Microbial Pathogenesis Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Microbial Pathogenesis explores the molecular and cellular mechanisms by which microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites cause disease in their hosts. The course examines the interactions between pathogens and host defense systems, including strategies microbes use to invade, evade immune responses, and establish infections. Students will learn about virulence factors, routes of transmission, pathogenesis of major human infectious diseases, and current approaches for diagnosis, treatment, and prevention. Emphasis is placed on the clinical significance of microbial diseases and the development of new therapeutic interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Human Perspective 7th Edition by Eugene Nester
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Humans and the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thiomargarita namibiensis could not be a eukaryote because it is only 1mm in width.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Organisms
A) may be classified in four domains.
B) may be classified in three domains.
C) probably do not have a common ancestor.
D) have never shared genes between domains.
E) may be classified in three domains, probably do not have a common ancestor AND have never shared genes between domains.
Answer: B
Q3) Viruses may only be grown
A) in sterile, cell-free chemical growth media.
B) in living cells.
C) at body temperature.
D) in darkness.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true of carbohydrates?
A) They may be part of the structure of bacteria.
B) They may serve as a source of food.
C) They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio.
D) They may be bonded to proteins to form glycoproteins.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) Amino acids in proteins are linked to one another by peptide bonds between the A) methyl group of one amino acid and a side group of another amino acid.
B) carbon atoms of two adjacent amino acids.
C) carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another.
D) nitrogen atom and carboxyl ion.
Answer: C
Q3) Phospholipids are nonpolar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The order of reagents in the Gram stain reaction are
A) safranin, alcohol, methylene blue, iodine.
B) crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin.
C) methylene blue, alcohol, safranin.
D) crystal violet, alcohol, iodine, safranin.
Answer: B
Q2) Which may result in Gram-positive bacteria appearing to be Gram-negative?
A) decolorizing too long
B) decolorizing too short
C) using old cultures
D) using young cultures
E) decolorizing too long AND using old cultures
Answer: E
Q3) Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall?
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Dynamics of Prokaryotic Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur may be considered
A) minor elements.
B) major elements.
C) neutral elements.
D) acidic elements.
Q2) During which phase of growth are bacteria most susceptible to antibiotics?
A) lag
B) stationary
C) exponential (log)
D) decline
Q3) A urine sample with more than 100,000 organisms is considered indicative of infection. A urine sample containing 5,000 bacteria, with a generation time of 30 minutes, sits for 3 hours before finally being assayed. How many bacteria will then be present within the sample?
A) 10,000
B) 64,000
C) 100,000
D) 320,000
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6
Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxidation of proteins is achieved most readily
A) by moist heat.
B) by moist heat under pressure.
C) in a hot air oven.
D) in the presence of organics.
Q2) A common environmental organism that may even grow in certain chemical disinfectants is
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D) enveloped virus.
Q3) Moist heat kills microorganisms by
A) irreversible coagulation of proteins.
B) destruction of carbohydrates in the cell wall.
C) denaturation of nucleic acids.
D) dissolving the capsule.
Q4) Organic acids, such as benzoic acid, are often added to foods to prevent microbial growth.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Fueling Cell Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria
A) obtain electrons from water.
B) do not produce oxygen as a byproduct.
C) may obtain electrons from H<sub>2</sub>S.
D) are obligate aerobes.
E) do not produce oxygen as a byproduct AND may obtain electrons from H<sub>2</sub>S.
Q2) Most enzymes function best at
A) acidic pH and high salt concentrations.
B) basic pH and low salt concentrations.
C) neutral pH and high salt concentrations.
D) slightly above pH 7 and low salt concentrations.
Q3) Glycolysis
A) is also known as the Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway.
B) is also known as the Entner-Duodoroff pathway.
C) is used by Pseudomonas and a few other bacteria.
D) generates some energy and NADPH.
E) is also known as the Entner-Duodoroff pathway AND is used by Pseudomonas and a few other bacteria.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Blueprint of Life, From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNAi
A) is the form of mRNA that initiates translation.
B) uses short pieces of single stranded RNA to direct the degradation of specific RNA transcripts.
C) is a mechanism of genetic regulation found in eukaryotes.
D) is any chemical that inhibits transcription.
E) uses short pieces of single stranded RNA to direct the degradation of specific RNA transcripts AND is a mechanism of genetic regulation found in eukaryotes.
Q2) Which is true about the RNA transcript?
A) It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template.
B) It has the same 5'-3' orientation as the DNA positive strand.
C) It is made in short fragments that are then stitched together.
D) The template starts at the promoter region.
E) It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template, it has the same 5'-3' orientation as the DNA positive strand AND the template starts at the promoter region.
Q3) A codon consists of 2 nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that have properties of both the donor and recipient cells are the result of A) UV light.
B) SOS repair.
C) frame shift mutations.
D) genetic recombination.
Q2) Chemical mutagens often act by altering the A) alkyl groups of the nitrogen bases.
B) nitrogen base sequence.
C) number of binding sites on the nitrogen bases.
D) hydrogen bonding properties of the nitrogen bases.
Q3) The transfer of vancomycin resistance from Enterococcus faecalis to Staphylococcus aureus is thought to have involved A) conjugation.
B) transformation.
C) transduction.
D) transposons.
E) conjugation AND transposons.
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10
Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Recombinant Dna
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Sample Questions
Q1) PCR produces
A) DNA fragments of all possible sizes.
B) DNA fragments that are one nucleotide larger than the next fragment.
C) DNA fragments of a particular size.
D) DNA fragments of increasing size.
E) DNA fragments that are one nucleotide larger than the next fragment AND DNA fragments of increasing size.
Q2) Short tandem repeats (STRs)
A) are useful in identifying specific individuals
B) are important sites in vectors where foreign DNA can be integrated
C) are errors that can arise during DNA sequencing
D) are DNA fragments generated during PCR
Q3) The polymerase chain reaction is used to
A) amplify certain sections of DNA.
B) amplify mRNA.
C) produce proteins.
D) produce long polymers of carbohydrates to be used in electrophoresis.
Q4) FISH uses labeled probes to detect specific whole cells.
A)True
B)False
11
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Chapter 10: Identification and Classification of Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that grow very slowly, are non-culturable, are present in very small numbers or are mixed with a number of other bacteria may still be identified using A) Southern blotting.
B) replica plating.
C) PCR.
D) gas chromatography of fatty acids.
Q2) Media that changes color as a result of the biochemical activity of growing bacteria
A) usually contain a pH indicator in the media.
B) usually contain blood.
C) usually require the addition of various reagents before the color is evident.
D) is due to a breakdown of a colorless reagent.
Q3) E. coli 0157:H7
A) is Gram-positive.
B) is a normal constituent of the intestinal tract.
C) does not ferment sorbitol.
D) produces a toxin.
E) does not ferment sorbitol AND produces a toxin.
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Chapter 11: The Diversity of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relatively little is known about many obligate anaerobes. Why might this be so?
A) The obligate aerobes are far more numerous, and also far more interesting.
B) It's much harder to provide the right atmospheric environment to cultivate obligate anaerobes, so it's been harder to study them.
C) Only obligate aerobes cause disease, so we've had little reason to study obligate anaerobes.
D) The majority of obligate anaerobes are very nutritionally fastidious, which has slowed their study.
Q2) Which of the following contains bacteriochlorophyll?
A) Bacillus subtilus
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) E. coli
E) Chromatium, Thiospirillum, Thidictyon
Q3) Reticulate and elementary bodies are two forms of
A) Mycoplasma.
B) Caulobacter.
C) Chlamydia.
D) Myxobacteria.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plant pathology grew in importance as a field of study after it was shown that the Irish potato blight was caused by A) bacteria.
B) viruses.
C) fungi.
D) amoeboid protozoa.
Q2) Algae
A) often grow in areas where other forms of life may have difficulty. B) are strictly macroscopic organisms.
C) have a vascular system similar to plants.
D) are only found in the soil.
Q3) Fungi are often capable of locomotion through the use of flagella.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Protozoan classification is based on their means of A) locomotion.
B) growth.
C) reproduction.
D) obtaining nutrients.
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Chapter 13: Viruses, Viroids and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A key feature of all viral infections is the
A) integration of viral DNA into host DNA.
B) disintegration of host DNA.
C) addition of a lipid membrane to the virus.
D) separation of viral nucleic acid from the capsid.
Q2) The approximate viral concentration of a sample may be determined by
A) quantal assay.
B) endpoint assay.
C) the titer.
D) the lysate assay.
Q3) What part of the attached bacteriophage enters through the host cell wall?
A) the entire virus
B) only the enzymes necessary for replication
C) the nucleic acid
D) the nucleic acid and capsid
E) the capsid only
Q4) The RNA phages contain only a single positive-sense strand of RNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal flora
A) are the organisms that typically reside on your body.
B) protect against infection by pathogens.
C) enhance infection by pathogens.
D) play no role in affecting pathogen growth.
E) are the organisms that typically reside on your body AND protect against infection by pathogens.
Q2) The cellular organelle responsible for the digestion of ingested infectious agents is the
A) endoplasmic reticulum.
B) Golgi apparatus.
C) phagolysosome.
D) lysosome.
Q3) A group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism is
A) complement.
B) interferon.
C) glycoprotein.
D) lysozyme.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stimulation of B cells to divide and mature is provided by A) T helper cells.
B) macrophages.
C) T cytotoxic cells.
D) plasma cells.
Q2) CD4 cells are often
A) T helper cells.
B) T suppresser cells.
C) T cytotoxic cells.
D) T hypersensitivity cells.
Q3) Which of the following is the most abundant immunological class produced?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgG
D) IgE
Q4) The chains of an antibody molecule are bonded to one another by A) disulfide bonds.
B) hydrogen bonds.
C) ionic bonds.
D) oxygen bonds.
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Chapter 16: Host-Microbe Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are called
A) abnormal flora.
B) transient flora.
C) variant flora.
D) normal flora.
Q2) A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process by which infectious agents are ingested by host cells is termed A) exocytosis.
B) pinocytosis.
C) endocytosis.
D) phagosome fusion.
Q4) Which of the following does S. pneumoniae use to survive in the host?
A) plasmids
B) pili
C) flagella
D) capsules
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Chapter 17: Immunologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) First exposure to an allergen results in a violent hypersensitivity reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If the body recognizes parts of itself as being foreign, this is termed
A) immunodeficiency disease.
B) agammaglobulinemia.
C) autoimmune disease.
D) AIDS.
Q3) Type O blood is missing both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) MHC plays a pivotal role in transplant rejection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following disease states is not among those caused by immune complexes?
A) farmer's lung
B) serum sickness
C) hay fever
D) glomerulonephritis
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Chapter 18: Applications of Immune Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term vaccination
A) is a general term that would include the process of variolation.
B) was coined by Jenner.
C) was coined by Pasteur.
D) comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.
E) is a general term that would include the process of variolation, was coined by Pasteur AND comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.
Q2) Attenuated agents are
A) dead viruses.
B) toxins.
C) weakened live organisms.
D) parts of an organism.
Q3) The change from negative serum, without antibodies specific to an infecting agent, to positive serum, containing antibodies against that infecting agent, is called A) ELISA.
B) complement fixation.
C) seroconversion.
D) RIA.
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Chapter 19: Epidemiology
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Q1) Explain how the incubation period can influence the spread of an infectious agent.
A) An infectious carrier will only spread the illness when they are showing acute symptoms. As such, the length of incubation period is not important for spreading the illness.
B) Depending on the microbe and the illness, an asymptomatic carrier in the incubation period might be shedding infectious microbes to his/her surroundings. In such a case, a longer incubation period would lead to a greater spread of the disease as the carrier comes into contact with more individuals while he/she is generally appearing to be healthy.
C) A very short incubation period will place a patient into the highly infectious active disease state sooner. Since people avoid contact with actively ill individuals, a very short incubation period will always lead to a DECREASE in the spread of an infectious disease.
D) A very long incubation period will place a patient into the highly infectious active disease state later. Since people generally avoid contact with actively ill individuals, a very long incubation period will always lead to a DECREASE in the spread of an infectious disease.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are nucleoside analogs active only against replicating viruses?
A) These drugs can only be taken up by cells that are infected by viruses. They are shut out from non-infected cells. This makes them effective only against cells where viruses are replicating.
B) Each of these drugs is specifically activated by enzymes produced by the viruses. The viruses will only produce these enzymes when they are replicating, so the drugs can only become activated when these processes are occurring.
C) Nucleoside analogs work by directly inhibiting the activity of nucleic acid polymerases. If the virus isn't actively replicating, there's no DNA/RNA polymerase active for the drug to inhibit, so the drug cannot work.
D) Nucleoside analogs work by being incorporated into growing strands of DNA/RNA. This indirectly shuts down further extension of these chains. However, new strands of viral DNA/RNA are only being created when the virus is replicating. As such, these drugs can only work when the virus is actively replicating as well.
Q2) Antimicrobial resistance can be due to spontaneous mutation or gene acquisition.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Respiratory System Infections
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Q1) The eyes are protected from infection by
A) the washing action of the tears and eyelids.
B) the chemical action of lysozyme.
C) the use of contact lenses.
D) the dryness of the eye surface.
E) the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme.
Q2) The virulence of the tubercle bacillus is due to its A) toxin.
B) lysogenic conversion.
C) resistance to antibiotics.
D) survival within macrophages.
E) lysogenic conversion AND resistance to antibiotics.
Q3) Most colds are probably caused by A) rhinovirus.
B) S. aureus.
C) Pseudomonas sp. D)E.coli.
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Chapter 22: Skin Infections
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Q1) The skin-invading molds belong to the genera
A) Epidermophyton.
B) Microsporum.
C) Trichophyton.
D) Ixodes.
E) Epidermophyton, Microsporum AND Trichophyton.
Q2) Diphtheroids
A) are part of the normal flora of the skin.
B) are responsible for body odor.
C) include P. acnes.
D) include Malassezia spp.
E) are part of the normal flora of the skin, are responsible for body odor AND include P. acnes.
Q3) The growth of P. acnes within hair follicles, in many individuals, leads to A) eczema.
B) carbuncles.
C) boils.
D) acne.
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24
Chapter 23: Wound Infections
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Q1) "Flesh-eating" Streptococcus pyogenes is considered a newly emerging disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most common infectious agent acquired from the bite wounds of a number of kinds of animals is
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Pasteurella multocida.
C) Actinomyces israelii.
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Q3) The fungal disease that may be associated with sphagnum moss is A) candidiasis.
B) actinomycosis.
C) cat scratch fever.
D) sporotrichosis.
Q4) A striking feature of Clostridium tetani that differentiates it from other pathogenic species of Clostridium is its ability to A) produce a greenish pigment.
B) form spores.
C) form terminally located, spherical spores.
D) grow aerobically.
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Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
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Q1) Where in the body does the latent, non-infectious, non-replicating form of the herpes simplex virus persist?
A) motor neurons
B) red blood cells
C) cranial nerves
D) sensory nerves
Q2) The viral disease that characteristically infects the parotid glands is
A) measles.
B) herpes.
C) chickenpox.
D) mumps.
Q3) Who determined that the cholera outbreak in 1850s London was due to contaminated water and approached the problem by removing the pump handle at the contaminated site?
A) Pasteur
B) Snow
C) Koch
D) Smith
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Chapter 25: Genitourinary Infections
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Q1) The T. pallidum of syphilis can be transmitted by
A) sexual or oral contact.
B) contact with contaminated objects.
C) clothing.
D) the fecal-oral route.
Q2) Treponema pallidum
A) is the organism that causes syphilis.
B) is a spirochete.
C) can be more easily viewed with dark-field illumination.
D) has become less virulent over time.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q3) Typically pathogenic Neisseria gonorrheae
A) secretes transferrin.
B) destroys IgA.
C) destroys IgM.
D) is very immunogenic.
Q4) Most strains of gonococcus do not survive long outside the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Nervous System Infections
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Q1) The principal mode of transmission of rabies is through A) blood.
B) fomites.
C) saliva.
D) pus.
Q2) The poliomyelitis virus appears to selectively destroy A) sensory nerve cells.
B) mixed nerve cells.
C) autonomic nerve cells.
D) motor nerve cells.
Q3) The leading cause of bacterial meningitis in adults is A) Escherichia coli.
B) Haemophilus influenzae.
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D) Neisseria meningitidis.
Q4) The incubation period of leprosy is A) 1 week.
B) 3 weeks.
C) 3 months.
D) 3 or more years.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Blood and Lymphatic Infections
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Q1) Both Francisella tularensis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are able to survive phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The common name for tularemia is
A) Bang's disease.
B) rabbit fever.
C) Hansen's disease.
D) Chagas' disease.
Q3) In which of the following diseases does the spleen enlarge?
A) infectious mononucleosis
B) malaria
C) leishmaniasis
D) brucellosis
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Yops proteins, produced by Yersinia pestis,
A) interfere with phagocytosis
B) activates plasminogen activator.
C) destroys C3b and C5a.
D) promotes apoptosis.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Hiv Disease and Complications of Immunodeficiency
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Q1) Which scientists were involved in a bitter legal battle over who had contributed what and when to the work on HIV?
A) Dulbecco, Temin, and Baltimore
B) Gallo and Montagnier
C) Kenmore and Temin
D) Gallo and Baltimore
Q2) Human T Lymphotrophic Virus-III (HTLV-III), upon genetic analysis, actually turned out to be the same as
A) Lymphadenopathy virus (LAV).
B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
C) Herpes virus (HV).
D) lentivirus (LV).
Q3) The prime target(s) of the HIV virus is/are
A) red blood cells.
B) liver cells.
C) T<sub>H</sub> cells.
D) macrophages.
E) T<sub>H</sub> cells AND macrophages.
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Chapter 29: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) A mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association between roots and fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The carbon cycle revolves around A) nitrogen.
B) water.
C) phosphorus.
D) carbon dioxide.
Q3) The organisms isolated from hydrothermal vents are typically
A) phototrophs.
B) chemolithoautotrophs.
C) rhizobia.
D) bacteroid.
E) phototrophs, rhizobia AND bacteroid.
Q4) During aerobic decomposition of organic matter the primary gas produced is A) oxygen.
B) hydrogen sulfide.
C) nitrogen.
D) carbon dioxide.
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Chapter 30: Environmental Microbiology: Treatment of
Water, Wastes, and Polluted Habitats
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following play some role in sewage treatment?
A) activated sludge
B) trickling filter
C) septic tank
D) lagooning
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in 6 weeks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term "potable water" refers to water that is not necessarily pure, but is safe to drink.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following cannot be used in composting?
A) grass clippings
B) nutrient-poor potting soil
C) meats and fats
D) vegetable peelings
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Chapter 31: Food Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/59594
Sample Questions
Q1) Yeast cannot convert grain to alcohol.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Foodborne intoxication requires the ingestion of living organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Foods that have been unacceptably altered due to uncontrolled bacterial growth are called
A) refrigerated.
B) spoiled.
C) preserved.
D) fermented.
Q4) Egg white is rich in the antimicrobial A) lysosome.
B) RNAse.
C) penicillin.
D) lysozyme.
Q5) Egg white is rich in the antimicrobial lysosome. A)True
B)False
Page 33
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