Microbial Pathogenesis Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Microbial Pathogenesis explores the molecular and cellular mechanisms by which bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites cause disease in humans. The course examines pathogen strategies for colonization, immune evasion, toxin production, and manipulation of host cell processes, alongside the hosts defense responses. Emphasis is placed on the genetics and physiology of microbes, the interplay between host and pathogen, and the translation of basic research into clinical approaches for diagnosis, treatment, and prevention. Case studies of major human pathogens and emerging infectious diseases illustrate fundamental concepts and current challenges in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 14th Edition by Patricia Tille
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) Taxonomy can be described as a system that:
A)classifies,names,and identifies microorganisms in a consistent manner.
B)classifies microorganisms,based on their genetic makeup.
C)classifies microorganisms,based on their phenotypic makeup.
D)classifies microorganisms,based on their cellular and colonial traits.
Answer: A
Q2) Species identification is based on all of the following except:
A)DNA-DNA Hybridization.
B)16sRNA sequencing.
C)Cell wall composition.
D)Colonial pigmentation.
Answer: D
Q3) An organism is serologically identified in the clinical laboratory.This is an example of which phenotypic property?
A)Subcellular properties
B)Antigenic properties
C)Resistant profiles
D)Nucleic acid sequence analysis
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure
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Q1) Pieces of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)that move from one genetic element to another and contain genes for movement and genes for other features are called: A)transposons.
B)insertion sequences.
C)plasmids.
D)chromatoids.
Answer: A
Q2) A pathway that generates ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation that does not require oxygen and produces various end products,including alcohols,acids,carbon dioxide,and hydrogen,is:
A)substrate-level phosphorylation.
B)fermentative metabolism.
C)oxidative phosphorylation.
D)aerobic respiration.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) An example of antibody-mediated immunity is:
A)phagocytosis.
B)macrophage release.
C)T-cell activation.
D)B-cell activation.
Answer: D
Q2) Infectious processes that quickly develop are referred to as _________ infections.
A)chronic
B)latent
C)acute
D)nosocomial
Answer: C
Q3) The antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes is:
A)immunoglobulin (Ig)G.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) Air flow in a microbiology laboratory should be:
A)from lower to higher risk areas.
B)minimized as much as possible.
C)optimized to prevent the settling of dangerous aerosols.
D)well-filtered by recirculating it through numerous filters before recycling.
Q2) The autoclave sterilizes material by:
A)applying dry heat at high temperatures and pressure.
B)infusing gaseous chemicals that kill organisms.
C)applying moist heat at high temperatures and increased pressure.
D)cleaving protein bonds found in most biological agent cell walls.
Q3) A cleaning solution used on the laboratory bench top to kill bacteria that are potentially harmful to humans would be called a(n):
A)surfactant.
B)disinfectant.
C)biocide.
D)antiseptic.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Which specimen culture,if positive,should be immediately reported to the clinician?
A)Urine
B)Blood
C)Throat
D)Stool
Q2) An example of a -hemolytic gram-positive organism is:
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)Escherichia coli.
D)Enterococcus.
Q3) The macroscopic examination for receipt and review of specimens should include all of the following:
A)type of container,leakage,blood or mucus present.
B)type of container,blood or mucus present,consistency and color.
C)leakage,blood or mucus present,viscosity for fluids,color and consistency.
D)type of container,blood or mucus present,viscosity for fluids,and color.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) After which step in the Gram-stain procedure are gram-positive bacteria first distinguished from gram-negative bacteria?
A)Crystal violet
B)Iodine mordant
C)Gram's decolorizer
D)Safranin
Q2) Contrast in microscopy is most commonly achieved by:
A)changing objectives for various specimens.
B)increasing the resolution or resolving power.
C)staining techniques.
D)adding a blue filter to the light path.
Q3) The limitation associated with utilizing the Gram stain procedure includes all of the following except:
A)over decolorizing resulting in all organisms appearing gram negative.
B)formation of crystals in the stain appearing as gram-positive rods.
C)providing potential life-saving preliminary organism characteristics.
D)variable Gram staining characteristics based on organism viability in preparation.
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8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) A bacterial colony can be described as:
A)sufficiently large numbers of a bacterium that can be observable with the unaided eye.
B)derived from many different types of bacterial cells.
C)belonging to different genera and species.
D)having different genetic and phenotypic characteristics.
Q2) Increased concentrations of carbon dioxide (CO )(5% to 10%)and approximately 15% oxygen (O )produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q3) Reduced O (5% to 10%)and increased CO (8% to 10%)produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) What differentiates diagnostic techniques that employ phenotypic (culture-based)methods from those that employ molecular methods?
A)Phenotypic methods are highly sensitive and specific,while molecular methods are not.
B)Phenotypic methods examine the growth behavior of a microorganism and the proteins,enzymes,or toxins produced,while molecular methods examine the genetic makeup.
C)Phenotypic methods are quantitative while molecular methods are not.
D)Phenotypic methods are not limited to detection of live organisms as are molecular methods.
Q2) Which type of hybridization method would be the optimal choice to use to detect a lesion infected with a particular virus?
A)Southern
B)In situ
C)Peptide nucleic acid
D)Sandwich
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10
Chapter 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection
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Q1) A sample suspected of containing Legionella pneumophila is treated with the dye fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC);however,the sample fluoresced a bright apple-green colony after it was processed.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)A technical error may have occurred.
B)The fluorescent bulb may have malfunctioned.
C)The results are accurate;no discrepancy is found.
D)A postanalytical error is to blame.
Q2) The presence of which of the following antibodies usually indicates a recent or an active infection?
A)Immunoglobulin (Ig)G
B)IgA
C)IgM
D)IgE
Q3) Polyclonal antibodies are those that:
A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C)react with many different antigens of one specific organism.
D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Q1) Rifampin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q2) Antimicrobial agents that usually kill target organisms are said to be:
A)bactericidal.
B)antibiotic.
C)bacteriostatic.
D)antagonistic.
Q3) Penicillin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q4) Tetracycline
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) AST was performed using Mueller-Hinton agar with 5% sheep blood,35°C in 5% CO from 24 hours according to standard protocols,what is the most likely identity of the organism being tested?
A)S.aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D)Moraxella catarrhalis
Q2) A D-test is set up on a S.aureus isolate.There was no zone around the Erythromycin disk and the zone of inhibition around the clindamycin disk adjacent to the erythromycin disk was interpreted as susceptible.Thus,the resistance mechanism for the erythromycin is due to:
A)altered target.
B)increased efflux.
C)decreased porin channels.
D)degradative enzymes.
Q3) Chromogenic cephalosporins are used to test for:
A)degradative/hydrolytic action of -lactamase inhibitors.
B)intrinsic resistance to -lactam drugs by increased efflux of the drug.
C)production of -lactamase by the infecting organism.
Page 13
D)intrinsic resistance to -lactam drugs by altered antibiotic targets.
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Chapter 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The resident human microbiota,staphylococcus,which is more likely to cause infections in compromised hosts such as patients with cancer,is:
A)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
B)S.aureus.
C)S.epidermidis.
D)S.intermedius.
Q2) The Staphylococcaceae staphylococcus that is more likely to cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections in nonhospitalized hosts,especially sexually active young women,is:
A)S.saprophyticus.
B)S.aureus.
C)S.epidermidis.
D)S.intermedius.
Q3) The most frequent agent of nosocomial bacteremia is:
A)catalase-negative micrococci.
B)coagulase-positive staphylococci.
C)catalase-negative stomatococci.
D)coagulase-negative staphylococci.
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Chapter 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The colonial morphologic features of this organism resemble a donut as it ages,and it has a polysaccharide capsule that is responsible for its virulence.What two characteristics describe this organism?
A) -hemolytic and susceptible to optochin
B) -hemolytic and bile solubility-negative
C) -hemolytic and resistant to optochin
D) -hemolytic and bile solubility-positive
Q2) What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces incomplete hemolysis and a greening discoloration of the medium?
A) hemolysis
B) hemolysis
C) hemolysis
D)k hemolysis
Q3) The development of glomerulonephritis is a problem that may be encountered by patients infected with:
A)E.faecalis.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.pyogenes.
D)S.agalactiae.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with _____ agar.
A)5% sheep blood
B)PLET acetate
C)bicarbonate
D)urea
Q2) Which of the following types of anthrax occurs after ingesting the spores and affects the abdominal or oropharyngeal area? (Patients usually die from toxemia and overwhelming sepsis. )
A)Cutaneous
B)Inhalation
C)Gastrointestinal
D)Bubonic
Q3) Induction of sporulation by Bacillus species can be accomplished with _____ agar.
A)5% sheep blood
B)PLET acetate
C)bicarbonate
D)urea
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Chapter 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-positive,gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast,does not branch,and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Mycobacterium
Q2) The isolation of a small gram-positive,catalase-positive rod with a narrow zone of hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence for:
A)listeriosis.
B)diphtheria.
C)pertussis.
D)tetanus.
Q3) Quality control is set up on urea media.Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the media?
A)C.ulcerans and C.diphtheria
B)C.diphtheria and Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)C.ulcerans and Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
D)C.glucuronolyticum and C.ulcerans
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) To test the validity of TSI media,quality control should be performed using which two organisms?
A)Gardnerella and Lactobacillus
B)Erysipelothrix and Gardnerella
C)Propionibacterium and Lactobacillus
D)Actinomyces and Arcanobacterium
Q2) The reverse Christie,Atkins,Munch-Petersen (CAMP)test is positive for these curved gram-positive bacilli.Which -hemolytic organism is used in conjunction with this organism in the reverse CAMP test?
A)Streptococcus pyogenes
B)S.agalactiae
C)S.saprophyticus
D)S.aureus
Q3) A catalase-negative,non-spore forming,and gram-positive rod that is not acid-fast could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The organism that has been most commonly associated with human disease,particularly in patients who are immunocompromised,such as those infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV),is:
A)Rhodococcus.
B)Gordonia.
C)Tsukamurella.
D)Streptomyces.
Q2) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend into the air that are called _____ hyphae.
A)surface
B)substrate
C)aerial
D)topical
Q3) Which organisms should be used to run quality control for acid-fast stains?
A)Nocardia and Rhodococcus
B)Streptomyces and Actinomadura
C)Dermatophilus and Nocardiopsis
D)Nocardia and Streptomyces
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Chapter 18: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) Which of correct for the description "acid slant,acid butt,no H S"?
A)Salmonella spp.
B)E.coli
C)Proteus spp.
D)Pseudomonas spp.
Q2) Most strains of Escherichia coli can be presumptively identified on the basis of which characteristic?
A)Spot indole-positive
B)Citrate-positive
C)Methyl red-negative
D)Urease-positive
Q3) Of the following bacterial species,which is associated with a serious diarrheal illness with high mortality rates among some populations?
A)E.coli
B)Shigella spp.
C)Salmonella spp.
D)Vibrio spp.
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Chapter 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) The primary drug of choice for infections caused by S.maltophilia is:
A)a -lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
B)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
C)ticarcillin and clavulanic acid.
D)chloramphenicol.
Q2) Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A)Acinetobacter spp.
B)B.trematum
C)Burkholderia gladioli
D)S.maltophilia
Q3) Which organism is oxidase-negative,oxidizes glucose,and is a nonlactose fermenter?
A)Escherichia
B)Pseudomonas
C)Acinetobacter
D)Moraxella
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Chapter 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which best describes the source of B.cepacia infections?
A)Rice paddies
B)Medical devices
C)Oropharynx of animals
D)Rodents
Q2) A convenient and reliable identification scheme for P.aeruginosa involves which of the following conventional tests?
A)Oxidase,triple sugar iron (TSI)slant,growth at 42°C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar
B)Catalase,lysine iron agar (LIA)slant,growth at 42°C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar
C)Oxidase,TSI slant,growth at 24°C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar
D)Catalase,TSI slant,growth at 42°C on sheep blood agar or blood trypticase soy agar
Q3) The disease referred to as melioidosis is caused by which one of the following?
A)P.aeruginosa
B)R.pickettii
C)B.mallei
D)Burkholderia pseudomallei
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Chapter 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)Ochrobactrum and Alcaligenes
B)Psychrobacter and Rhizobium
C)CDC group Ic and CDC group O-3
D)CDC group OFBA-1c and Shewanella
Q2) A patient with an indwelling catheter tip began spiking a fever of 39°C.The site of the catheter was inflamed and red.The catheter tip was cultured,and the following organism was isolated: a nonlactose-fermenter on MacConkey agar;a glucose,xylose,and mannitol oxidizer with the ability to hydrolyze esculin.This organism is most likely which one of the following?
A)CDC group EF-4b
B)S.putrefaciens
C)R.radiobacter
D)P.yeei
Q3) The natural habitat of Ochrobactrum spp.can best be described as the:
A)mucous membranes of animals.
B)gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)natural environment.
D)genitourinary tract of animals.
Page 23
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Q1) A patient with a bacteremia identified as E.meningoseptica infection was placed on intravenous penicillin;however,the patient did not improve after 5 days.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?
A)The dose was abbreviated and therefore did not have time to work.
B)The patient is most likely allergic to penicillin and is not responding.
C)Penicillin is ineffective against this organism.
D)An aminoglycoside should be given along with the penicillin to increase its effects.
Q2) Quality control was performed to determine the validity of urea agar.S.multivorum and E.meningoseptica were used,which yielded positive for S.multivorum and negative for E.meningoseptica.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The urea agar is most likely expired.
B)The pH is off on the urea agar.
C)These two organisms are poor choices for quality control because they are both urea positive.
D)No discrepancy is present;the results are valid.
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24
Chapter 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The mode of transmission of A.denitrificans can best be described as:
A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)contaminated fluids or medical solutions.
D)close contact with animals.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Achromobacter,Alcaligenes,and Bordetella?
A)The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)The habitats vary from the soil and water environment to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)The habitats are limited to the mucous membranes of humans and animals.
Q3) Achromobacter,Alcaligenes,and Bordetella are all:
A)urea positive.
B)oxidase negative.
C)nonglucose utilizers.
D)lactose fermenters.
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Chapter 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) To determine the validity of 0% sodium chloride (NaCl)broth,which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes?
A)V.alginolyticus and Vibrio cincinnatiensis
B)P.damsela and Vibrio harveyi
C)Vibrio parahaemolyticus and V.cholerae
D)Vibrio vulnificus and P.damsela
Q2) The reagent used in the "string test" is:
A)bile solubility.
B)sodium deoxycholate.
C)bile esculin.
D)0/129 (2,4-diamino-6,7-diisopropylpteridine).
Q3) Colonies growing on modified cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)agar appear to be either Aeromonas spp.or Yersinia enterocolitica.Which test should be performed to differentiate between these two organisms?
A)String test
B)Sucrose fermentation
C)Glucose fermentation
D)Oxidase
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Chapter 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A yellow-pigmented,gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive,motile by wet mount,and has the ability to oxidize glucose,xylose,and sucrose is most likely which of the following?
A)Treponema
B)Leptospira
C)Borrelia
D)Sphingomonas
Q2) This bacterium is unique in that it does not possess a flagellum but is motile by gliding motility.
A)Acidovorax spp.
B)Sphingobacterium spp.
C)Spingomonas spp.
D)Pseudomonas spp.
Q3) Although no definitive guidelines are available for the treatment of Sphingomonas paucimobilis infections,which antibiotic appears to have potential activity against this organism?
A)Penicillin
B)Ttrimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C)Amoxicillin and Flagyl
D)Isoniazid and Imipenem
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Moraxella
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Q1) Testing for differentiation of M.lacunata from other Moraxella species can best be performed by:
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
Q2) In Gram-stained preparations,M.atlantae will appear as:
A)either gram-negative coccobacilli or short,broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B)gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C)coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D)coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
Q3) True cocci,such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella catarrhalis,can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by:
A)comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B)subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C)identifying the resistance of Moraxella to many -lactam antimicrobial agents.
D)performing the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)test.
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Chapter 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) E.corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:
A)pink pigmentation.
B)grapelike odor.
C)large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.
D)bleachlike odor.
Q2) Of the asaccharolytic,oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar,which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
Q3) The organism that is found in vegetation and occasionally in the hospital environment grows best at which temperature?
A)4°C
B)25°C
C)35°C
D)56°C
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Chapter 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B)M.haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C)P.multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D)Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
Q2) Which test is used to differentiate P.multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A)Indole
B)Catalase
C)Nitrate
D)Sucrose
Q3) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin,it is the drug of choice for infections involving:
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
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Chapter 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following biochemical reactions identifies an organism associated with blood,bone,and joint infections in young children?
A)Positive catalase,positive nitrate reduction,and positive indole
B)Negative catalase,positive nitrate reduction,and positive indole
C)Negative catalase,negative nitrate reduction,and positive indole
D)Negative catalase,negative nitrate reduction,and negative indole
Q2) A.actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from A.aphrophilus by its:
A)negative test for catalase.
B)positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)positive test for catalase.
D)negative test for oxidase.
Q3) Which organism can cause granulomatous disease in animals and has been associated with soft-tissue infection in humans after animal bites?
A)S.paucimobilis
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Actinobacillus spp.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Haemophilus
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Q1) To increase the sensitivity of direct Gram-stain examination of body fluid specimens,the specimens are usually:
A)incubated for 18 to 24 hours before staining.
B)centrifuged before staining.
C)examined for at least 1 hour.
D)stained for an additional 5 minutes.
Q2) Performance of the "factor requirement test" for Haemophilus involves the:
A)inoculation of unsupplemented media with a light suspension of the organism and placement of X and V factor disks on the agar surface.
B)inoculation of liquid media,unsupplemented and supplemented with X and V factors.
C)detection of the presence of enzymes that convert d-aminolevulinic acid (ALA)into porphyrins.
D)growth of the organism in the presence of bacterial species that produce X and V factors as metabolic byproducts.
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Chapter 31: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Although molecular methods are available,such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species,limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of: A)probes.
B)polymerases.
C)primers.
D)restriction enzymes.
Q2) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species,which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?
A)B.bacilliformis
B)B.henselae
C)B.elizabethae
D)B.clarridgeiae
Q3) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?
A)Gram stain
B)Wright's stain
C)Trichrome stain
D)Warthin-Starry silver stain
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33
Chapter 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Campylobacter jejuni subsp.jejuni grows best at what conditions?
A)37°C under microaerobic conditions
B)37°C under anaerobic conditions
C)42°C under microaerobic conditions
D)42°C under anaerobic conditions
Q2) A gram-negative,spiral-shaped organism is isolated from a stool sample that was hippurate-positive,catalase-positive,susceptible to nalidixic acid,and resistant to cephalothin.The organism can be identified as:
A)Campylobacter coli.
B)C.jejuni subsp.doylei.
C)C.jejuni subsp.jejuni.
D)C.fetus subsp.fetus.
Q3) Ensuring that all foods derived from animal sources are thoroughly cooked,all milk is pasteurized,and all drinking water is chlorinated are ways to avoid becoming infected with:
A)Helicobacter.
B)Arcobacter.
C)Enterobacter.
D)Campylobacter.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Legionella
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Q1) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory,a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?
A)L-cysteine and iron
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
Q2) A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as:
A)Philadelphia pneumonia.
B)legionnaires' disease.
C)tuberculosis.
D)rheumatic fever.
Q3) The medium or media of choice used to recover Legionella is:
A)buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).
B)Regan-Lowe agar.
C)Löwenstein-Jensen medium.
D)blood and chocolate agars.
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Chapter 34: Brucella
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Q1) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable,which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A)Penicillin and azithromycin
B)Ampicillin and gentamycin
C)Doxycycline and rifampin
D)Gentamycin and vancomycin
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A)dairy farmers.
B)fishermen.
C)prison guards.
D)those working with exotic birds.
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Chapter 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) Because of its longer shelf life,the medium of choice to cultivate Bordetella spp.is:
A)buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).
B)thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS)agar.
C)Bordet-Gengou agar.
D)Regan-Lowe agar.
Q2) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis,symptoms are:
A)runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
Q3) Pertussis (whooping cough)is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious,acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the:
A)Brucella spp.
B)Bordetella spp.
C)Pasteurella spp.
D)Francisella spp.
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Chapter 36: Francisella
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Q1) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory,a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A)Cysteine and cystine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
Q2) Tularemia,characterized by glandular,ulceroglandular,oculoglandular,oropharyngeal,systemic,and pneumonic presentations,is caused by which of the following species?
A)Brucella
B)Bordetella
C)Pasteurella
D)Francisella
Q3) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:
A)is oxidase-negative.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D)does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
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Chapter 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) A laboratory assistant that works with mice recently noticed that their lymph nodes were swollen and that they had a lesion on their hand that was not there a few weeks ago.The lymph node tissue is sent to the laboratory for culture.The laboratory technologist noticed on the stained sample that there was an organism present that resembled a spiral,gram negative with flagella.The cultures grew no organisms.What is the most likely cause for the discrepancy?
A)The laboratory technologist misidentified the stain artifact as an organism.
B)The laboratory technologist did not culture the sample to media.
C)The organism is not able to grow on media and requires another method for identification.
D)The organism was not allowed to incubate long enough.
Q2) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever,or Haverhill fever,which is characterized by acute onset of chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and severe joint pains,as well as a rash on the palms,soles of the feet,and other extremities?
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis
B)Brucella abortus
C)Bordetella spp.
D)Pasteurella spp.
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Chapter 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) An endocervical swab was collected from a 26-year-old woman with a purulent discharge.The Gram stain revealed the following:
·Many white blood cells (WBCs)
·Moderate gram-negative diplococci
·Moderate gram-negative coccobacilli
·Few yeast
Based on these findings,what would be the next course of action?
A)Report the isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Work up the yeast.
C)Report the Gram stain,and follow up with culture.
D)Request a new specimen;this one is contaminated.
Q2) The JEMBEC transport system for Neisseria spp.provides an atmosphere with increased _________ to keep the organism viable during transport.
A)hydrogen (H )
B)carbon dioxide (CO )
C)nitrogen (N )
D)nitrate (NO )
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Chapter 39: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Feces in a sterile specimen cup is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q2) Urine via percutaneous aspiration is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q3) Tissue biopsy taken from a puncture wound is:
A)Is acceptable,however an aspirate would not contain contaminating flora
B)Is acceptable,and is the optimal specimen for anaerobic culture
C)Is unacceptable,due to the high level of potential contaminating flora
D)Is unacceptable,because the sample is not considered anaerobic
Q4) Thioglycollate broth
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective;supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q5) Urine via catheter is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
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Chapter 40: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-positive bacillus that is a very large fusiform bacillus with one pointed end and one blunt end is:
A)Eubacterium.
B)Veillonella.
C)Leptotrichia.
D)Propionibacterium.
Q2) Pigmented Prevotella
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q3) A diabetic patient has developed gas gangrene of the right foot.The most likely anaerobe causing this infection is:
A)Clostridium tetani.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Clostridium botulinum.
D)Clostridium difficile.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Mycobacteria
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Q1) Slow-growing NTM whose colonies are pigmented when grown in the dark or the light are referred to as:
A)scotochromogens.
B)photochromogens.
C)nonphotochromogens.
D)chromogenicums.
Q2) Acid-fast smears should be examined carefully by scanning at least ________ oil immersion fields.
A)100
B)200
C)300
D)400
Q3) On Gram stain,mycobacteria appear as:
A)slender,well-stained gram-positive bacilli.
B)poorly stained,beaded,gram-positive bacilli.
C)gram-variable to gram-positive bacilli.
D)partially invisible gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligates intracellular parasitism is:
A)Rickettsia.
B)Bartonella.
C)Calymmatobacterium.
D)Coxiella.
Q2) Of the following organisms,which can be described as a fastidious obligate intracellular parasite that multiplies by binary fission in the cytoplasm of host cells and infects humans as accidental hosts in most cases?
A)Rickettsia
B)Chlamydia
C)Calymmatobacterium
D)Coxiella
Q3) Binary fission within vacuoles divides which of the following forms of Chlamydia?
A)RB
B)EB
C)Replicate body
D)Initial body
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Chapter 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Which group of drugs is effective against M.pneumoniae infections?
A) -Lactams
B)Sulfonamides
C)Cephalosporins
D)Fluoroquinolones
Q2) Caution should be taken when culturing blood in suspected cases of Mycoplasma infections since the organism is inhibited by which anticoagulant commonly found in commercial blood culture media?
A)Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
B)Sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)
C)Heparin
D)Sodium citrate
Q3) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Rickettsia
D)Coxiella
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Chapter 44: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Gel immunoassay
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q2) Systemic symptoms,such as fever,weight loss,malaise,and a loss of appetite,along with a widespread rash,can be observed in patients suffering from _________ syphilis.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)latent
Q3) Long,slender,helically curved,gram-negative bacilli with tight coils are identified as belonging to which species?
A)Treponema
B)Leptospira
C)Borrelia
D)Coxiella
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Chapter 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology
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Q1) The eggs of which of the following intestinal parasites are not commonly found in feces and must be detected by other diagnostic techniques?
A)Giardia lamblia
B)Cryptosporidium parvum
C)Clonorchis sinensis
D)Enterobius vermicularis
Q2) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Paragonimus infection is:
A)sputum.
B)blood.
C)urine.
D)stool.
Q3) The permanent stained smear protocol of the O&P examination:
A)requires freshly passed,unpreserved stool.
B)is designed to allow the detection of protozoan cysts,coccidian oocysts,microsporidial spores,and helminth eggs and larvae.
C)is microscopically examined at low,high dry,and oil immersion magnifications.
D)is designed to facilitate the identification of intestinal protozoa.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) Asexual amplification,called merogony,is associated with the life cycle of which organism?
A)Cyclospora
B)Cryptosporidium
C)Toxoplasma
D)Sarcocystis
Q2) E.coli,a protozoan that ranges from 15 to 25 µm in diameter,can contain up to eight nuclei in mature cysts.How would the karyosome expect to appear on a stained slide?
A)Small,usually compact
B)Large,usually compact
C)Small,irregularly shaped
D)Large,not compact
Q3) The organism Sarcocystis has an obligatory two-host life cycle-an intermediate host and definitive host.The sporocysts found in a stool specimen,which measure 9 to 16 µm,are broadly oval with slightly ___________ ends.
A)blunt
B)tapered
C)rounded
D)flattened
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) Delicate ring forms and crescent-shaped gametocytes are the only forms normally observed in the peripheral blood of which Plasmodium spp.?
A)P.vivax
B)P.malariae
C)P.falciparum
D)P.ovale
Q2) In cases of malaria,the primary exoerythrocytic cycle occurs in the: A)blood. B)lung.
C)liver.
D)lymph nodes.
Q3) P.ovale
A)Normal shape and size
B)Normal shape;size may be normal or slightly smaller
C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal;oval to normal
D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval
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Chapter 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites
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Q1) Tissues suspected of containing Acanthamoeba cysts can be observed using various stains.A cyst that stains black has most likely been stained with the __________ stain.
A)methenamine silver
B)periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
C)Giemsa
D)Wright's
Q2) The troph of the motile T.vaginalis organism measures 7 to 23 mm long and 5 to 15 mm wide.The recommended treatment of choice for this urogenital infection is:
A)tetracycline.
B)metronidazole.
C)penicillin.
D)ketoconazole.
Q3) Laboratory diagnosis of T.gondii is confirmed by:
A)Giemsa stain.
B)tissue culture.
C)serologic testing.
D)Western blot.
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Chapter 49: Intestinal Nematodes
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Q1) The larvae of the worm S.stercoralis are the most common found in human stool specimens.Depending on the fecal transit time through the intestine and the patient's condition,both rhabditiform and rare filariform may be present.The treatment of choice for uncomplicated infections is:
A)metronidazole.
B)ivermectin.
C)pyrantel pamoate.
D)combination antihelminthic and board-spectrum antibiotics.
Q2) A 36-year-old man entered the emergency department with bleeding and weight loss several weeks after returning from a trip to South America.A stool sample was taken and microscopically examined.Barrel-shaped eggs with bipolar plugs were observed.The organism can be identified as:
A)T.trichiura.
B)A.duodenale.
C)N.americanus.
D)S.stercoralis.
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Chapter 50: Tissue Nematodes
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Q1) Humans acquire infection with Trichinella tissue nematode by ingesting undercooked meat that contains the infective encysted larvae.In which tissue do these larvae encyst?
A)Brain
B)Meninges
C)Myocardium
D)Striated muscle
Q2) Snails
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q3) A definitive diagnosis can be made in a Trichinella infection on the basis of which of the following findings?
A)Presence of adult worms in the feces
B)Identification of encysted larvae through muscle biopsy
C)Presence of cutaneous larvae migrans in the skin
D)Identification of unembryonated eggs in the feces
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Chapter 51: Blood Nematodes
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Q1) Mansonella spp.
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q2) A Giemsa stain is performed on an eye exudate on a patient with calabar swelling,eosinophilia,and a recent travel history to Africa.L.loa is suspected;however,the sheath in the adult worm recovered does not stain.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The worm recovered is not L.loa.
B)The specimen should have been stained with trichrome stain.
C)The Giemsa stain is most likely expired.
D)No discrepancy is present.The sheath does not stain with Giemsa stain.
Q3) O.volvulus
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
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Chapter 52: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) A stool specimen is examined,and the following characteristics are observed:
·15 to 18 lateral branches on each side
·Scolex with four suckers
·No hooklets
The intermediate hosts of this tapeworm are:
A)cattle.
B)humans.
C)cats. D)swine.
Q2) The T.solium organism,which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long,contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is: A)dogs. B)cats. C)pigs.
D)cattle.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) Fur trappers and veterinarians are at an increased risk for this infection by being exposed to infected animals.The intermediate hosts of the organism,E.multilocularis,are:
A)foxes.
B)coyotes.
C)rodents.
D)humans.
Q2) In E.granulosus infections,the hydatid cysts usually occur in which organ?
A)Stomach
B)Brain
C)Intestines
D)Liver
Q3) Epileptic seizures,headaches,and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:
A)positive direct fluorescent antibody test.
B)observance of eggs in the stool.
C)positive India ink stain.
D)identification of cysts in tissue.
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Chapter 54: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The adult form of the fluke,Fasciolopsis buski,is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is: A)snails.
B)birds.
C)rodents.
D)dogs.
Q2) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A)fish.
B)snails.
C)crabs. D)crayfish.
Q3) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces are best described as:
A)cercariae,miracidium larva,metacercariae,and redia.
B)redia,metacercariae,cercariae,and miracidium larva.
C)miracidium larva,redia,cercariae,and metacercariae.
D)metacercariae,miracidium larva,cercariae,and redia.
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Chapter 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Charcot-Leyden crystals are often observed in specimens infected with which one of the following trematodes?
A)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis)sinensis
B)Opisthorchis viverrini
C)Fasciola hepatica
D)Paragonimus westermani
Q2) The eggs of Paragonimus mexicanus measure approximately 80 µm by 40 µm,are unembryonated and operculated,and have thick shells that are brownish-yellow.An individual with this infection has most likely traveled to which endemic area?
A)Japan
B)Africa
C)New Guinea
D)South America
Q3) Which second intermediate host ingests the cercariae of Clonorchis and Opisthorchis?
A)Snail
B)Crustacean
C)Copepod
D)Freshwater fish
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) An egg of the organism of S.mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel;however,his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)Metrifonate should have been administered.
B)Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.
C)Steroids should have been initially administered.
D)A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.
Q2) The eggs of the blood fluke Schistosoma haematobium range from 110 to 170 µm long by 40 to 70 µm wide and have a sharp,pointed terminal spine.In which specimen is this organism most likely found?
A)Ascites fluid
B)Sputum
C)Bile
D)Urine
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Chapter 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) Fungal infections are generally acquired via which route?
A)Person to person
B)Nosocomial
C)Vector
D)Inhalation of spores
Q2) An example of a thermally monomorphic mold is:
A)P.marneffei.
B)S.schenckii.
C)Epidermophyton.
D)H.capsulatum.
Q3) Which stain requires the use of a fluorescent microscope?
A)Calcofluor white
B)India ink
C)Potassium hydroxide
D)Masson-Fontana
Q4) The mode of transmission for most of the dimorphic fungi is:
A)inoculation.
B)inhalation.
C)arthropod.
D)blood.
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Chapter 58:
Hyaline Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Yeastlike cells with internal cross walls
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q2) Cigar-shaped yeast cells
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q3) Which organism produces mostly shades of green or blue-green colonies? Microscopically,hyphae are hyaline and septate and produce brushlike conidiophores.
A)Paecilomyces
B)Acremonium
C)Scopulariopsis
D)Penicillium
Page 60
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Chapter 59: Dematiaceious Molds
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Q1) Feltlike,filamentous colonies produce dematiaceous hyphae and conidiophores that are cylindrical and have a tapered tip.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q2) Conidia are arranged sympodially,golden brown,multicelled,and curved with a central swollen cell.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
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Chapter 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii
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Q1) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A)Bradyzoite
B)Trophozoite
C)Sporocyte
D)Cyst
Q2) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify P.jirovecii?
A)Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
B)Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
C)Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D)Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q3) The cell membrane of P.jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______,which differentiates it from other fungi.
A)sterols;cholesterol
B)ergosterol;sterols
C)cholesterol;ergosterol
D)sitosterol;sterols
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Chapter 61: The Yeasts
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Q1) A patient with diabetes is experiencing creamy patches on his tongue and mucous membranes.Cultures are performed,and yeast is recovered.His diagnosis is most likely: A)paronychia.
B)onychomycosis.
C)candidemia. D)thrush.
Q2) "Spaghetti and meatball" morphologic appearance
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)C.albicans
C)M.furfur
D)C.neoformans
Q3) White piedra
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)C.albicans
C)M.furfur
D)C.neoformans
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63
Chapter
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Q1) Binds microtubular proteins
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q3) Is a glucan synthesis inhibitor
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
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Chapter 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)antibody
A)Adenovirus
B)HSV
C)HBV
D)Arbovirus
Q2) Blood
A)Adenovirus
B)HSV
C)HBV
D)Arbovirus
Q3) Respiratory
A)Adenovirus
B)HSV
C)HBV
D)Arbovirus
Q4) The function of the glycoprotein spike on some viruses is to:
A)allow viral entry into the host cell.
B)protect the nucleic acid.
C)prevent drying out and the destruction of the virus.
D)stabilize attachment for the lipid envelope.
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Chapter 64: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) A 45-year-old man living in the western United States begins experiencing headache,fever,and body aches,which he attributes to the flu.His symptoms,however,become worse,and he later develops kidney disease and acute respiratory failure.He is most likely infected with which virus?
A)Rabies virus
B)Adenovirus
C)Norovirus
D)Hantavirus
Q2) Macropapular rash
A)Yellow fever
B)Dengue fever
C)West Nile virus
D)Hepatitis C
Q3) Hantavirus classified in the Bunyaviridae family is transmitted via:
A)sandfly vector.
B)mosquito vector.
C)rodent excreta.
D)fecal-oral route.
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66
Chapter 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention
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Q1) Inhibits viral plaque formation.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q2) If a physician prescribes Tamiflu to a patient,the patient is most likely infected with which virus?
A)HIV
B)Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
C)Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D)Influenza
Q3) At the end of the 2008-2009 influenza season,100% of influenza A H3N2 and the novel 2009 influenza A H1N1 were resistant to:
A)adamantane.
B)oseltamivir.
C)Tamiflu.
D)Relenza.
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Chapter 66: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) Saponin,polypropylene glycol,SPS,and ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)are all components in which blood culture system?
A)BACTEC system
B)BacT/ALERT system
C)ESP system
D)Lysis centrifugation system
Q2) The most common portal of entry for bacteremia is:
A)the genitourinary tract.
B)the respiratory tract.
C)an abscess.
D)the biliary tract.
Q3) Granulicatella spp.and Abiotrophia spp.are dependent on which nutritional additive for optimal growth?
A)Vitamin K
B)Vitamin B
C)Vitamin B
D)Vitamin D
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Chapter 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Bacterial pneumonia in children is most commonly caused by:
A)M.pneumoniae.
B)Chlamydia pneumonia.
C)parainfluenza virus.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
Q2) The nasal hairs,convoluted passages,and mucous lining of the nasal turbinates:
A)nonspecifically protect the respiratory tract from infection.
B)promote colonization of normal bacterial flora.
C)can aid adherence by potentially harmful bacteria.
D)reduce colonization of normal bacterial flora.
Q3) Of the various types of specimens collected to diagnose respiratory infections,which one is acceptable for the detection of anaerobic agents?
A)Tracheostomy aspirates
B)Bronchial washings
C)Gastric aspirates
D)Transtracheal aspirates (TTA)
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Chapter 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Epiglottitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) Stomatitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
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Chapter 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) The most common source(s)of infection in the central nervous system (CNS)is(are):
A)hematogenous spread.
B)infections at other sites such as otitis media.
C)organisms gaining access because of anatomic defects in CNS structures.
D)bacteria that are able to travel along nerves leading to the brain.
Q2) An increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis)in the CSF and negative bacterial and fungal cultures is referred to as:
A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)pleocytosis.
Q3) Specialized secretory cells centrally located in the brain in the third and fourth ventricles that produce CSF are called the:
A)choroid plexus.
B)ventricles.
C)meninges.
D)pia mater.
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Page 71
Chapter 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses
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Q1) Canaliculitis
A)H.influenzae and S.pneumoniae
B)Bacteria,viruses,and occasionally lice
C)S.aureus,S.pneumoniae,and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium,including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S.aureus and S.pyogenes
Q2) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include:
A)Klebsiella pneumococci.
B)H.influenzae.
C)Streptococcus agalactiae.
D)M.catarrhalis.
Q3) The organism that can be encountered in the conjunctival sac and that exists as indigenous flora is:
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B)Bacteroides fragilis.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Moraxella lacunata.
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Page 72
Chapter 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Urethritis
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria,frequency,and urgency,but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma,calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis),and pelvis
Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeast.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)Corynebacteria.
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73
Chapter 72: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Proper design of a urogenital swab expressly intended for the collection of urethral discharge should include what feature?
A)Charcoal-treated cotton or rayon
B)Antibiotic-treated calcium alginate
C)Non flexible Shaft of wood and not flexible
D)Dacron-tipped swabs
Q2) Orchitis
A)Inflammation of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching
B)Polymicrobial type of vaginitis characterized by mild perivaginal irritation and a foul-smelling discharge
C)Infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy
D)Mild-to-severe inflammation of the testicles that is generally acquired by blood-borne dissemination of viruses such as the mumps virus
Q3) The flora of the female genital tract:
A)consists primarily of staphylococci,corynebacteria,and Neisseria.
B)consists primarily of Enterobacteriaceae,streptococci,and staphylococci.
C)consists primarily of S.agalactiae and staphylococci.
D)varies with the pH and estrogen concentration of the mucosa.
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Page 74
Chapter 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) Stool received for routine culture in most clinical laboratories in the United States should be examined for the presence of at least:
A)Campylobacter,Salmonella,and Shigella spp.
B)Salmonella and Shigella spp.
C)Campylobacter and Vibrio spp.
D)Salmonella,Shigella,and Vibrio spp.
Q3) The normal flora of the adult large bowel consists predominantly of:
A)anaerobic species.
B)Staphylococcus.
C)Enterococcus.
D)Enterobacteriaceae.
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Chapter 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections
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Q1) An abscess that begins as a red nodule in a hair follicle that ultimately becomes painful and full of pus is a:
A)folliculitis.
B)furuncle.
C)carbuncle.
D)erythrasma.
Q2) Meleney ulcer
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups,often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication,particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
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Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) Which fungal condition is most often detected in the bone marrow?
A)Brucellosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Leishmaniasis
Q2) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is:
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
Q3) Any tissues received in the clinical microbiology laboratory should be minced and homogenized in a biosafety cabinet.If lung tissue is sent and processed,then which organism should be examined using direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)testing?
A)Listeria
B)Legionella
C)Leishmania
D)Leptospira
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Chapter 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Challenging the wasted steps and eliminating all of the waste
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q2) Protocol for testing susceptibility test systems include testing _____ consecutive days.
A)daily for 7
B)bi-weekly for 30
C)every other day for 14
D)with use for 20
Q3) Occurring continuously through the remaining value-added steps
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
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78
Chapter 77: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing unique biologic or biochemical characteristics of the organism of interest is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriophage typing.
Q2) A phenotypic technique that examines an organism's susceptibility to bacterial peptides (proteins)is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
Q3) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens,such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest,is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriophage typing.
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Page 79
Chapter 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A)biosecurity.
B)bio crime.
C)microterrorism.
D)cactiterrorism.
Q2) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:
A)horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.
C)microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.
D)living beings to wage war in peacetime.
Q3) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network,confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A)Clinical
B)Sentinel
C)Reference
D)National
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