Microbial Genetics
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Microbial Genetics explores the fundamental mechanisms by which genetic information is transmitted, expressed, and altered in microorganisms such as bacteria, archaea, and viruses. This course examines the structure and function of microbial genomes, gene regulation, mutation, horizontal gene transfer (conjugation, transformation, and transduction), and the molecular tools used in genetic analysis and manipulation. Students will gain an understanding of genetic variation, adaptation, and the role of microbial genetics in biotechnology, medicine, and environmental science, providing a foundation for advances in microbiology and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Brock Biology of Microorganisms 14th Edition by Michael T. Madigan
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Chapter 1: Microorganisms and Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deduce why viruses are excluded from the ribosomal RNA-based tree of life.
A)Some viruses contain multiple strands of RNA.
B)Their genetic elements cannot be sequenced.
C)They can infect other organisms,which complicates the genetic comparisons.
D)They lack ribosomal RNA.
Answer: D
Q2) The largest mass of living material on Earth comes from A)microorganisms.
B)plants.
C)animals.
D)plants and animals together.
Answer: A
Q3) Microbial control in wastewaters would most logically be a part of A)microbial genetics.
B)aquatic microbiology.
C)medical microbiology.
D)bacterial energetics.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Microbial Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are studying swimming motility in a pathogenic bacillus.You create mutations in random genes and then test which mutations effect swimming motility by looking at the mutant cells under the microscope.One of the mutant bacteria can not swim anymore,but still rotates around in a one spot when you watch them.Using electron microscopy you discover that some parts of the flagella are still present in the cell wall,but no long flagella are visible.Which gene do you think is mutated (i.e.,missing)and which motility-related parts are still present in this mutant?
Answer: The flagellar apparatus is put together in a particular order first the MS ring,anchoring proteins,and the hook extend off of the cytoplasmic membrane.Flagellin proteins then pass through the narrow filament channel and cap proteins finally are put onto the end when roughly 20,000 flagellin have been assembled.Flagellar growth thus occurs after the assembly of the basal body,rings,and hook.The basal body provides the rotation and uses the proton motive force to rotate the basal body.From the information given above,one can infer that the basal body and hook can still rotate,but the flagellin proteins are missing or defective so that no long flagella can form.This would explain why the cells might still rotate in place,but not be able to move forward rapidly.
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Chapter 3: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which two metabolic processes are MOST dissimilar?
A)citric acid cycle and glycolysis
B)glycolysis and gluconeogenesis
C)proton motive force and substrate-level phosphorylation
D)pentose phosphate pathway and glycolysis
Answer: B
Q2) The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose fermented is A)1)
B)2)
C)4)
D)8)
Answer: B
Q3) The terminating step of moving electrons onto oxygen releases additional ATP during aerobic metabolism not made during anaerobic growth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) rRNA has an enzymatic role in all stages of protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A triplet of bases on an mRNA molecule is known as a(n) A)amino acid.
B)anticodon.
C)codon.
D)ribosome-binding sequence.
Q3) Transposable elements are
A)segments of DNA that move from one site to another.
B)transcribed genes.
C)segments of RNA that are involved in transposing DNA into proteins.
D)proteins that aid in the secretion of enzymes out of the cell.
Q4) Explain the difference between transcription and translation and how the processes differ in bacteria and eukaryotes.
Q5) The two strands of the DNA double helix are held together by A)5' to 3' attraction.
B)hydrogen bonds between nucleotide bases. C)codons.
D)peptide bonds between nucleotide bases.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Control
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Q1) In fast-growing Escherichia coli cells,multiple replication forks of genomic DNA allows binary fission to occur before the genome has been fully duplicated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A microbe growing in a refrigerator is likely
A)psychrophilic.
B)mesophilic.
C)psychrotolerant or psychrophilic.
D)hyperthermophilic.
Q3) One reason food is refrigerated to control microbial growth is because irreversible cell damage is more likely to occur at low rather than high temperatures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A non-aerated or shaken liquid growth medium inoculated with a bacterium is one of the best ways to culture an obligate anaerobe.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain why a hyperthermophile is unlikely to be a human pathogen.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNA-Seq analysis is a method aimed at defining a(n) A)metabolome.
B)transcriptome.
C)interactome.
D)metagenome.
Q2) Explain why organisms undergoing rapid evolutionary change often contain relatively large numbers of mobile DNA elements,whereas once organisms settle into a stable evolutionary niche,most of these mobile elements are lost.
Q3) In addition to chromosomes,some mitochondria also contain other genetic material known as A)plasmids.
B)transposons.
C)proteomes. D)lysosomes.
Q4) When analyzing the sequence of genes similar to ones already known,why is the amino acid sequence of the protein more important than the DNA sequence?
Q5) Interpret the genomic content of mitochondria in relation to their evolution.How is mitochondrial evolution more complicated than expected?
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Chapter 7: Metabolic Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the activity of a riboswitch controlled?
A)by other riboswitches
B)metabolite binding can change its structure
C)sigma factor binding alters its structure
D)small RNA complementary binding disrupts its function
Q2) Phosphorylation of ________ regulates which direction a flagellum rotates,thus controlling whether an organism runs or tumbles.
A)CheAW
B)CheB
C)CheY
D)CheZ
Q3) Explain why regulation of enzyme synthesis is more time consuming than regulation of enzymatic activity.
Q4) To be most sensitive to a repellant,a methyl-accepting chemotaxis protein must be ________ methylated to initiate a ________.
A)fully / run
B)fully / tumble
C)not / run
D)not / tumble
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Chapter 8: Viruses and Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNA viruses encode host restriction systems designed to destroy host DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Relate the structure of bacteriophages and animal viruses to the structure of their respective host cells and the steps of the viral life cycle.
Q3) When a virus enters a host cell in which it can replicate,the process is called a(n)
A)insertion.
B)infection.
C)prophage.
D)excision.
Q4) In the first few minutes after host cell infection,the virus undergoes an eclipse.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Viral replication occurs
A)intracellularly.
B)extracellularly.
C)both intracellularly and extracellularly.
D)either intracellularly or extracellularly,depending on the virus involved.
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Chapter 9: Viral Genomes and Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a consequence of the immune system in humans recognizing dsRNA as foreign,
A)dsRNA viruses rarely infect humans.
B)dsRNA viruses quickly transcribe their genes into mRNA which is insensitive to immune responses.
C)genomes of RNA viruses are often chemically modified to avoid recognition by human immune cells.
D)the genomes of dsRNA viruses must avoid human immune cells during infection,including replicating their genomes within their own nucleocapsids.
Q2) Which type of viruses can be directly used for translation?
A)dsRNA
B)negative ssRNA
C)positive ssRNA
D)retroviruses
Q3) Which type of viruses generally has the smallest genome?
A)bacteriophage
B)DNA viruses
C)RNA viruses
D)viroids
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11
Chapter 10: Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins and nucleic acids absorb light maximally at 260 nm; hence,proteins protect cells from UV effects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following factors has delayed the development of laboratory-based genetic systems in <i>Archaea</i>?
A)There are no documented systems of conjugation in <i>Archaea</i>.
B)Homologous recombination does NOT occur in <i>Archaea</i>.
C)Archaea do NOT host viruses or plasmids.
D)Many archaea grow in extreme or unusual conditions that make the use of agar and traditional mutant screening techniques problematic.
Q3) Design an experiment (including controls)to determine if a new kitchen chemical cleaner is mutagenic.Include in your answer how you would interpret the results.
Q4) A typical mutation rate for a bacterium is in the range of 10 to 10 per kbp.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how electroporation works and the significance of the procedure for genetic experiments.
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Chapter 11: Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of those below is NOT an important consideration when designing a fusion protein construct?
A)Avoid hybridization of the fusion gene in the artificial construct.
B)Reading frame is the same for both the fusion gene and reporter gene.
C)Transcriptional start and stop signals are shared.
D)Translational start and stop signals are shared.
Q2) Polyvalent vaccines using vaccinia virus are highly favored by doctors and physicians but are especially challenging for those who develop them,because
A)coat proteins form a relatively rigid structure and do not allow much space for additional proteins to be expressed.
B)multiple foreign proteins simultaneously synthesized often disrupts each other's activity.
C)vaccinia and most other viruses engineered for vaccines contain only one restriction site for cloning in their genome.
D)virus genetic manipulation uses transfection,which is an inherently inefficient process.
Q3) Describe the methodology employed when antibodies are used to detect proteins.
Q4) Compare and contrast operon and protein fusions.
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Chapter 12: Microbial Evolution and Systematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Can gene frequencies change in the absence of selection? Why or why not?
Q2) One widely used cladistic method of examining evolutionary relationships is ________,which is based on the assumption that evolution is most likely to have proceeded by the path requiring fewest changes.
A)topology
B)neighbor joining
C)parsimony
D)systematics
Q3) Most bacterial phyla lack strong phenotypic cohesiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You are studying 12 new isolates from the human skin.The isolates have 16S rRNA sequences that are 97% similar and share important phenotypic traits.Their genomes have 55% of their genes in common.The isolates would most likely be
A)classified as individual strains of the same species.
B)classified as individual species of the same genus.
C)split into different families.
D)classified as the same species if they can mate via conjugation.
Q5) Describe the hydrogen hypothesis and why it is favored over other hypotheses.
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Chapter 13: Metabolic Diversity of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ferrous iron (Fe² )oxidation generally occurs in environments with A)alkaline conditions.
B)high H concentrations.
C)high oxygen content.
D)little or no light present.
Q2) Which of the following reactions is classified as a heterofermentation?
A)hexose 2 lactate + 2 H
B)HCOOH H + CO
C)glucose lactate + ethanol + CO + H
D)fructose 3 acetate + 3 H
Q3) The serine pathway and ribulose monophosphate pathway can both be used by ________ as a way to incorporate carbon into biomass.
A)acetogens
B)anoxygenic hydrocarbon fermenters
C)methanogens
D)methylotrophs
Q4) In what types of organisms are carboxysomes found and what advantage do they provide for a cell?
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15
Chapter 14: Functional Diversity of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A few bacteria are capable of growing on gases as the sole source of energy,carbon,and nitrogen.Which of the following combination of gases would support the growth of a bacterium in mineral media with NO other additions?
A)H ,N ,CO
B)H ,O ,N ,CO
C)H ,H S,N ,CO
D)H ,O ,N O,CO
Q2) Green sulfur bacteria are often found at the greatest depths of all phototrophic cells in lakes,oceans,and microbial mats.This is because green sulfur bacteria
A)are very sensitive to UV irradiation,despite their reliance on light for energy.
B)are the only phototrophs that can use hydrogen sulfide as an electron donor for photosynthesis.
C)are strict anaerobes.
D)have chlorosomes that are very efficient at harvesting light,allowing them to perform photosynthesis where light intensities are very low.
Q3) How do Cyanobacteria impact the ecology of both aquatic and terrestrial environments on Earth?
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Chapter 15: Diversity of Bacteria
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Q1) Proteobacteria members thrive in soils and occur at high concentrations as well.Other bacterial taxa are considered much less diverse in terms of their metabolic capabilities.Due to the role isolation has in discovering metabolic pathways,consider how obtaining hundreds of new isolates from a less studied phylum might change our views on metabolic diversity.Predict how the results of discovering another highly metabolically diverse group might be handled in terms of taxonomic assignment.
Q2) Rhodobacter and Roseobacter are two genera with a common ancestor in Alphaproteobacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The order Lactobacillales within Firmicutes are also called the lactic acid bacteria,because these bacteria
A)can aerobically catabolize lactic acid.
B)can ferment lactate.
C)produce lactate.
D)uniquely require lactic acid as a precursor for cell wall biosynthesis.
Q4) Pseudomonads are aerobic,gram-positive,polar flagellated,bacillus-shaped cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Diversity of Archaea
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Q1) Which statement is TRUE of methanogenic and extremely halophilic Archaea?
A)The methanogens are obligate aerobes; the extreme halophiles are obligate anaerobes.
B)The methanogens are obligate anaerobes; the extreme halophiles are mostly obligate aerobes.
C)Both the methanogens and the extreme halophiles are obligate aerobes.
D)Both the methanogens and the extreme halophiles are obligate anaerobes.
Q2) Laboratory isolation of Nanoarchaeum equitans requires the presence of A)fatty acids.
B)oxygen.
C)Ignicoccus.
D)sunlight.
Q3) While many Archaea are bacilli or cocci,unusual morphologies such as square,flattened and irregular discs have also been identified in certain species.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hyperthermophilic Archaea have been found to contain dibiphytanyl tetraether lipids.Why are these lipids different from lipids present in non-hyperthermophiles? What special properties and structures do they confer?
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Chapter 17: Diversity of Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the parabasal body is to
A)allow for photosynthesis to occur.
B)give structural support to the Golgi complex.
C)allow for the formation of energy from aerobic respiration.
D)give structural support to the endoflagellum.
Q2) ALL mushrooms are basidiomycetes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sporozoites observed in an insect's body likely indicate infection by an apicomplexan.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are two different mating types in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae,and they can switch from one type to another.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does the genus Pfiesteria cause problems in both humans and fish?
Q6) Silica is a characteristic component of diatom and oomycete cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Methods in Microbial Ecology
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Q1) In an agar dilution tube,microbial colonies grow
A)at the bottom of the tube.
B)on the sides of the tube,although some may be at the surface.
C)embedded in the agar,rather than growing on the surface.
D)on the surface,but some creep down the sides away from the surface.
Q2) Phototrophic organisms in SIP experiments are often observed releasing ¹ CO as measuring activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genomic analysis of Prochlorococcus has revealed
A)the presence of bacteriorhodopsin.
B)variations in ribosomal genes within the same phylotype.
C)complete congruence of genes and genome structure within the same phylotype.
D)variation in functional genes within phylotypes,but high levels of gene conservation between cultured representatives and environmental populations.
Q4) What prior knowledge is required to use a phylochip to study the abundance of the different microbes present within a microbial community? How does this cause bias when using a phylochip to analyze microbial community structure?
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Chapter 19: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) Archaea and Bacteria dominate the upper 100 m of the open ocean while viruses dominate depths greater than 100 m.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cells within a biofilm can undergo intra-species signaling; however,inter-species signaling does not occur.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The generation time of Escherichia coli in the human intestine is ________ in laboratory culture.
A)at about the same rate as B)faster than C)more optimal than D)slower than
Q4) Sedimentation in bogs and marshes develop ________ soils.
A)inorganic
B)mineral
C)organic
D)loamy
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Chapter 20: Nutrient Cycles
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Q1) Nitrogen fixation results in the
A)loss of biologically available N from an ecosystem.
B)formation of nitrogen gas.
C)direct formation of nitrate.
D)addition of biologically available N to an ecosystem.
Q2) Calcium is cycled most rapidly in terrestrial environments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diatoms require silicon due to their
A)Ca² /Si symporters.
B)DNA replication mechanism.
C)ornate frustules.
D)unique phototrophic physiology.
Q4) Which iron species is produced primarily from iron smelting and rarely is produced by microbial-mediated processes?
A)ferric iron (Fe³ )
B)ferrous iron (Fe² )
C)ferrulic iron (Fe¹ )
D)iron (Fe )
Q5) What are the similarities and differences between the Fe cycle and Ca cycle?
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Chapter 21: Microbiology of the Built Environment
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Q1) Reductive dechlorination is important in the breakdown of chlorinated xenobiotics because
A)anoxic conditions develop rapidly in polluted habitats.
B)oxygen is not present in most soils.
C)aerobic breakdown of xenobiotics is not possible.
D)only cometabolism occurs aerobically.
Q2) Describe floc formation in the activated sludge process.
Q3) Which process produces a gaseous product that can be used as fuel to provide heat or power for a wastewater treatment plant?
A)trickling filter secondary wastewater treatment
B)aerobic secondary wastewater treatment
C)anaerobic secondary wastewater treatment
D)primary wastewater treatment
Q4) Fungi are the main contributor to the biodeterioration of stone building materials and concrete wastewater distribution systems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Trace the flow of raw water through a typical drinking water purification scheme.
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Chapter 22: Microbial Symbioses
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Q1) Where are ectomycorrhizae MOST commonly found?
A)boreal and temperate forests
B)forests with especially low nutrients
C)tropical forests
D)boreal and temperate forests,forests with especially low nutrients,and tropical forests
Q2) Bacterial symbionts of termite hindguts play a critical role in the termite's
A)reproduction.
B)nitrogen metabolism.
C)resistance to fungal infection.
D)reproduction and nitrogen metabolism.
Q3) Which of the following is a common benefit of a microbe-plant symbiosis?
A)increased nutrient availability
B)decreased pathogen colonization
C)increased affinity for carbon dioxide
D)increased nutrient availability and decreased pathogen colonization
Q4) While rhizobia usually associate with plant roots,nodules can also be formed along the stems of leguminous plants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Microbial Interactions With Humans
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Q1) Which of the following pathogens does NOT require capsules or a slime layer for attachment?
A)Vibrio cholera
B)Streptococcus pneumonia
C)Bacillus anthracis
D)All of these pathogens require capsules or slime layers for attachment.
Q2) Which of these microorganisms is MOST likely to be found in the human gut?
A)Helicobacter pylori
B)Streptococcus sobrinus
C)Streptococcus mutans
D)Roseobacter denitrificans
Q3) Which of the following is more likely to cause urinary tract infections?
A)fimbriated strains of Escherichia coli
B)non-fimbriated strains of Escherichia coli
C)both fimbriated and non-fimbriated strains of Escherichia coli
D)None of the answers are correct.
Q4) Streptococcus mutans can produce dextran when sucrose is present in the absence of the enzyme dextransucrase.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Immunity and Host Defense
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Q1) What is the drawback of live attenuated vaccines?
A)They require more secondary reimmunizations than other vaccines.
B)They are not effective in adults.
C)They do NOT provide a long-lasting secondary immune response.
D)They can cause disease in some immunocompromised individuals.
Q2) Anticoagulants promote the clotting of blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why do individuals with genetic defects that prevent neutrophil or macrophage development usually die at an early age? Be specific and detailed in your answer to demonstrate your knowledge on the role of these cells in the immune system.
Q4) Phagocytes have general antibody receptors called ________ that bind to any antibody attached to an antigen.
A)antigens
B)antigen receptors
C)Fc receptors
D)membrane detectors
Q5) What is antigen presentation? Why is antigen presentation important for long-term immunity?
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Chapter 25: Immune Mechanisms
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Q1) The primary function of a phagocyte is to
A)destroy pathogens.
B)engulf pathogens.
C)evade pathogens.
D)both engulf and destroy pathogens.
Q2) Briefly describe how a phagocyte engulfs and ingests a pathogen.
Q3) Staphylococcus aureus produces carotenoids that neutralize singlet oxygen and prevent killing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The presence of neutrophils in higher than normal numbers in the blood or at a site of inflammation indicates an active response to a current infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When is a bacterial cell more likely to be phagocytized?
A)when antibody binds antigen on its surface
B)when compliment binds an antigen-antibody complex
C)when antibody recognizes self antigens
D)after antibody class-switching
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Chapter 26: Molecular Immunology
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Q1) Selection against self-reactive clones results in the development of tolerance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chemokines are a group of small proteins that
A)attract T cells to sites of injury.
B)function as chemoattractants for phagocytes and lymphocytes.
C)potentiate specific immune responses.
D)attract T cells,phagocytes,and lymphocytes,as well as potentiate specific immune responses.
Q3) Communication between cells of the immune system is accomplished in many cases through
A)allelic exclusion.
B)clonal deletion.
C)cytokines.
D)allelic exclusion,clonal deletion,and cytokines.
Q4) Chemokines produced by activated macrophages include
A)CXL8.
B)CCL2.
C)MCP-1.
D)CXL8,CCL2,and MCP-1.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Diagnostic Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following immunological tests would allow the specific identification of a microorganism directly in a patient specimen?
A)fluorescent antibody (FA)
B)radioimmunoassay (RIA)
C)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (EIA)
D)agglutination
Q2) A laboratory in which Ebola virus is studied would be classified as a BSL-________ laboratory.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q3) The oxygen-free gas commonly employed during anoxic incubation of a bacterial culture is a mixture of
A)nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
B)nitrogen and carbon monoxide.
C)nitrogen and argon.
D)nitrogen and hydrogen.
Q4) Describe the three main components to PCR-based testing.
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Chapter 28: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the five stages of a typical infectious disease? During which stage is the host likely to infect others?
Q2) The lower the basic reproduction number of a pathogen,the higher the percentage of immune individuals necessary to provide herd immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following diseases would be the easiest to control in a human population?
A)an infectious disease with wild animals as a reservoir
B)an infectious disease with humans as the only reservoir
C)an infectious disease with domestic cows as the only reservoir
D)an infectious disease with several possible reservoirs
Q4) Filoviruses (such as Ebola virus)that cause severe hemorrhagic fevers generally have high ________ but low ________.
A)incidence / prevalence
B)prevalence / mortality
C)mortality / morbidity
D)morbidity / mortality
Q5) Explain the concept of coevolution in terms of host-pathogen interactions.
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Chapter 29: Person-To-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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88 Verified Questions
88 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39387
Sample Questions
Q1) A sudden onset of a headache,vomiting,and a stiff neck are all symptoms of meningococcal meningitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pus formation in skin lesions caused by Staphylococcus aureus infections is in part due to production of A)coagulase.
B)hemolysins.
C)leukocidin.
D)catalase.
Q3) The CD4 molecule is A)an HIV surface glycoprotein.
B)a cell-surface protein receptor for HIV.
C)found only on T-helper cells.
D)an HIV surface glycoprotein that is found only on T-helper cells.
Q4) The loss of CD4 T-helper cells leads to the overt consequences of an HIV infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Vectorborne and Soilborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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73 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhalation anthrax is the only form of anthrax for which there is no effective treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following pathogens is spread by infected lice?
A)Borrelia burgdorferi
B)Plasmodium falciparum
C)Rickettsia prowazekii
D)Yersinia pestis
Q3) Which rickettsial disease can lead to endocarditis?
A)Q fever
B)typhus
C)Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D)scrub typhus
Q4) During outdoor activities,it is not uncommon to be bitten by mosquitoes several times,so how does an individual know he/she has been infected with the West Nile virus? How would an infected individual be treated for the disease?
Q5) Rabies infection in humans leads to symptoms a few days after exposure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Water and Food As Vehicles of Bacterial Diseases
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81 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gram-negative bacteria are responsible for causing MOST foodborne diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the United States,individuals become infected with Vibrio cholerae most commonly by
A)consuming contaminated shellfish.
B)drinking contaminated water.
C)eating contaminated vegetables.
D)person-to-person contact.
Q3) Staphylococcus aureus is a common foodborne disease,because it A)grows on common foods.
B)is present in some humans that work in food processing.
C)produces several heat-stable enterotoxins.
D)grows on many foods,is present in some humans that work in food processing,and produces several heat-stable enterotoxins.
Q4) At what temperature are most household freezers kept?
A)4°C
B)0°C
C)-20°C
D)-80°C
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Chapter 32: Eukaryotic Pathogens: Fungal and Parasitic Diseases
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51 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Athlete's foot is an example of a A)protozoal infection.
B)superficial fungal infection.
C)superficial parasitic infection.
D)hypersensitivity reaction.
Q2) What is the infective form of Entamoeba histolytica and Giardia intestinalis? A)cysts
B)trophozoites
C)merozoites
D)sporozoites
Q3) A common method used in the diagnosis of giardiasis is detection of Giardia A)cysts in stool.
B)antigens in blood.
C)antigens in stool.
D)cysts or antigens in stool.
Q4) The MOST serious types of fungal infections are
A)subcutaneous infections.
B)mycotoxic infections.
C)systemic mycoses.
D)superficial mycoses.
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