
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with gas gangrene in the skin as a result of bullous lesions associated with sepsis.The Gram-stain reaction and morphologic features of the most probable pathogen causing this infection is:
A)gram-positive cocci.
B)gram-positive bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) The most predominant anaerobe isolated in animal bites is:
A)Veillonella spp.
B)Clostridium spp.
C)Prevotella spp.
D)Fusobacterium spp.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 76
Chapter 75: Normally Sterile Body Fluids, Bone and Bone
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41650
Sample Questions
Q1) Any tissues received in the clinical microbiology laboratory should be minced and homogenized in a biosafety cabinet.If lung tissue is sent and processed,then which organism should be examined using direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)testing?
A)Listeria
B)Legionella
C)Leishmania
D)Leptospira
Q2) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is:
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
Q3) Human bites and animal bites caused by ________ and _________,respectively,can ultimately lead to an underlying bone infection.
A)Eikenella corrodens;Actinomyces spp.
B)Pasteurella multocida;Peptostreptococcus spp.
C)Prevotella spp. ;S.aureus
D)E.corrodens;P.multocida
Page 77
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41651
Sample Questions
Q1) Protocol for testing susceptibility test systems include testing _____ consecutive days.
A)daily for 7
B)bi-weekly for 30
C)every other day for 14
D)with use for 20
Q2) In addition to recording the lot number,date received,condition received,and expiration date,antisera should be:
A)discarded after each use.
B)frozen upon arrival.
C)dated when opened.
D)tested by the supervisor first before anyone uses it.
Q3) Examination and work-up of a culture and interpretation of results by the microbiologist would pertain to which step in the quality assurance process?
A)Preanalytic
B)Analytic
C)Postanalytic
D)Analytic review
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 77: Infection Control
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41652
Sample Questions
Q1) A phenotypic technique that examines the ability of bacteriophages,which are viruses capable of infecting and lysing bacterial cells,to attack certain strains is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)bacteriocin typing.
D)bacteriophage typing.
Q2) A 76-year-old man attends a meeting at his condominium association where many of his neighbors are sick with respiratory symptoms.He later develops a Haemophilus influenzae infection,which is classified as a _________ infection.
A)nosocomial
B)hospital-acquired
C)community-acquired
D)heath care-related
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41653
Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):
A)covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)covert event is announced,and an overt event is not announced.
C)overt event is announced,and a covert event is not announced.
D)overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q2) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A)biosecurity.
B)bio crime.
C)microterrorism.
D)cactiterrorism.
Q3) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:
A)horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.
C)microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.
D)living beings to wage war in peacetime.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.