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Microbial Genetics explores the molecular and cellular mechanisms by which microorganisms inherit, express, and exchange genetic information. This course examines the structure and function of microbial genomes, including processes such as DNA replication, mutation, recombination, and gene regulation in bacteria, viruses, and other microbes. It also covers genetic mapping, plasmids, horizontal gene transfer mechanisms (transformation, transduction, and conjugation), and the application of genetic engineering techniques. Through understanding microbial genetics, students gain insight into microbial diversity, evolution, antibiotic resistance, and their roles in biotechnology and medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 4th Edition by Marjorie Kelly
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Q1) Organisms called parasites are
A)always classified in the Kingdom Monera.
B)always harmful to their host.
C)the decomposers in ecosystems.
D)always viruses.
E)free-living.
Answer: B
Q2) The orderly arrangement of organisms into a hierarchy of taxa is called A)classification.
B)identification.
C)nomenclature.
D)experimentation.
E)biotechnology.
Answer: A
Q3) Members of the Kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Ionic bonds
A)result from sharing electrons.
B)result from transferring electrons.
C)result from like charge attraction.
D)are the weakest chemical bonds.
E)always involve carbon.
Answer: B
Q2) A new organism was identified that contained arsenic in place of phosphate in its DNA double helix structure.Based upon this information alone,it can be determined that this change will greatly alter the information encoded by this genetic material.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Compared to a solution of pH 9,a solution of pH 7:
A)is more basic.
B)has no OH<sup>-</sup> ions.
C)has more H<sup>+</sup> ions.
D)has a higher pH.
Answer: C
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Q1) The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is
A)isolation.
B)inoculation.
C)immunization.
D)infection.
E)contamination.
Answer: B
Q2) Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar along with some colonies on the surface?
A)streak plate
B)spread plate
C)pour plate
D)replica plate
Answer: C
Q3) A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The two functions of bacterial appendages are
A)attachment and protection.
B)attachment and motility.
C)motility and slime production.
D)energy reactions and synthesis.
E)protection and motility.
Q2) The short,numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called A)flagella.
B)cilia.
C)fimbriae.
D)periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
E)sex pili.
Q3) Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called A)flagella.
B)cilia.
C)fimbriae.
D)periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
E)sex pili.
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Q1) There are no algae that can cause human disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An organelle that is a stack of flattened,membranous sacs and functions to receive,modify,and package proteins for cell secretion is the A)mitochondrion.
B)lysosome.
C)Golgi apparatus.
D)chloroplast.
E)endoplasmic reticulum.
Q3) Fungal asexual spores
A)are only produced under harmful environmental conditions.
B)produce offspring with different combinations of genes from the original fungus.
C)cannot be seen using a light microscope.
D)are the products of meiotic division by a single parent cell.
E)are used to identify fungi.
Q4) The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In transduction,the viral genome
A)initiates lysis of the host.
B)includes DNA from the previous host.
C)is replicated in the cytoplasm.
D)is replicated in the nucleus.
Q2) Which of the following occurs during assembly?
A)nucleocapsid is formed
B)new viral nucleic acid is formed
C)viral spikes insert in host cell membrane
D)nucleocapsid is formed and viral spikes insert in host cell membrane
E)the viral envelope and the host cell membrane fuse
Q3) Reverse transcriptase synthesizes
A)a positive RNA strand from a negative RNA strand.
B)a negative RNA strand from a positive RNA strand.
C)viral RNA from DNA.
D)viral DNA from RNA.
Q4) When a virus enters a host cell,the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Growth factors
A)are inorganic.
B)are synthesized by the organism.
C)contain elemental oxygen.
D)cannot be synthesized by the organism.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Facilitated diffusion is limited by
A)substrate concentration.
B)carrier proteins in the membrane.
C)size of the pores in the membrane.
D)osmotic pressure.
E)size of the cell.
Q3) Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a/n _____ carrier that will bind to the substance,effecting a conformational change that allows movement across the membrane.
A)protein
B)lipid
C)porin
D)enzyme
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Q1) All of the following are exoenzymes except A)ATP synthase.
B)streptokinase.
C)penicillinase.
D)collagenase.
E)elastase.
Q2) A type of cofactor would be
A)vitamins.
B)metallic ions.
C)active sites.
D)substrates.
E)ribozymes.
Q3) The reactions of fermentation function to produce _____ molecules for use in glycolysis.
A)pyruvic acid
B)ATP
C)NAD
D)NADH
E)glucose
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Q1) Which of the following is not a type of microRNA?
A)tRNA
B)miRNA
C)antisense RNA
D)riboswitch
E)siRNA
Q2) Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by
A)DNA ligase.
B)DNA polymerase.
C)DNA helicase.
D)DNA gyrase.
E)primase.
Q3) Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds.
A)peptide
B)nonpolar covalent
C)polar covalent
D)hydrogen
E)sulfhydryl
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Q1) You have made a specific DNA probe that will bind to a key sequence on the DNA of Neisseria gonorrhoeae,allowing your company to market a gonorrhea test kit that can be used to identify the bacterium in genital tract specimens.However,upon testing it out against a known Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture,you find that it does not work.Which of the following is a possible explanation for this negative result?
A)You forgot to label the probe sequence with a reporter molecule.
B)You forgot to digest the probe with restriction endonucleases.
C)You forgot to add the mRNA to the DNA probe sample.
D)You forgot to incubate the test at the 75C temperature required for hybridization.
Q2) Transformation and transduction are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA polymerases used in PCR
A)use an RNA template to make complementary DNA.
B)must remain active at very cold temperatures.
C)include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase.
D)are labeled with fluorescent dyes.
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of glutaraldehyde?
A)is classified as a carcinogen
B)inactivates viruses
C)does not damage plastics
D)cross-links proteins on cell surfaces
E)inactivates endospores in 3 hours
Q2) A method for sterilizing milk,called _____ treatment,uses 134<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C for 1 to 2 seconds.
A)pasteurization
B)batch pasteurization
C)flash pasteurization
D)ultra high temperature
E)tyndallization
Q3) Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is
A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)sanitization.
D)degermation.
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Q1) Which of the following microbials does not inhibit DNA synthesis?
A)chloroquine
B)quinolone
C)penicillin
D)azidothymidine
E)acyclovir
Q2) The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes function by
A)bacterial chromosomal mutations.
B)synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.
C)removing the drug from the cell when it enters.
Q3) The use of any chemical in the treatment,relief,or prophylaxis of a disease is called A)prophylaxis.
B)chemotherapy.
C)selective toxicity.
D)nephrotoxicity.
E)synergism.
Q4) Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxin drugs.
A)True
B)False

14
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Q1) Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease?
A)removal of blood
B)urogenital tract and feces
C)coughing and sneezing
D)skin
E)All of these are normal exit portals.
Q2) An infectious agent already existing on or in the body is called
A)exogenous.
B)an exotoxin.
C)an enterotoxin.
D)endogenous.
E)axenic.
Q3) Which of the following does not illustrate the use of universal precaution methods in the handling of patients and body substances?
A)mask and gloves
B)proper disposal of needles
C)healthcare worker with active,open lesions handling patients
D)hand washing
E)sterilizing or disinfection of dental hand pieces
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Q1) Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances?
A)hydrogen peroxide
B)nitric oxide
C)lactic acid
D)superoxide anion
E)All of these are used.
Q2) The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are
A)basophils.
B)eosinophils.
C)neutrophils.
D)monocytes.
E)lymphocytes.
Q3) Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte?
A)neutrophils
B)macrophages
C)Kupffer cells
D)monocytes
E)lymphocytes

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Q1) The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are
A)IgM only.
B)IgG only.
C)IgD only.
D)IgM and IgD.
E)IgD and IgE.
Q2) During presentation of APC-bound antigen,macrophages and dendritic cells secrete the cytokine _____,which activates T helper cells.
A)interferon
B)interleukin-1
C)interleukin-2
D)histamine
Q3) Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called A)superantigens.
B)heterophilic antigens.
C)allergens.
D)autoantigens.
Q4) Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
A)degranulation
B)bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)histamine acts on smooth muscle
E)prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Q2) Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?
A)degranulation
B)bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)histamine acting on smooth muscle
E)prostaglandins causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Q3) Autoimmunity is typically due to
A)transfusion reaction.
B)IgE and mast cells.
C)autoantibodies and T cells.
D)graft rejection.
E)a deficiency in T-cell development.
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Q1) Titer is the amount of _____ in serum.
A)antigen
B)antibody
C)WBC
D)complement
E)memory cells
Q2) Nucleic acid testing is appropriate as a testing method when one is not sure what microorganisms are present in the specimen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Precipitation tests involve all of the following except
A)they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection.
B)they include the VDRL test for syphilis.
C)they are often performed in agar gels.
D)they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution.
E)a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react.
Q4) The polymerase chain reaction requires endonuclease to cut samples of DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Measles is described as a ______ skin lesion.
A)purpura
B)bulla
C)papule
D)macule
E)maculopapular
Q2) Keratitis is usually caused by
A)Streptococcus pyogenes.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)herpes simplex.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Q3) S.pyogenes binds to plasminogen and then secretes ______ that creates plasmin that degrades tissue.
A)streptokinase
B)M protein
C)exfoliative toxin A
D)hyaluronidase
E)coagulase
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Q1) Tetanus differs from botulism in that
A)tetanus results in flaccid paralysis,while botulism paralysis is rigid.
B)tetanus results from an exotoxin,botulism from an endotoxin.
C)there is a vaccine for botulism not for tetanus.
D)muscles cannot relax in tetanus,while muscles cannot contract in botulism.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following diseases exhibits the highest mortality rate?
A)Western equine encephalitis
B)St.Louis encephalitis
C)California encephalitis
D)Eastern equine encephalitis
E)West Nile encephalitis
Q3) Your young friend has meningococcemia.Having had microbiology,you understand the severe consequences of this disease and worry that she might:
A)have a progression of the disease leading to respiratory collapse.
B)have to have a limb amputated.
C)transfer the infectious agent to her fetus,since she is pregnant.
D)go into a chronic disease state,where the symptoms come and go for years.
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Q1) Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of A)tularemia.
B)anthrax.
C)malaria.
D)brucellosis.
E)mononucleosis.
Q2) The highest numbers of cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever occur along the eastern seaboard.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following pertain to erhlichiosis except that A)it is transmitted by Ixodes ticks.
B)it is diagnosed by PCR or indirect fluorescent assay.
C)treatment requires an extensive course of antibiotics.
D)symptoms include fever,headache,and muscle pains.
E)it often coinfects with Borrelia burgdorferi.
Q4) Humans are routinely vaccinated against Lyme disease.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves A)chest X ray.
B)acid-fast stain of sputum.
C)sputum culture.
D)tuberculin skin test.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas,air conditioners,cooling towers,and supermarket vegetable misters?
A)legionellosis
B)pertussis
C)brucellosis
D)plague
E)traveler's diarrhea
Q3) Which antibody is concentrated in the respiratory tract?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
E)IgD
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Q1) Which statement does not accurately describe Salmonella typhi?
A)It multiplies within phagocytes and lymph nodes.
B)The bacterium is a gram-negative bacillus.
C)The disease can be treated with antimicrobials.
D)It is the cause of typhoid fever.
E)It produces a mild gastrointestinal disease.
Q2) Defenses of the GI tract against pathogens include
A)mucus,acid,and saliva.
B)secretory IgA and lysozyme.
C)peristalsis.
D)GALT.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which is incorrect about shigellosis?
A)Outbreaks have occurred in day care centers.
B)Symptoms include watery diarrhea with bloody,mucoid stools and abdominal cramps.
C)It frequently involve septicemia.
D)Human carriers cause fecal transmission.
E)It is also called dysentery.
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Q1) You,a 29 year old sexually active male,have discovered some small little vesicles on the penis.They are fluid-filled,red,and very painful.This is the second time that you have seen this symptoms.The first time around,about 2 months ago,you saw them but managed to ignore them.The lesions went away--no doctor,no treatment.But here they are again.You think that perhaps this disease was picked up six months ago,the last time that you had sex.Identify the disease.
A)HSV-1 infection
B)HSV-2 infections
C)candidiasis
D)syphilis
E)chlamydia
Q2) Which of the following is/are characteristic/s that can be utilized to distinguish between vaginitis and vaginosis?
A)causative agent
B)presence of vaginal inflammation
C)presence of discharge
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Q1) Carbon dioxide,sulfur dioxide,methane,and nitrous oxide are believed to be _____ gases that could disrupt the temperature balance of the earth.
A)active
B)greenhouse
C)noble
D)inert
Q2) The advantage of nitrogen fixation to the host plant is:
A)the production of DNA and RNA nucleotides required for nucleic acids.
B)the ability to use nitrogen gas instead of oxygen gas in cell respiration,particularly when the soil is compacted.
C)the production of antibiotics which then protects the plant against pathogenic bacteria in the soil.
D)the ability to synthesize amino acids and proteins from the ammonia produced from nitrogen fixation.
Q3) Toxic substances accumulate through natural trophic flow of an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Primary sewage treatment includes
A)sludge digesting.
B)skimming.
C)filtration.
D)chlorination.
E)aeration.
Q2) A good range of temperature to store food is
A)0<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> to 50<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
B)20<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>to 80<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
C)below 10<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C and above 80<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
D)below 4<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C and above 60<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
E)below -10<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C and above 100<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
Q3) Which of the following activities uses microbial biotransformation?
A)production of human hormones
B)alcohol production
C)production of fermented milk products
D)production of antibiotics
Q4) Dehydration is an excellent microbicidal method.
A)True
B)False
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