Microbial Genetics
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Microbial Genetics explores the principles and mechanisms underlying the inheritance, organization, and expression of genetic material in microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. The course covers topics including DNA structure and replication, gene regulation, mutation, horizontal gene transfer, genetic recombination, and the use of molecular genetic techniques. Emphasis is placed on how microbial genetics contributes to our understanding of cellular function, evolution, biotechnology, and the development of antibiotics and genetically modified organisms. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students gain practical skills in genetic analysis and manipulation, preparing them for advanced research and applications in microbiology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
iGenetics A Molecular Approach 3rd Edition by Peter J. Russell
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Chapter 1: Genetics: An Introduction
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Q1) Transposons are
A)proteins that are stable.
B)proteins that are unstable.
C)DNA segments that are stable.
D)DNA segments that are unstable.
E)DNA segments that code for proteins.
Answer: D
Q2) Are genetic maps based on the actual distance on chromosomes as measured by nucleotides?
Answer: No.Genetic maps are based on the frequency of recombination between genes.As such,they show relative distances between genes but cannot specify actual distance in terms of nucleotides.
Q3) What is the hypothetico-deductive method of investigation?
Answer: The hypothetico-deductive method of investigation consists of observing a phenomenon,forming hypotheses to try and explain the observations,making experimental predictions based on those hypotheses,and finally testing out the predictions by doing specific experiments.
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Chapter 2: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Q1) The genome of most prokaryotes consists of moderately repetitive DNA.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) In a strand of DNA,a hydrogen bond connects the phosphate group of one nucleotide to the sugar of the adjacent nucleotide.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) If the human egg has 3 billion base pairs,how many nucleosomes will be present in the nucleus of a human somatic cell?
Answer: In humans,the DNA wrapped around each nucleosome is approximately 200 bp (147 bp + 53 bp linker).As such,there will be approximately 3 × 10<sup>9</sup>/2 × 10<sup>2</sup> = 1.5 × 10<sup>7</sup> nucleosomes in a human egg nucleus.However,the egg is haploid,whereas the somatic cells are diploid.Therefore,there will be approximately 1.5 × 10<sup>7</sup> × 2 = 3 × 10<sup>7</sup> nucleosomes in the nucleus of a human somatic cell.
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Chapter 3: DNA Replication
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Q1) Topoisomerase and SSB proteins are important components of the replication process in prokaryotes,but they are not found in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) As helicase unwinds the DNA molecule,what keeps the strands apart?
A)DNA polymerase
B)Reverse transcriptase
C)Replication fork
D)Single-strand binding proteins
E)Okazaki fragments
Answer: D
Q3) Rolling circle replication of DNA is characterized by the absence of
A)the DNA polymerase.
B)a nick in the DNA template.
C)the RNA primers.
D)the replication bubble.
E)the Okazaki fragments.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Gene Function
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Q1) What is an essential amino acid? Give an example.
Q2) A person with PKU controls the buildup of phenylpyruvic acid in his or her blood by restricting dietary intake of phenylalanine,thus avoiding the severe symptoms of mental retardation,slow growth rate,and early death.Yet he or she still exhibits the symptoms of fair skin and low adrenaline levels.Why?
Q3) A person with sickle-cell trait has ________ at the -globin locus.
A)two wild-type alleles
B)two mutant alleles
C)one wild-type and one mutant allele
D)one wild-type and one deleted allele
E)one mutant and one deleted allele
Q4) What factor do the diseases PKU,albinism,and alkaptonuria all have in common?
Q5) The cystic fibrosis gene (CFTR)codes for a protein that is essential for
A)secretion of mucus.
B)ion transport across membranes.
C)transport of oxygen in red blood cells.
D)metabolism of certain amino acids.
E)processing of gangliosides.
Q6) In the laboratory,how could you distinguish between normal hemoglobin A and hemoglobin S?
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Chapter 5: Gene Expression: Transcription
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Q1) Unlike eukaryotic mRNA,prokaryotic mRNA is polycistronic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the function of the inverted repeat in the termination sequence of a rho-independent terminator? What would happen if a mutation occurred in this region?
Q3) What are the three basic steps of transcription?
Q4) The Rho protein is a topoisomerase that helps in untwisting the DNA template.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Outline the basic differences in function among RNA polymerases in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Q6) All genes encode proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What is the difference between an intervening sequence and an untranslated region in a eukaryotic mRNA?
Q8) What kind of experiment or analysis could you conduct to define the location of the promoter elements of protein-coding genes?
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Chapter 6: Gene Expression: Translation
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Q1) The majority of naturally occurring amino acids are
A)acidic and polar.
B)basic and nonpolar.
C)acidic and nonpolar.
D)neutral and nonpolar.
E)neutral and polar.
Q2) Molecular chaperones
A)help guide proteins from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
B)help guide proteins from the cytoplasm to the endoplasmic reticulum.
C)help fold proteins properly.
D)are proteins with structural function.
E)are proteins with enzymatic function.
Q3) Where does translation take place?
A)In the cytoplasm
B)In the nucleus
C)In the nucleolus
D)Anywhere in the cell
E)In the centriole
Q4) If a tRNA anticodon reads GAI,to which mRNA codon(s)will it bind? What amino acid will the tRNA carry?
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Chapter 7: Dna Mutation, DNA Repair, and Transposable Elements
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Q1) Barbara McClintock discovered that a controlling element was responsible for the mutant-spotted phenotype (purple spots on white)in corn kernels.Explain how this works.
Q2) Xeroderma pigmentosum is a human genetic disease caused by
A)elevated levels of cholesterol in the blood.
B)failure to produce pigment that protects the skin cells from UV light exposure.
C)defective DNA excision-repair mechanisms.
D)mutations that inactivate tumor suppressor genes.
E)loss of genes controlling the SOS response.
Q3) Which procedure would you use to detect a nutritional mutation in microorganisms?
A)Visible inspection
B)Replica plating
C)Controlled crosses
D)Isolation at high temperature
E)Plating on antibiotic-containing medium
Q4) A tumor suppressor gene is cloned and mutagenized in vitro,then injected into mouse embryos to create knockout mice.How could you identify the heterozygous knockout mice and create mice susceptible to tumors?
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Chapter 8: Genomics: The Mapping and Sequencing of Genomes
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Q1) Restriction enzyme
A)Eukaryotic cloning vector
B)Molecule used in DNA sequencing
C)Origin of replication
D)Small circular fragment of DNA
E)Endonuclease isolated from bacteria
Q2) The chemical "label" that permits visualization of DNA fragments in an automated sequencing machine is
A)<sup>32</sup>P.
B)<sup>35</sup>S.
C)fluorescent dyes.
D)tritium.
E)None of these
Q3) Sequencing the dog genome is currently a high priority for genomics researchers.What insights do you think can be gained about the evolutionary process by analyzing the genome of dogs?
Q4) The quality of an assembled sequence does not depend on the sequence coverage. A)True
B)False
10
Q5) Describe the basic approach to shotgun genome sequencing.
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Chapter 9: Functional and Comparative Genomics
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Q1) The 16S rRNA gene from human gut microflora was amplified and sequenced to understand how the gut microbes are related.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What does a large haplotype block suggest about a genomic region?
Q3) The subfield of genomics that deals with gene expression and interaction is A)comparative genomics.
B)functional genomics.
C)structural genomics.
D)hypothetical genomics.
E)expression genomics.
Q4) Why is the Taq DNA polymerase well-suited for PCR?
Q5) After how many PCR cycles,starting from a single starting molecule,will fragments consisting of only the target DNA (the DNA between the primers)be generated?
Q6) Why are two selectable markers present in the target vector used for making mouse gene knockouts?
Q7) List the steps involved in constructing a knockout mutant in yeast.
Q8) What is the difference between a "knockout" and a "knockdown" of a gene?
Q9) Why does the transcriptome differ within an organism's cell types?
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Chapter 10: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) PCR has revolutionized the criminal justice system through DNA fingerprinting.For a given fragment of DNA,showing that a suspect's fingerprint differs from that found at a crime scene immediately excludes him or her from suspicion,yet finding a match does not mean that guilt can be automatically concluded.Why?
Q2) Briefly explain how Ti plasmids induce crown gall (tumor)growth in plants parasitized by Agrobacterium tumefaciens,highlighting the specific properties that make this plasmid so useful in biotechnology.
Q3) Which of the following is used to screen newborns for the genetic disease PKU?
A)RFLPs
B)ASOs
C)Antibodies
D)PCR
E)All of these
Q4) How does a transcribable vector differ from an expression vector?
Q5) Antisense mRNA can be used to regulate the expression of genes.Briefly describe how this technology was used to slow the ripening of Calgene's ill-fated Flavr-Savr<sup>TM</sup> tomato.
Q6) How does an RFLP help identify sickle-cell anemia?
Q7) How do genetic tests differ from diagnostic tests for genetic disease?
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Chapter 11: Mendelian Genetics
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Q1) A man whose father expresses a recessive trait marries a woman whose brother expresses the same recessive trait.What is the likelihood that the newlyweds could have a child expressing the trait?
A) \(\frac { 1 } { 2 }\)
B) \(\frac { 1 } { 3 }\)
C) \(\frac { 1 } { 4 }\)
D) \(\frac { 1 } { 5 }\)
E) \(\frac { 1 } { 6 }\)
Q2) Speculate on the molecular basis for dominance and recessiveness,using flower color as an example,where red is dominant over white.
Q3) The probability that two parents with a family of four will have one girl and three boys is
A) \(\frac { 1 } { 2 }\)
B) \(\frac { 1 } { 4 }\)
C) \(\frac { 1 } { 8 }\)
D) \(\frac { 1 } { 16 }\)
E) \(\frac { 1 } { 32 }\)
Q4) What characteristics make an organism a good candidate for Mendelian studies?
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Chapter 12: Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Chromosomes with only one arm are known as A)metacentric.
B)submetacentric.
C)acrocentric.
D)telocentric.
E)acentric.
Q2) A litter produced by a calico cat is not expected to include
A)solid-colored female kittens.
B)calico female kittens.
C)solid-colored male kittens.
D)calico male kittens.
E)Any of these
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)Many plants exhibit alternation between haploid and diploid stages.
B)Chromosome number is generally constant within groups of organisms with common ancestry.
C)The Y-bearing sex is known as the heterogametic sex.
D)Sex determination is chromosomal in some organisms and genic in others.
E)The sex chromosome systems of birds and mammals are likely to have evolved independently.
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Chapter 13: Extensions of and Deviations From Mendelian
Genetic Principles
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Q1) Solid black,black with tan belly,and agouti coat color in mice are all caused by alleles of the agouti gene.All three colors can be true-breeding.When using mice from true-breeding strains: (1)Black × Agouti F<sub>1</sub>s are all agouti,(2)Black × Black with Tan belly F<sub>1</sub>s are all black and tan,and (3)Black with Tan belly × Agouti F<sub>1</sub>s are all agouti.If you were to cross the F<sub>1</sub>s from (1)with the F<sub>1</sub>s from (2),what proportion of the resulting offspring would you expect to be black with a tan belly?
A)None
B) \(\frac { 1 } { 4 }\)
C) \(\frac { 3 } { 16 }\)
D) \(\frac { 1 } { 2 }\)
E) \(\frac { 1 } { 16 }\)
Q2) Mutants that make up a complementation group complement each other.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An allele that exhibits incomplete dominance is usually haplosufficient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the cause of Tay-Sachs disease?
Q5) What is the phenotype and genotype of the chicks?
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Chapter 14: Genetic Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Explain how Curt Stern showed,using evidence from Drosophila,that genetic recombination is associated with the physical exchange of parts between homologous chromosomes.
Q2) Without performing any calculations,which of the following is the gene order?
A)abc
B)acb
C)cab
D)+++
E)None of these
Q3) If in calculating the distance between two genes using data from a testcrossed dihybrid you arrive at a genetic distance of 70 map units,there is likely to be something wrong with your calculations,the experimental data,or with the experiment itself.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A linkage map illustrates the exact physical locations of genes on a chromosome. A)True
B)False
Q5) What does the chi-square test tell us about the linkage of two genes?
Q6) What is the order of these three genes on the chromosome?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Genetics of Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) A complete bacterial medium contains only the nutrients required for the growth of wild-type cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding a temperate phage?
A)It can reproduce at warm or cool temperatures.
B)It is required for transformation.
C)It can be lytic or lysogenic.
D)It causes bacterial cells to conjugate.
E)It reproduces by binary fission.
Q3) E.coli strains that are Hfr
A)are easily mutated.
B)are susceptible to infection by bacteriophage.
C)contain the F factor integrated in the bacterial chromosome.
D)cannot be made competent.
E)have a low frequency of recombination.
Q4) To enhance the efficiency of transformation,bacterial cells can be induced to take up DNA by a strong electrical field.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Variations in Chromosome Structure and Number
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Q1) Which of the following is not used to help identify individual chromosomes in a karyotype?
A)Centromere position
B)Point mutations
C)Chromosome size
D)Banding pattern on staining
E)Heterochromatin regions
Q2) In humans,many types of cancers are associated with chromosomal mutations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During meiosis,what are the gametic consequences of a paracentric inversion with a single crossover event,compared to a pericentric inversion with a single crossover?
Q4) A human cell containing two sets of 23 chromosomes is
A)aneuploid.
B)polyploid.
C)euploid.
D)haploid.
E)None of these
Page 18
Q5) How does a Philadelphia chromosome occur,and what condition does it cause?
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) The purpose of regulation of the trp operon in bacteria is to ensure the cell can digest tryptophan if it is present and the cell is short on energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Give an overview of the mechanism by which ultraviolet radiation induces the lytic pathway in lambda phage.
Q3) To maintain lysogeny in lambda,which of the following needs to occur?
A)Binding of repressor protein to O<sub>L</sub>
B)Binding of repressor protein to O<sub>R</sub>
C)Inactivation of P<sub>L</sub>
D)Inactivation of P<sub>R</sub>
E)All of these
Q4) The genetic switch for the infection pathways of lambda phage is controlled by two regulatory proteins: ________ and ________.
A)lambda repressor,Cro
B)lambda repressor,permease
C)excisionase,integrase
D)recA,Cro
E)lyase,lysogenase
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Explain how combinatorial gene regulation permits regulation of a large diversity of genes with relatively few regulatory proteins.
Q2) Embryonic development is orchestrated by a cascading series of genes,the expression of many of which are controlled in time and space by transcription factors and effector molecules of various kinds.But what controls the expression of the first regulatory genes to be transcribed in the newly fertilized zygote?
Q3) Chromosome-level gene repression involves A)supercoiling.
B)physical blockage of gene regions.
C)chromatin formation.
D)nucleosomes.
E)All of these
Q4) Insect growth and metamorphosis is controlled by the steroid hormones ecdysone and juvenile hormone (JH).In insects like butterflies and moths that have a distinct larval (juvenile)and adult stage,the relative amount of JH determines whether the insect molts to the next juvenile stage or switches to become an adult.Can you think of a way to use this hormonal system to control caterpillar agricultural pests?
Q5) What are enhancers?
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Chapter 19: Genetic Analysis of Development
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Q1) Can you think of a specific example in which multiple genome datasets would be useful in the study of morphogenesis?
Q2) Homeobox genes
A)encode proteins with a conserved sequence of amino acids.
B)are important in development.
C)are conserved in multicellular animals.
D)are transcription factors.
E)All of these
Q3) The X-inactive specific transcripts gene is designated A)SRY. B)XIC.
C)Xce.
D)MATa. E)Xist.
Q4) Which of the following cell types has the lowest developmental potential?
A)Oocyte
B)Red blood cell
C)Embryonic stem cell
D)Zygote
E)All have equal developmental potential.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) Wild-type mutator genes produce substances that induce point mutations and chromosomal rearrangements.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ play a pivotal role in programmed cell death.
A)Cyclins
B)Telomeres
C)Proto-oncogenes
D)Oncogenes
E)Telomerases
Q3) Metastatic cancer is
A)terminally differentiated.
B)malignant.
C)invasive.
D)B and C only
E)A,B,and C
Q4) Describe Knudson's two-mutation model: When and where are the mutations posited to occur?
Q5) Programmed cell death,or apoptosis,is a necessary and useful property of cells.Why is this so?
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Chapter 21: Population Genetics
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Q1) Twenty loci are screened for genetic variation in a common caterpillar species.Four loci are found to have two or more alleles.The proportion of polymorphic loci for this population is thus
A)0.10.
B)0.20.
C)0.30.
D)0.40.
E)0.50.
Q2) Genetic drift may lead to A)loss of genetic variation in a population.
B)a decrease in the mutation rate of a particular gene. C)increased heterozygosity at many loci.
Q3) Populations that suffer significant reductions in number may experience two population-genetic consequences that together can hasten their decline.Which two processes are likely to act in concert in small populations,and what is their effect?
Q4) Some recessive mutations can be exceedingly debilitating or lethal when expressed in homozygotes.If their effects are so severe,why doesn't natural selection simply purge such alleles from the population completely?
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Chapter 22: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) Narrow-sense heritability is a more useful measure than broad-sense heritability in agricultural selective breeding.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Populations of the snail Cepaea nemoralis exhibit three color morphs,a good example of a ________ trait.
A)continuous
B)discontinuous
C)quantitative
D)polygenic
E)B,C,and D only
Q3) A gene that influences several traits is termed pleiotropic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If you measured the narrow-sense heritability of a crop plant trait at 0.25,what would that value mean in terms of the ease of selecting the trait in a selective breeding program?
Q5) The broad-sense heritability of a trait is estimated at 0.8.If the total phenotypic variance is estimated at 32.20,what is the genetic variance?
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Chapter 23: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following does not provide molecular evidence for evolution?
A)The 1,000-fold differences in nonsynonymous substitutions between some genes
B)The existence of pseudogenes
C)The fact that high-expression genes use amino acids that are less energetically costly than those used by low-expression genes
D)The fact that there is a lower rate of nucleotide substitutions in coding regions than in noncoding regions of genes
E)All these are molecular evidence for evolution
Q2) Humans have an extremely high level of genetic similarity,with greater than 99% sequence identity across populations.Yet,many people appear very different phenotypically.How do you reconcile these observations?
Q3) Many viruses are helped along in generating antibody-evading capsid protein variations by replication error.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the major weaknesses of the parsimony and distance matrix methods of phylogeny reconstruction?
Q5) Distinguish between a gene tree and a species tree.
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