Microbial Ecology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Microbial Ecology explores the complex interactions between microorganisms and their environments, emphasizing the roles microbes play in shaping natural ecosystems. The course covers microbial diversity, community structure, and the ecological principles that govern microbial populations. Students examine how microbes interact with each other, with higher organisms, and with their physical and chemical surroundings. Topics include nutrient cycling, symbiotic relationships, environmental adaptation, and the impact of microbes on global processes such as climate change and bioremediation. Through lectures, case studies, and laboratory activities, students gain an integrated understanding of how microbial life influences and sustains ecological systems.
Recommended Textbook
Brock Biology of Microorganisms 15th Edition by Michael T. Madigan
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33 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Not only do some microorganisms tolerate extremely hot temperatures, some actually require high temperatures for optimal growth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q2) The structure that confers structural strength on the cell is known as the
A) cytoplasmic membrane.
B) cell wall.
C) ribosome.
D) cytoplasm.
Answer: B
Q3) Microbes that live at high temperatures in hot springs are ________.
A) always Archaea.
B) also able to thrive at low temperatures.
C) called extremophiles.
D) rarely found.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Microbial Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small acid-soluble proteins (SASPs) protect DNA from ultraviolet light and are found in high numbers within
A) gram-positive Bacteria.
B) endospores.
C) inclusion bodies.
D) gram-negative Bacteria.
Answer: B
Q2) Although the inner leaflet of the gram-negative outer membrane is composed mainly of phospholipids, the outer leaflet of the outer membrane contains A) pseudopeptidoglycans.
B) lipoteichoic acids.
C) poly- -hydroxybutyric acids (PHB).
D) lipopolysaccharides (LPS).
Answer: D
Q3) Porins are channels in the outer membranes of gram-positive Bacteria. A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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4
Chapter 3: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnesium is not considered a growth factor for microorganisms, because growth factors are always organic compounds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q2) A chemoorganotroph and a chemolithotroph in the same environment would NOT compete for A) oxygen.
B) carbon.
C) nitrogen.
D) phosphorous.
Answer: B
Q3) The class of macromolecules in microorganisms that contributes most to biomass is A) carbohydrates.
B) DNA.
C) lipids.
D) proteins.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Molecular Information Flow and Protein Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of new DNA does NOT require energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Termination of RNA synthesis is ultimately determined by A) exhaustion of RNA polymerase activity.
B) special protein factors.
C) terminases.
D) specific nucleotide sequences on the template strand.
Q3) Transcription in eukaryotes occurs in the
A) RNA polymerase.
B) endoplasmic reticulum.
C) cytoplasm.
D) nucleus.
Q4) Speculate on why it can be problematic to copy and express genes from Bacteria into Eukarya.
Q5) The structure and function of a protein are determined by its ________ sequence. A) nucleotide
B) amino acid
C) ribonucleotide
D) translocation
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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Its Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sterility of a laminar flow hood is accomplished by filter-sterilized air passed through the hood quickly enough that non-sterile air does not flow into the work area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A chemical that denatures proteins is most likely to be classified as a(n) ________ agent.
A) antiseptic
B) bacteriostatic
C) bacteriocidal
D) detergent
Q3) Relative to enzymes in mesophilic microorganisms, which of the following is NOT characteristic of enzymes in psychrophiles?
A) decreased alpha helix content
B) decreased beta sheet content
C) fewer hydrogen bonds
D) fewer ionic bonds
Q4) Describe the autoclave, and explain the roles of time, temperature, and pressure in the functioning of the autoclave.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Regulatory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organism grown in nutrient rich broth to high turbidity always produces a blue pigment. When a large inoculum is transferred to a nutrient rich agar plate, it also appears blue. A researcher noticed that this never happens when very small colonies are grown on low nutrient agar plates, however. What is the most plausible conclusion?
A) Large populations enabled the differentiation of a subpopulation of cells that created the blue pigment.
B) Only high nutrient conditions provide enough energy for cells to produce this secondary metabolite that appears blue.
C) Production of the blue pigment production is linked to quorum sensing.
D) The strong gradient from very high to low nutrient bioavailability induces production of the blue metabolite.
Q2) A two-component regulatory system usually involves both the sensor and response proteins being subject to phosphorylation.
A)True B)False
Q3) A regulon is composed of at least two operons regulated by the same protein. A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: Molecular Biology of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biofilm formation is more likely to occur when Vibrio cholerae is found in low densities such as sea water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hemimethylated DNA is found on
A) the newly synthesized strand of DNA immediately after replication.
B) the parental strand of DNA immediately after replication.
C) both strands of dsDNA immediately after replication.
D) neither strand of DNA immediately after replication.
Q3) How does the antibiotic penicillin lead to the death of pathogens?
Q4) A researcher unexpectedly identified mutant bacteria deficient in the FtsZ protein. Their growth appeared filamentous, and displayed incomplete cell division. Explain the role of the FtsZ protein and how a deficiency would account for this altered growth.
Q5) The typical time required for chromosome replication in Escherichia coli is
A) 10 minutes.
B) 20 minutes.
C) 30 minutes.
D) 40 minutes.
Q6) What role does the Par system play in bacterial cell division?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viruses and Their Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) An RNA genome itself serves as mRNA in negative-stranded RNA viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Influenza is an acute human viral disease that causes brief cellular damage followed by healing and complete clearing of the virus from the body. Hepatitis C is a chronic viral disease that causes slow destruction of liver tissue and persistent virions that are not completely cleared. Which of these diseases is more likely to be caused by lytic virus and which is caused by a non-lytic virus?
Q3) Compare and contrast the structure, life cycle, and host cell type of naked and enveloped viruses.
Q4) Retroviruses are medically important viruses because
A) they include the poliovirus.
B) they include the influenza virus.
C) they include all human pathogenic viruses.
D) they include some viruses that cause cancer and HIV.
Q5) In prokaryotes, DNA viruses replicate their genomes in the nucleus while RNA viruses are replicated in the cytoplasm.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Microbial Systems Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The evolutionary origin of mitochondria is demonstrated by which of the following key genomic characteristics?
A) variable numbers of protein-encoding genes
B) large stretches of AT-rich DNA
C) linear and circular genome structure in different organisms
D) rRNA genes most closely related to Bacteria
Q2) Codon usage varies from one organism to the next.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Reconstructing evolutionary relationships helps in differentiating between primitive and derived characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Recommend what type of data should be collected and analyzed in a systems biology approach to investigate how a non-pathogenic bacterial strain becomes pathogenic. Describe what scientific fields and methods would be involved in your recommendation.
Q5) Explain why the proteome is NOT defined as all the proteins encoded by an organism s genome.
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Chapter 10: Viral Genomics, Diversity, and Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on its function, which type(s) of viruses likely contain(s) a gene encoding for RNA replicase?
A) dsDNA and ssDNA viruses
B) positive ssRNA viruses
C) positive and negative ssRNA viruses
D) ssRNA and ssDNA viruses
Q2) When two different influenza viruses infect the same cell, their segmented genomes can undergo reassortment which will result in
A) antigenic drift.
B) antigenic shift.
C) loss of neuramidase.
D) loss of hemagglutinin.
Q3) A bacteriophage that lacks its proteinaceous capsid structure is also called a viroid. A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe one use of bacteriophage Mu for a bacterial geneticist, and explain why it is useful.
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12
Chapter 11: Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasmids that govern their own transfer are known as
A) transformable.
B) transmutable.
C) conjugative.
D) transfective.
Q2) In specialized transduction, virtually any genetic marker can be transferred from donor to recipient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is one of the changes that occur when a cell contains an F plasmid that is NOT integrated into the chromosome?
A) It is no longer able to produce a pilus.
B) Cell surface receptors change, preventing the uptake of more plasmids through conjugation.
C) Mutation rates are decreased.
D) The cell is considered an Hfr cell.
Q4) A typical mutation rate for a bacterium is in the range of 10 to 10 per kbp.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast generalized transduction with specialized transduction.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Biotechnology and Synthetic Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polyvalent vaccines using vaccinia virus are highly favored by doctors and physicians but are especially challenging for those who develop them, because
A) coat proteins form a relatively rigid structure and do not allow much space for additional proteins to be expressed.
B) multiple foreign proteins simultaneously synthesized often disrupts each other s activity.
C) vaccinia and most other viruses engineered for vaccines contain only one restriction site for cloning in their genome.
D) virus genetic manipulation uses transfection, which is an inherently inefficient process.
Q2) The enzyme that covalently links both strands of a vector and inserted DNA in molecular cloning is
A) DNA ligase.
B) DNA phosphatase.
C) DNA hydrolase.
D) DNA transferase.
Q3) What is necessary for a YAC to function as a normal eukaryotic chromosome?
Q4) Describe the steps of gene cloning using a vector.
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Chapter 13: Microbial Evolution and Systematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The earliest nucleic acid was probably a simple DNA molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q2) LUCA is
A) the last universal common ancestor.
B) the individual ancestor of each of the three domains.
C) actually somewhat of a misnomer because it is now believed that each of the domains arose independently.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) ________ formed the semipermeable membrane-like surfaces for the earliest life forms.
A) Proteins
B) Hydrogen sulfide
C) Lipid bilayers
D) RNA
Q4) It is believed that phototrophy arose approximately 3.3 billion years ago in A) Bacteria.
B) Archaea.
C) Eukarya.
D) LUCA.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Metabolic Diversity of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Calvin cycle
A) is responsible for the fixation of CO into cell material.
B) utilizes both NAD(P)H and ATP.
C) requires both ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase and phosphoribulokinase.
D) uses CO , NAD(P)H, and ATP to make biomass with ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase and phosphoribulokinase.
Q2) Some purple bacteria harvest light using bacteriochlorophylls.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain why it is unlikely an iron-oxidizing bacterium would thrive in a cold stream with a neutral pH. Also propose an experiment that would test whether iron-oxidizing bacteria are present in the stream.
Q4) What metabolism would be favored when there is a lack of electron acceptors?
A) fermentation
B) anoxygenic photosynthesis
C) anoxic ammonia oxidation
D) acetogenesis
Q5) Explain the Calvin cycle process that produces a full molecule of glucose and regenerates the ribulose bisphosphate molecule.
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Chapter 15: Functional Diversity of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of bacteria would you expect to find in a shallow clear hot spring with high concentrations of geochemically produced hydrogen sulfide?
A) purple sulfur bacteria
B) single-celled Cyanobacteria
C) dissimulative sulfate-reducing bacteria
D) symbiotic diazotrophs
Q2) Bioluminescence develops when
A) population density is high.
B) oxygen is depleted.
C) ambient light is low.
D) the host induces the bioluminescence genes.
Q3) Which of the following functional groups form symbiotic relationships with Eukaryotes in deep sea environments?
A) dissimilatory iron-oxidizers
B) methanotrophs
C) sulfide-oxidizers
D) methanotrophs and sulfide-oxidizers
Q4) Compare and contrast two different ecological strategies that sulfide-oxidizing bacteria use to access sulfide and oxygen.
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Chapter 16: Diversity of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bacillus-shaped genus are primarily intracellular parasites of arthropods such as crustaceans and insects?
A) Coxiella
B) Klebsiella
C) Roseospirillum
D) Wolbachia
Q2) Based on oxygen requirements and metabolic strategies, you would most likely isolate an epsilonproteobacterium from
A) anoxic and sulfate-rich waters.
B) a plant s rhizosphere.
C) sulfate-rich anoxic-oxic interfaces.
D) sulfide-rich soils.
Q3) Which phylum harbors the most functional diversity observed and also has the most cultured representatives?
A) Actinobacteria
B) Bacteroidetes
C) Firmicutes
D) Proteobacteria
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18
Chapter 17: Diversity of Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Speculate on the possibility of life on other planets. Use representatives of the hyperthermophilic Archaea and hydrogen chemolithotrophs as a guide to this discussion.
Q2) What special adaptation(s) has/have Thermoplasma evolved to survive in hot acidic environments?
A) Thermoplasma stabilize their cytoplasmic membrane by incorporation of tetraether lipoglycans in the cytoplasmic membrane.
B) Thermoplasma have a reinforced cell wall containing basic amino linkers in the peptidoglycan.
C) Thermoplasma excrete hydrogen ions and import hydroxyl ions.
D) Thermoplasma are highly motile to avoid destruction.
Q3) Why does Archaeoglobus represent a metabolically transitional type of organism that bridges the energy-generating processes of H S production and methanogenesis?
Q4) One unusual feature of Pyrococcus is that
A) it incorporates carbon dioxide via the acetyl-CoA pathway.
B) it is very motile due to a tuft of polar archaealla.
C) it incorporates carbon dioxide via the reverse citric acid cycle.
D) it is a thermophilic aerobic chemoorganotroph that uses elemental sulfur.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Diversity of Microbial Eukarya
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyphae are tubular cell walls that surround the cytoplasmic membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the differences between the algae and the cyanobacteria.
Q3) All mushrooms are basidiomycetes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A geologist going through a sediment core is likely to find remnants of ancient calcium carbonate containing ________ and silica containing ________.
A) diatoms / chlorarachniophytes
B) foraminiferans / diatoms
C) chlorarachniophytes / foraminiferans
D) foraminiferans / chlorarachniophytes
Q5) A polymer of N-acetyl-glucosamine, chitin, is a primary component to most fungal cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is an endolithic algal community? Where are these found, and how do they survive?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Taking the Measure of Microbial Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What unit is isotopic fractionation reported as?
A) parts per billion
B) parts per hundred
C) parts per thousand
D) parts per trillion
Q2) A study of the human gut performed in 1982 used various types of plates under different growth conditions to describe and enumerate the microbes in the human gut. They concluded that the majority of the microbes in the human gut are Gammaproteobacteria. A study conducted in 2010 using next-generation sequencing to characterize 16S rRNA sequences concluded that the majority of the microbes in the human gut are Firmicutes and Bacteriodetes. Why did these studies have different conclusions? Which study do you think is most accurate?
Q3) Using specific examples, when is it appropriate to use CARD-FISH rather than the traditional FISH method and vice-versa?
Q4) Laser tweezers are most directly used for
A) enriching a culture.
B) isolating individual cells.
C) increasing magnification.
D) enhancing the growth of fastidious organisms.
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Chapter 20: Microbial Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Limiting nutrients in soils are generally organic compounds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The physiochemical conditions of a microenvironment, by definition, remain static.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cells within a biofilm excrete an adhesive matrix primarily composed of ________ but can also contain nucleic acids as well as proteins.
A) lipids
B) fatty acids
C) monomers
D) polysaccharides
Q4) Which are the most dominant chemolithotrophs in pelagic waters?
A) ammonia-oxidizing Archaea
B) ammonia-oxidizing Bacteria
C) sulfate-reducing Bacteria
D) Prochlorococcus
Q5) What is the difference between an organism being piezophilic and piezotolerant?
Q6) Provide a reason for the ecological importance of pelagic Bacteria and Archaea.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Nutrient Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial oxidation of Fe² is commonly studied in chemolithotrophs that thrive under which specific environmental condition?
A) cold temperature
B) high sunlight
C) low (acidic) pH
D) nutrient-replete
Q2) A process where different microbial taxa work in cooperation to degrade a compound that neither can perform entirely on their own is called
A) allotrophy.
B) ammensalism.
C) commensalism.
D) syntrophy.
Q3) Marine wetlands (salt marshes) are highly productive coastal ecosystems that produce a lot of organic carbon, similar to freshwater wetlands; however, salt marshes smell very different than freshwater wetlands. What nutrient cycle is different between the two ecosystems that causes this difference in smell?
Q4) How would Si depletion in the photic zone of the open ocean affect the biological pump and the C cycle?
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23
Chapter 22: Microbiology of the Built Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment of drinking water by UV irradiation is effective at ________, but is less effective at ________.
A) killing bacteria and some cysts / killing iruses
B) killing viruses / killing bacteria and eukaryotic pathogens
C) removing order- and taste-altering organic compounds / killing bacteria
D) killing bacteria and viruses / killing eukaryotic pathogens
Q2) Which statement BEST describes sewage and wastewater?
A) Wastewater is a subset of sewage.
B) Sewage is a subset of wastewater.
C) Wastewater and sewage are virtually synonymous.
D) Wastewater and sewage are both subsets of all liquid effluents from domestic and industrial sources.
Q3) Inorganic pollutants such as metals and radionuclides can be completely destroyed through bioremediation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Potable water is NOT safe for human consumption.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is souring of crude oil and how does the petroleum industry control it?
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Microbial Symbioses
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Q1) The reproductive systems of many insects can be manipulated by parasitic symbionts, which are passed down to each generation and can skew the sex ratio of their progeny.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both pathogenic bacteria and primary symbionts have a tendency to lose genes for catabolic pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Microbial symbionts that are horizontally transferred show greater genome reduction than those that are heritable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Plant diversity is generally lower in environments where mycorrhizae are associated with plants due to strong coevolution, which leads to competitive exclusion.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: Microbial Symbioses with Humans
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Q1) The human microbiome contains all
A) organisms present on the skin.
B) organisms within the digestive system.
C) organisms present in and on the body.
D) organisms present on the skin or in the digestive system only.
Q2) Which of the following is known to be TRUE about dog owners and their dogs?
A) Dog owners have fewer skin microbes than those who don't own dogs.
B) Dog owners have more skin microbes than those who don't own dogs.
C) Skin microbes are more common between dog owners and their own dogs than between dog owners and other dogs.
D) Skin microbes are similar between dog owners and dogs in general, with no difference in similarity when dogs and their owners are compared with other human-dog pairs.
Q3) Elderly individuals have greater proportions of Bacteroidetes in their gut microbiota compared with younger individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how the composition of breast milk compared with formula affects the microbiota of infants.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis
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Q1) Explain how diet plays a role in the development of dental caries.
Q2) Epithelial cells lining the respiratory tract form a
A) dry and rigid barrier with tight junctions between cells.
B) impenetrable barrier to infection.
C) mucous membrane.
D) connective tissue layer.
Q3) It is thought that attenuation occurs especially in a laboratory setting because A) nonvirulent or weakly virulent mutants grow faster in laboratory media when there is no selective advantage to virulence.
B) pathogens lose virulence with age and survive longer in laboratory cultures.
C) patients can be treated with drugs that induce attenuation.
D) there is selection for more virulent strains in the laboratory.
Q4) Pathogenicity islands are clusters of genes for virulence factors that are located together on the bacterial chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Microbes initially colonize teeth by attaching to lipids attached to the enamel.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Innate Immunity: Broadly Specific Host Defenses
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Q1) Communication between cells of the immune system is accomplished in many cases through
A) allelic exclusion.
B) clonal deletion.
C) cytokines.
D) allelic exclusion, clonal deletion, and cytokines.
Q2) Which of the following is a function of dendritic cells?
A) antigen presentation
B) plaque formation
C) phagocytosis
D) both phagocytosis and plaque formation
Q3) How do NK cells discriminate between normal, healthy cells and virus-infected or tumor cells?
Q4) Chemokines are a group of small proteins that
A) attract T cells to sites of injury.
B) function as chemoattractants for phagocytes and lymphocytes.
C) potentiate specific immune responses.
D) attract T cells, phagocytes, and lymphocytes, as well as potentiate specific immune responses.
Q5) Briefly describe classical complement activation and cell damage.
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Chapter 27: Adaptive Immunity: Highly Specific Host Defenses
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Q1) The occurrence of multiple alleles at a specific locus is called
A) signal transduction.
B) the variable domain.
C) polymorphism.
D) allelic exclusion.
Q2) Intrinsic properties of immunogens include
A) appropriate physical form.
B) molecular size.
C) sufficient molecular complexity.
D) appropriate physical form, molecular size, and molecular complexity.
Q3) There are ________ different complementarity-determining regions in each V domain of an immunoglobulin (meaning ________ total in the V region).
A) one / two
B) two / four
C) three / six
D) four / eight
Q4) Are superantigen reactions beneficial or harmful to the host? What is different about a superantigen reaction compared to normal antigen-host cell interactions?
Q5) Briefly describe how B cells are activated.
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Immunology
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Q1) Differentiate between the various biosafety levels and when they are most appropriately used.
Q2) Use specific examples to describe the difference between a differential and a selective medium.
Q3) What is the basis for inferring infection of a pathogen when a serological EIA is performed? In this context, what does a positive result indicate?
Q4) All positive HIV-EIA tests must be confirmed by another independent test, usually the HIV Western blot.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An antigen must be at least ________ amino acids long to be effective in a vaccine.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 100
Q6) Literally hundreds of clinically useful EIAs have been developed.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Epidemiology
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Q1) An inanimate object that transmits infectious agents between hosts is most appropriately called a
A) fomite.
B) carrier.
C) vector.
D) reservoir.
Q2) Explain the concept of coevolution in terms of host-pathogen interactions.
Q3) Since 1994, HIV is no longer more prevalent in certain groups of people.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Morbidity statistics more precisely define the health of a population than mortality statistics.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Potential candidates for biological warfare
A) are generally gram-negative rather than gram-positive.
B) can be virtually any pathogenic bacterium or virus.
C) are eukaryotic rather than prokaryotic.
D) must be genetically engineered to be effective.
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Chapter 30: Person-to-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following statements about chlamydial infections is TRUE?
A) Chlamydial diseases are not reportable diseases.
B) Chlamydial diseases are less prevalent than gonorrhea.
C) Chlamydial diseases can lead to acute complications.
D) All of the statements are true.
Q2) "Bloodborne hepatitis" is caused by infection with hepatitis ________ virus.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) E
Q3) The diphtheria component of the DTaP vaccine is a(n) A) toxin.
B) toxoid.
C) antitoxin.
D) antitoxoid.
Q4) Why do powerful antibiotics not always remove the cause of meningitis if the disease is caused by Neisseria meningitidis?
Q5) Why are most sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) transmitted only by intimate person-to-person contact?
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Chapter 31: Vectorborne and Soilborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Q1) A person is most likely to contract diseases such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Ehrlichiosis if he or she visits/participates in
A) camping and hiking in the backcountry.
B) metropolitan cities.
C) snow skiing.
D) European countries.
Q2) A student travels to Brazil by boat on the Amazon River, without visiting the doctor prior to traveling for recommended vaccinations for travel to South America. The student becomes ill during the trip and is quarantined. Which of the diseases listed below does the student most likely have?
A) hantavirus
B) yellow fever
C) Ebola
D) Q fever
Q3) The primary disease reservoir for plague is
A) fleas.
B) humans.
C) rats.
D) mosquitoes.
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Chapter 32: Waterborne and Foodborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Q1) Campylobacter infections are the most common foodborne infections in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Staphylococcus aureus toxins are
A) neurotoxins.
B) endotoxins.
C) superantigen ectotoxins.
D) superantigen enterotoxins.
Q3) The most common source of Escherichia spp. food poisoning is contaminated A) meat.
B) fruits.
C) grains.
D) milk and milk products.
Q4) Properly canned foods typically do not contain living vegetative cells.
A)True B)False
Q5) Norovirus is commonly transmitted by the fecal-oral route. A)True B)False
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Chapter 33: Eukaryotic Pathogens: Fungi, Protozoans, and Helminths
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Q1) Anopheles mosquitoes ingest malarial gametocytes, which do not mature into gametes until transferred to the blood of a mammalian host.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Athlete s foot is an example of a
A) protozoal infection.
B) superficial fungal infection.
C) superficial parasitic infection.
D) hypersensitivity reaction.
Q3) Based on the life cycle of Schistosoma species, which of the following would be most effective in controlling schistosomiasis?
A) elimination of stagnate water
B) bed nets
C) proper sewage and water treatment
D) frequent sanitization of shared toilets, showers, and saunas
Q4) Patients with malaria often have splenomegaly.
A)True
B)False
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