Course Introduction
Microbial Ecology Pre-Test
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Microbial Ecology explores the interactions between microorganisms and their environments, focusing on their roles in ecosystems, biogeochemical cycles, and symbiotic relationships with plants, animals, and humans. The course covers microbial diversity, population dynamics, community structure, and the molecular techniques used to study microbial communities. Students will examine how microbes influence nutrient cycling, soil and water quality, climate change, and human health, and gain practical experience with experimental and computational approaches to investigate ecological questions involving microorganisms.
Recommended Textbook
Brock Biology of Microorganisms 14th Edition by Michael T. Madigan
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microorganisms and Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Pasteur flask has a(n)
A)swan neck to prevent particulate matter from getting into the main body of the flask.
B)double neck so two substances may be added at the same time.
C)secondary opening at the base to allow for drainage.
D)inverted upper edge to prevent spillage while swirling.
Answer: A
Q2) An ecosystem includes ________ along with ________.
A)macroorganisms / microorganisms
B)living organisms / their chemical and physical environments
C)pathogenic organisms / non-pathogenic organisms
D)single celled organisms / multi-cellular organisms
Answer: B
Q3) The disease anthrax is caused by the pathogenic bacterium ________,which produces heat-resistant structures known as ________.
A)Azotobacter chroococcum / endospores
B)Azotobacter chroococcum / plasmids
C)Bacillus anthracis / endospores
D)Bacillus anthracis / plasmids
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Microbial Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) One of the many types of proteins found in the cytoplasmic membrane is involved in the chemotactic response and is called a A)hydrolytic enzyme.
B)chemoreceptor.
C)binding protein.
D)porin.
Answer: B
Q2) Using phase contrast microscopy on a wet mount of live cells,you observe motile bacilli moving rapidly and randomly through the field of view,changing directions after a brief tumble and taking off in a different direction.These cells are exhibiting ________ motility.
A)twitching
B)swimming
C)gliding
D)twitching or gliding
Answer: B
Q3) Electron microscopes have less resolving power than light microscopes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) During the electron transport process,protons and electrons become physically separated in the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Consider a pizza dough made by vigorously mixing to form gluten and evenly disperse the ingredients such as baker's yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae).Predict the metabolic differences yeast would have in a thinly flattened dough and in a spherical dough ball.
Answer: A flattened dough would have higher surface area and more oxygen exposure to support aerobic respiration of S.cerevisiae.The dough ball on the other hand would initially have aerobic metabolism of S.cerevisiae due to the mixing.Once oxygen is depleted from respiration the yeast would begin anaerobic fermentation,especially in the center of the dough ball while the surface of the dough ball could still support aerobic growth if not enclosed in a container.
Q3) Heme prosthetic groups are involved in electron transfer with quinones.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Molecular Biology
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Q1) The template for RNA polymerase is ________,and the new RNA chain is ________ to the template.
A)an independent RNA segment / parallel and identical
B)DNA / antiparallel and complementary
C)an independent RNA segment / antiparallel and complementary D)DNA / parallel and identical
Q2) AT-rich DNA will denature/melt
A)at a higher temperature than GC-rich DNA.
B)at a lower temperature than GC-rich DNA.
C)usually at the same temperature as GC-rich DNA,with some minor variations. D)in accordance with the animal or plant from which it was taken.
Q3) In all cells,genes are composed of A)nucleic acids.
B)mRNA.
C)proteins.
D)chaperones.
Q4) Some essential genes and DNA sequences in cells DO NOT encode for proteins but are still essential for cellular growth and replication.Give two examples of a gene or sequence of which this is true and explain why it is essential for growth or replication.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Control
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Q1) An antiseptic (or germicide)is distinguished from other sterilizing compounds by A)being able to inhibit growth of microorganisms but not necessarily kill all of them.
B)being able to be used on living tissues without harm.
C)its ability to protect from subsequent microbial infections-not just initial sterilization. D)killing all bacteria and microscopic fungi but not being effective against viruses.
Q2) One reason food is refrigerated to control microbial growth is because irreversible cell damage is more likely to occur at low rather than high temperatures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A chemical that denatures proteins is MOST likely to be classified as a(n)________ agent.
A)antiseptic
B)bacteriostatic
C)bacteriocidal
D)detergent
Q4) Explain why a hyperthermophile is unlikely to be a human pathogen.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) You are interested in the minimum set of genes necessary for survival of a eukaryotic microorganism such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae.Design an experiment to systematically test which genes are essential for survival and which are not under high nutrient,aerobic conditions.
Q2) Most mobile DNA consists of A)transposable elements.
B)introns.
C)linear chromosomes.
D)plasmids.
Q3) Genes from different sources that are related in sequence due to shared evolutionary ancestry are called ________ genes,and groups of such genes are known as ________.
A)homologous / gene families
B)paralogous / functional genes
C)orthologous / gene families
D)homologous / functional genes
Q4) The largest cellular genomes belong to prokaryotes that are parasitic or pathogenic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Metabolic Regulation
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Q1) Studying the transcriptional activity of flagellar genes would not likely reveal differential changes when the cells are actively motile compared to nonmotile activity,because a two-component regulatory system is sufficient to control flagellar activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of regulator(s)specifically bind to operator regions of DNA?
A)activators
B)activators and inducers
C)repressors
D)repressors and corepressors
Q3) Which organism would likely harbor the MOST two-component regulatory systems?
A)an archaeon living in an extreme environment
B)a bacterium occupying a heterogeneous niche will high nutrient mixing
C)an organism capable of quorum sensing
D)a parasitic bacterium living inside another organism
Q4) Small molecules usually act directly (rather than indirectly)in regulating transcription.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Viruses and Virology
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Q1) Which of the following samples would contain the MOST genetic diversity?
A)viral metagenomes from the ocean
B)bacterial metagenomes from the ocean
C)microbial eukaryotic metagenomes from the ocean
D)viral metagenomes from human red blood cells
Q2) Restriction is
A)the viral process whereby a host's DNA ceases normal functioning.
B)the viral process whereby the virus prevents other viruses from entering the cell.
C)a general host mechanism to prevent the invasion of foreign nucleic acid.
D)a general host mechanism to prevent virus particles from further infective action.
Q3) Enveloped viral membranes are generally ________ with associated virus-specific
A)lipid bilayers / phospholipids
B)protein bilayers / lipids
C)lipid bilayers / glycoproteins
D)glycolipid bilayers / phospholipids
Q4) Explain why some viruses contain enzymes within the virion and others do not.Use specific examples to support your answer.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Viral Genomes and Diversity
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Q1) Due to the genetic diversity of viruses and their lack of ribosomal RNA,nucleotide-based phylogeny studies are not applicable to virology.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In T7,the proteins that inhibit the host restriction system are synthesized
A)before the entire T7 genome enters the cell.
B)while the T7 genome is entering the cell but before it enters the nucleus.
C)after the T7 genome is completely within the host cytoplasm.
D)in response to the T7 genome binding to the host chromosome.
Q3) The diversity of genome type and the overall number of bacteriophage that infect Escherichia coli is numerous,but many other bacterial taxa that thrive in the environment are likely infected by a variety of phage as well.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To date,no virus that infects Archaea is known to have an RNA genome.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how bacteriophages influence the ocean's bacterial populations and nutrient cycling.
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Chapter 10: Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) The use of transposons to generate mutations is a convenient way to create bacterial mutations in the laboratory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The uptake of DNA released from a cell is ________,while transfer of DNA with cell-to-cell contact would most likely result in ________.
A)transformation / conjugation
B)transduction / conjugation
C)conjugation / transformation
D)transformation / transduction
Q3) The CRISPR system
A)facilitates homologous recombination through a complex system of proteins and clustered repeats.
B)recognizes foreign DNA sequences that have previously entered the cell and directs the Cas proteins to destroy them.
C)repairs DNA and increases DNA damage tolerance during times of stress.
D)synthesizes gene transfer agents during stationary phase.
Q4) Compare and contrast generalized transduction with specialized transduction.
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Chapter 11: Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Q1) Which construct would be MOST useful in studying translational control?
A)gene fusion
B)operon fusion
C)protein fusion
D)shuttle vector
Q2) When trying to make a mammalian protein in a bacterium,expression vectors are often used.Using your knowledge of prokaryotic and eukaryotic genetics,explain why expression vectors are so important.
Q3) Cloning vectors can be distinguished from expression vectors by
A)carrying ori genes for replication of the cloned sequence.
B)having a multiple cloning site (MCS).
C)having a high copy number per cell.
D)lacking a promoter site upstream of the insertion site.
Q4) Type II restriction endonucleases
A)are heterodimers.
B)natively function to methylate specific nucleotides and prevent foreign DNA from being incorporated into the genome.
C)recognize nucleotide sequences that are palindromic.
D)require ATP energy to cleave dsDNA.
Q5) What is necessary for a YAC to function as a normal eukaryotic chromosome?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Microbial Evolution and Systematics
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Q1) The oxic atmosphere created conditions that led to the evolution of various new metabolic pathways,such as
A)sulfide oxidation.
B)nitrification.
C)iron oxidation.
D)sulfide oxidation,nitrification,and iron oxidation.
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the universal tree of life?
A)Previous versions of the universal tree of life were based largely on fossils and comparative biology,which overlooked the diversity of and relationships between most prokaryotes.
B)The current universal tree of life is supported by multiple genes including SSU rRNA sequences.
C)The current universal tree of life depicts three domains of life,two of which are prokaryotic.
D)The current universal tree of life is based on molecular sequences and completely changes our view of evolutionary relationships between eukaryotic species.
Q3) Describe the hydrogen hypothesis and why it is favored over other hypotheses.
Q4) How did cyanobacteria,oxygen,and ozone impact the evolution of eukaryotic cells?
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Metabolic Diversity of Microorganisms
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Q1) The aerated upper layer of soil is likely to have ________ concentrations of H for aerobic H -oxidizing Bacteria,so these bacteria likely ________.
A)high / thrive in such conditions by not competing with chemoorganotrophs
B)high / generate important reducing equivalents as byproducts for other microorganisms in the soil
C)low / do not occur in such habitats
D)low / will need a chemoorganotrophic way to grow as well
Q2) Chlorosomes are present in purple bacteria but absent in green sulfur and nonsulfur bacteria.
A)True B)False
Q3) Under what circumstances does oxygenic photophosphorylation use non-cyclic photophosphorylation and when does it use cyclic photophosphorylation? Also describe what occurs during each process.
Q4) The conversion of light into chemical energy is called photoautotrophy.
A)True B)False
Q5) What is the difference between chlorophyll and bacteriochlorophyll,and which organisms contain each?
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Chapter 14: Functional Diversity of Bacteria
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Q1) Tilling or plowing is a common agriculture practice that has been proven to have a profound impact on the nitrogen cycle.Tilling breaks up hard soils to ease the planting and germination of crops,and it also introduces more oxygen into the soil.Many fertilizers contain N in the form of ammonia because ammonia is readily absorbed and used by plants,while N in the form of nitrate is more mobile and is more easily lost from the soil.Based on your knowledge of microbial transformations of inorganic nitrogen species,what impact would you predict extensive tilling to have on the fate of ammonium-based nitrogen fertilizer?
Q2) Spirilla and spirochetes are closely related bacteria that exhibit a unique corkscrew motility.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Acetogens are anaerobic organisms that produce acetate as the main product of their metabolism.They are important in A)the production of vinegar.
B)the carbohydrate metabolism of the human gut.
C)hydrothermal vent communities.
D)the production of vitamin C.
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Chapter 15: Diversity of Bacteria
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Q1) Which relationship is MOST likely to be observed between species of different classes?
A)A deltaproteobacterium oxidizes hydrogen sulfide into sulfate,which is then reduced by an epsilonproteobacterium.
B)An epsilonbacterium oxidizes the hydrogen sulfide produced by a sulfur-reducing deltaproteobacterium.
C)A sulfate-reducing epsilonbacterium produces sulfite,which a deltaproteobacterium reduces to hydrogen sulfide.
D)Syntrophic metabolism of sulfur by a deltaproteobacterium and an epsilonproteobacterium occurs.
Q2) A moistened swab rubbed onto a person's forearm then onto a nutrient agar plate with 7.5% NaCl would MOST likely result in the isolation of ________ spp.
A)Clostridium
B)Halobacterium
C)Sarcina
D)Staphylococcus
Q3) Describe the stages chlamydia cells go through during infection of human cells and the significance for the key steps in the cycle.
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Chapter 16: Diversity of Archaea
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Q1) Some members of the Thermoplasmatales can grow at pH levels below A)4.
B)7.
C)0.
D)10.
Q2) One factor that seems to aid in maintaining lipid stability in hyperthermophilic Archaea is that dibiphytanyl tetraether lipids form a(n)
A)covalently bonded monolayer cytoplasmic membrane.
B)interlocking bilayer cytoplasmic membrane.
C)interlocking lattice with the cell wall.
D)pseudomembrane immediately inside the cytoplasmic membrane.
Q3) In general,the cold-dwelling thaumarchaeotes are evolving more slowly than the hyperthermophilic crenarchaeotes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some Archaea are chemoorganotrophs and use organic compounds as electron donors for energy metabolism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Diversity of Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Q1) The green alga Botryococcus braunii is a candidate for production of biofuel due to its ability to produce
A)and withstand large amounts of alcohols.
B)hydrogen gas.
C)long-chain (C -C )hydrocarbons.
D)short-chain (C -C )hydrocarbons.
Q2) Which algae are MOST closely related to plants?
A)red algae
B)green algae
C)brown algae
D)euglenoids
Q3) The accessory pigment phycoerythrin is dominant in the ________ group of algae,which mostly lack flagella,have multicellular lifestyles,and occur in marine waters.Those in particular which deposit calcium carbonate in coral reef systems are classified as ________ algae.
A)chlorophyte / coralline
B)chlorophyte / rhodolithic
C)rhodophyte / coralline
D)rhodophyte / rhodolithic
Q4) Discuss three findings that support the theory of primary endosymbiosis.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Methods in Microbial Ecology
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Q1) The overall purpose of DGGE is to
A)separate genomes that are less than 95% similar.
B)measure activity of cells that use DGGE as an energy source.
C)detect cells that utilize a specific radiolabeled substrate.
D)separate genes of the same length that differ in their denaturing profile due to sequence variation.
Q2) The diversity of microorganisms in culture collections is representative of the diversity of microorganisms found in nature.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Winogradsky column is a method for assessing the entire gene complement of a habitat,revealing both the biodiversity and metabolic capabilities of the microbial community at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Using specific examples,when is it appropriate to use CARD-FISH rather than the traditional FISH method and vice-versa?
Q5) Propose a set of procedures or steps to sequence an individual cell's genome present in lake water.
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Chapter 19: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) In the oceans,prokaryotes are outnumbered ten to one by A)zooplankton.
B)diatoms.
C)viruses.
D)phytoplankton.
Q2) Which is the CORRECT order of increasing size in soil particles?
A)clay > sand > silt
B)clay > silt > sand
C)sand > clay > silt
D)silt > clay > sand
Q3) A notorious biofilm former implicated in cystic fibrosis is A)Bacillus subtilis.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Lactobacillus acidophilus.
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Q4) Which are the MOST dominant chemolithotrophs in pelagic waters?
A)ammonia-oxidizing Archaea
B)ammonia-oxidizing Bacteria
C)sulfate-reducing Bacteria
D)Prochlorococcus
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Nutrient Cycles
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Q1) Mercury is NOT used in A)electronics.
B)neurotoxins.
C)pesticides.
D)paper pulping.
Q2) A process where different microbial taxa work in cooperation to degrade a compound that neither can perform entirely on their own is called A)allotrophy.
B)ammensalism.
C)commensalism. D)syntrophy.
Q3) Ocean acidification decreases the precipitation of calcium carbonate and thus will probably affect the cycling of Ca and other nutrients in the ocean. A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how syntrophy helps explain why certain enrichments yield consortia and never an individual species.
Q5) What are the similarities and differences between the Fe cycle and Ca cycle?
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Chapter 21: Microbiology of the Built Environment
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Q1) Chlorinated xenobiotics can ONLY be degraded aerobically,thus making them very recalcitrant if they accumulate in anoxic environments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Trace the flow of raw water through a typical drinking water purification scheme.
Q3) The production of ________ by ________ is thought to be a major contributor to the biodeterioration of stone building materials.
A)oxalic acid / fungi
B)sulfuric acid / sulfate reducers
C)nitric acid / nitrate reducers
D)carbonic acid / lichens
Q4) Aerobic secondary treatment is usually best for ________ wastewater.
A)industrial
B)agricultural
C)residential
D)chemical
Q5) Compare the operation and function of a trickling filter system and activated sludge.
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Chapter 22: Microbial Symbioses
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Q1) What is the fate of H produced within a rumen?
A)It is released via eructation (belching).
B)It is transformed,along with other ions,into inorganic compounds.
C)It is used in acetogenesis.
D)It is used in methanogenesis.
Q2) Biofilms in the human mouth primarily contain pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Obligately symbiotic relationships generally do not foster horizontal gene transfer at a higher rate than non-symbiotic relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Several rhizobial species within a cross-inoculation group should be able to grow with particular legume species such as alfalfa.However,the same cross-inoculation group would be unable to associate with another legume species such as peas.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is coral bleaching and how might corals be able to adapt to avoid the destruction of coral reefs?
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Chapter 23: Microbial Interactions With Humans
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Q1) ________ are microbial infections acquired by hospital patients with noninfectious diseases because they are compromised hosts.
A)Healthcare-associated infections
B)Immunocompromised infections
C)Pathogenic infections
D)Virulent infections
Q2) The macromolecules responsible for bacterial adherence that are NOT covalently attached to bacteria are collectively called
A)lipid A.
B)biofilms.
C)capsules.
D)glycocalyx.
Q3) Invasion is the ability of a pathogen to enter into host cells or tissues,spread,and cause disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is fever the universal result of endotoxin exposure?
Q5) Describe how orally taken antibiotics can result in the harmful alteration in digestive functions and disease.
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Chapter 24: Immunity and Host Defense
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Q1) All the following can cause contact dermatitis EXCEPT A)jewelry.
B)latex gloves.
C)poison ivy.
D)superantigens.
Q2) What is tolerance,and why must the adaptive immune system exhibit tolerance?
Q3) Anticoagulants promote the clotting of blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Type I hypersensitivity is caused by the release of vasoactive products from mast cells coated with
A)IgA.
B)IgE.
C)IgG.
D)IgM.
Q5) Men are 20 times more likely to develop systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)than women.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast the origin and roles of B cells and T cells.
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Chapter 25: Immune Mechanisms
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Q1) Antibodies are found in
A)milk.
B)mucosal secretions.
C)serum.
D)milk,mucosal secretions,and serum.
Q2) When is a bacterial cell more likely to be phagocytized?
A)when antibody binds antigen on its surface
B)when compliment binds an antigen-antibody complex
C)when antibody recognizes self antigens
D)after antibody class-switching
Q3) Which of the following is a function of dendritic cells?
A)antigen presentation
B)plaque formation
C)phagocytosis
D)both phagocytosis and plaque formation
Q4) PRRs were FIRST observed in phagocytes in Drosophila (where they are called Toll receptors).
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe how B cells are activated.
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Chapter 26: Molecular Immunology
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Q1) The major histocompatibility complex is also called the
A)human leukocyte antigen (HLA).
B)T cell receptor.
C)toll-like receptor complex.
D)T cell receptor or toll-like receptor.
Q2) Which of the following cytokines acts to stimulate natural killer cells and induce naïve T cells to differentiate to TH1 cells?
A)IL-1
B)IL-6
C)IL-12
D)TNF-
Q3) Somatic hypermutation mechanisms generate TCR diversity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a likely target for a toll-like receptor (TLR)?
A)tumor necrosis factor
B)interleukin IV
C)flagellin
D)insulin
Q5) Why is the secondary immune response stronger in regard to antibodies?
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Chapter 27: Diagnostic Microbiology
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Q1) Antibody titer can be measured by
A)negative microscopy.
B)agglutination.
C)plate counts done after isolating the pathogen.
D)polymerase chain reaction.
Q2) Propose a series of procedures to determine whether a patient has a urinary tract infection.
Q3) ________,periodic reports on the susceptibility of clinically isolated organisms to the antibiotics in current local use,are particularly valuable for tracking the emergence of new antibiotic-resistant strains of pathogens.
A)Antibiotic susceptibility plates
B)Antibiograms
C)Direct agglutination reports
D)Histograms
Q4) The most common of all nosocomial infections are ________ infections.
A)blood
B)reproductive tract
C)urinary tract
D)respiratory tract
Q5) Describe mechanisms of transfer of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Epidemiology
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Q1) Why are public health officials concerned about smallpox being used as a biological weapon? Give several reasons in your answer.
Q2) Most cases of mosquito-transmitted diseases occur in A)the summer and fall seasons.
B)tropical and sub-tropical regions.
C)rural areas.
D)tropical and sub-tropical regions or during the summer and fall seasons.
Q3) To control a disease in a population,100% immunization is necessary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Food and water are considered disease vehicles.
A)True B)False
Q5) The number of ill individuals within a population is referred to as A)morbidity.
B)mortality.
C)residency.
D)prevalence.
Q6) How might climate change impact the incidence of a disease? Use a specific example to illustrate your answer.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Person-To-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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88 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the syphilis spirochete initially transmitted?
A)penetration of unbroken skin
B)through the eyes
C)from mother to child
D)through tiny breaks in the skin epithelial layer
Q2) Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH)is an antibiotic used in the treatment of tuberculosis.It affects the synthesis of A)mycolic acid.
B)linoleic acid.
C)globular proteins of the cell membrane.
D)DNA transcription.
Q3) The most common infectious disease(s)is/are
A)gonorrhea.
B)influenza.
C)hepatitis.
D)colds.
Q4) In the context of the influenza virus,describe the mechanistic difference between an antigenic drift and an antigenic shift.Also indicate the result of each.
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Chapter 30: Vectorborne and Soilborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a camping and hiking expedition in the Ice Age National Scenic Trail at Hartman Creek State Park (Waupaca,WI),an individual notices a small tick on his arm.After removing the partially embedded deer tick,what symptoms should this individual look for to indicate infection of Borrelia burgdorferi? Also,what should be done on future hiking trips to decrease the likelihood of B.burgdorferi infection?
Q2) Which of the following was an emerging mosquito-borne disease in the early 2000s but has now decreased in frequency?
A)malaria
B)Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C)typhus
D)West Nile fever
Q3) Which disease(s)has/have been mistakenly diagnosed as measles or scarlet fever due to similarities in rash appearance?
A)Lyme disease
B)Q fever
C)rickettsial diseases
D)typhus
Q4) Using a specific example,explain the term "accidental host."
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Water and Food As Vehicles of Bacterial Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many food infection agents also cause waterborne diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ETEC strains produce one of two heat-________ diarrhea-producing ________.
A)stable / endotoxins
B)labile / endotoxins
C)stable / enterotoxins
D)labile / enterotoxins
Q3) The MOST common route of transmission of Salmonella typhi worldwide is through A)contaminated food.
B)contaminated water.
C)direct contact.
D)insect vectors.
Q4) Campylobacter infections are the MOST common foodborne infections in the United States.
A)True B)False
Q5) Cholera can be transmitted by water or food.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Eukaryotic Pathogens: Fungal and Parasitic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do so many eukaryotic pathogens cause highly refractory and long-term chronic infections that are difficult to treat in contrast with prokaryotic pathogens?
Q2) Eukaryotic human parasites are ALL respiratory aerobes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) MOST fungi are harmless to humans,although certain superficial infections are quite common.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How are trypanosome diseases similar to malaria?
A)They are transmitted by insect vectors.
B)They cause intermittent fevers.
C)They are acute,self-limiting diseases.
D)They are all endemic to Africa.
Q5) Which of the following filariases are transmitted by insect vectors?
A)elephantiasis
B)river blindness
C)trichinosis
D)elephantiasis and river blindness
Page 34
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