Microbial Biology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Microbial Biology explores the diverse world of microorganisms, including bacteria, archaea, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course examines their structure, physiology, genetics, ecology, and evolution, emphasizing the roles microbes play in human health, industry, and the environment. Students will learn foundational principles of microbial diversity, metabolism, and genetics, as well as the technological advances used to study and manipulate microorganisms. Laboratory experiments and case studies are often integrated to provide hands-on experience in culturing, identifying, and characterizing microbes, fostering a deeper understanding of their significance in natural and engineered systems.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World and You
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Q1) What factors contribute to the rising incidence of antibiotic resistance?
A)overuse of the specific drugs
B)misuse of the specific drugs
C)random mutations in bacterial genomes
D)random mutations,overuse and misuse of specific drugs
E)overuse and misuse of specific drugs
Answer: D
Q2) The major food producers for other living organisms is/are
A)higher plants.
B)cyanobacteria.
C)algae.
D)higher plants and algae.
E)higher plants,cyanobacteria,and algae.
Answer: E
Q3) Biogenesis refers to the
A)spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter.
B)development of life forms from preexisting life forms.
C)development of aseptic technique.
D)germ theory of disease.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Chemical Principles
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Q1) Radioisotopes are frequently used to label molecules in a cell.The fate of atoms and molecules in a cell can then be followed.Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisotope ³ S.After a 48-hour incubation,the ³ S would most likely be found in the S.cerevisiae's
A)carbohydrates.
B)nucleic acids.
C)water.
D)lipids.
E)proteins.
Answer: E
Q2) Which one of the following microbes would grow best at pH 1-3.5?
A)Cyanobacteria in ocean water
B)Propionibacterium acnes bacteria on human skin
C)Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans in the runoff from a copper mine
Answer: C
Q3) The formation of ADP from ATP can be defined as a hydrolytic reaction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
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Q1) Which microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state?
A)compound light microscope
B)phase-contrast microscope
C)darkfield microscope
D)fluorescence microscope
E)electron microscope
Answer: B
Q2) The counterstain used in the Gram stain is a basic dye.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which type of stain is most useful in helping clinicians to decide which antibiotic to prescribe for a bacterial infection?
A)negative stain
B)simple stain
C)Gram stain
D)endospore stain
E)flagella stain
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
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Q1) Endospores are a reproductive structure. A)True
B)False
Q2) In bacteria,photosynthetic pigments are found in A)chloroplasts.
B)cytoplasm.
C)chromatophores.
D)mesosomes.
E)ribosomes.
Q3) Based on the description of typical cell structures depicted in this chapter,do you think it is possible for microbial life on Mars to exist? Remember,the environment on Mars is very cold,and there is no appreciable free-flowing water.The core appears to be at least partially molten.Gravity is less than that on Earth,and solar radiation levels are higher.The atmosphere is roughly 95% carbon dioxide and much less than 1% oxygen.If life COULD exist,what might it look like,and why?
Q4) If you observe rod-shaped red cells after the Gram stain,you can assume their cell walls contain endotoxin.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) Researchers are developing a ribozyme that cleaves the HIV genome.This pharmaceutical agent could be described as
A)an RNA molecule capable of catalysis.
B)a hydrolase.
C)a genetic transposable element.
D)a protease inhibitor.
E)a competitive inhibitor for reverse transcriptase.
Q2) Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1?
A)isocitric acid and -ketoglutaric acid
B) -ketoglutaric acid and NAD
C)NAD
D)NADH
E)NADH and isocitric acid
Q3) Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate?
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Chapter 6: Microbial Growth
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Q1) In measuring turbidity of a culture in indirect measurement of bacterial growth,absorbance and transmittance are identical and interchangeable values.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of the direct microscopic count?
A)can readily count organisms that are motile
B)can easily distinguish live from dead cells
C)requires no incubation time
D)sample volume is unknown
E)requires a large number of cells
Q3) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: H O + 2H 2H O?
A)catalase
B)oxidase
C)peroxidase
D)superoxide dismutase
Q4) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: O - + O - + 2H H O + O ?
A)catalase
B)oxidase
C)peroxidase
D)superoxide dismutase
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Chapter 7: The Control of Microbial Growth
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Q1) Which of the following disinfectants acts by disrupting the plasma membrane?
A)soaps
B)aldehydes
C)bisphenols
D)halogens
E)heavy metals
Q2) Which one of the following is known to be most resistant to quaternary ammonium compounds?
A)gram positive bacteria
B)members of the genus Pseudomonas
C)members of the genus Staphylococcus
D)fungi
E)enveloped viruses
Q3) In Table 7.1,which compound was the most effective against E.coli?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q4) How is hydrogen peroxide antimicrobial?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) Repair of damaged DNA,in some instances and mechanisms,might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and A)DNA ligase.
B)DNA polymerase.
C)helicase.
D)methylase.
E)primase.
Q2) The DNA damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is A)never repaired.
B)repaired during transcription.
C)repaired during translation.
D)cut out and replaced.
E)repaired by DNA replication.
Q3) In the Ames test,any colonies that form on the control plates,in the absence of chemical being tested,should be the result of spontaneous mutations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain why the following statement is false: Sexual reproduction is the only mechanism for genetic change.
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Dna Technology
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Q1) One advantage of a viral vector over a plasmid vector is that the
A)viral vector can accept much larger pieces of DNA.
B)plasmid vector is circular.
C)viral vector can accept a PCR fragment.
D)viral vector can harbor a selection marker.
E)the viral vector can accept larger pieces of DNA and the plasmid vector is circular.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques?
A)frost retardant
B)Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide
C)nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation)
D)glyphosate-resistant crops
E)pectinase
Q3) A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is
A)Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
B)Thermus aquaticus.
C)Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
D)Bacillus thuringiensis.
E)Pseudomonas.
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Chapter 10: Classification of Microorganisms
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is FALSE?
A)They are multicellular.
B)They are composed of eukaryotic cells.
C)They undergo photosynthesis.
D)They ingest nutrients through a mouth.
E)They are heterotrophs.
Q2) Organism A has 70 moles % G+C,and organism B has 40 moles % G+C.Which of the following can be concluded from these data?
A)The two organisms are related.
B)The two organisms are unrelated.
C)The organisms make entirely different enzymes.
D)Their nucleic acids will completely hybridize.
Q3) In Figure 10.1,the closest ancestor for both species "a." and species "b." would be which of the following?
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Chapter 11: The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is FALSE?
A)It is an intracellular parasite.
B)It is transmitted by ticks.
C)It is in the genus Rickettsia.
D)It is gram-negative.
E)It is found in soil and water.
Q2) Explain the rationale for using molecular data for classification,in the place of morphology.
Q3) All of the following bacteria are motile.Which does NOT have flagella?
A)Escherichia
B)Spirillum
C)Pseudomonas
D)spirochetes
E)Salmonella
Q4) Two distinguishing factors of the epsilonproteobacteria that they are motile and microaerophilic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Helminths
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Q1) You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea.What is the MOST likely cause?
A)Cryptosporidium
B)diatoms
C)Entamoeba
D)Giardia
E)Taenia
Q2) Some species of dinoflagellates produce neurotoxins that cause fish kills and red tides.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The head of a tapeworm intestinal parasite is known as the ________.
A)proglottid
B)spicule
C)scolex
D)cysticerci
E)hydatid cyst
Q4) The insect vectors have six legs and include spiders,ticks,mosquitoes,and lice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Viruses,viroids,and Prions
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Q1) Viruses are the only known infectious agents that are obligatory intracellular parasites.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps?
A)attachment
B)penetration
C)uncoating
D)biosynthesis
E)release
Q3) The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called A)transduction.
B)budding.
C)abduction.
D)lysogeny.
E)penetration.
Q4) Glycoprotein spikes are found on the capsids of all viruses. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
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Q1) Reservoirs of infections are always inanimate objects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?
A)prodromal
B)decline
C)convalescence
D)incubation
E)both incubation and convalescence
Q3) Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission
A)occurs when a pathogen is carried on the feet of an insect.
B)involves fomites.
C)involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission.
D)requires direct contact.
E)works only with noncommunicable diseases.
Q4) Would you expect all EIDs to be on the notifiable infectious disease list? Explain.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
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Q1) Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on target cells.If the gangliosides were removed,
A)polypeptide A would bind to target cells.
B)polypeptide A would enter the cells.
C)polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells.
D)Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin.
E)Vibrio would bind to target cells.
Q2) Many pathogens use the same portal for entry and exit from the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which organism in Table 15.2 most easily causes an infection?
A)E)coli O157:H7
B)Legionella pneumophila
C)Shigella
D)Treponema pallidum
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q4) Most symptoms of endotoxins can be treated with administration of anti-endotoxin antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways EXCEPT
A)they produce antibacterial chemicals.
B)they compete with pathogens for nutrients.
C)they make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria.
D)they produce lysozyme.
E)they change the pH of the environment.
Q2) Describe the nonspecific antimicrobial effects of mucus,lysozyme,and acidic pH.For each of these substances,list where they are found in the body and how they function in fighting pathogens.
Q3) All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT A)dilation of blood vessels.
B)release of histamines and prostaglandins.
C)chemotaxis.
D)diapedesis.
E)antibody synthesis.
Q4) The inflammatory response can only be triggered by an infection.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) Describe and differentiate between the three pathways of activating complement.
Chapter 17: Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of
A)innate immunity.
B)naturally acquired active immunity.
C)naturally acquired passive immunity.
D)artificially acquired active immunity.
E)artificially acquired passive immunity.
Q2) In Figure 17.2,which areas are different for all IgM antibodies?
A)a and b
B)a and c
C)b and c
D)c and d
Q3) The specificity of an antibody is due to A)its valence.
B)the H chains.
C)the L chains.
D)the constant portions of the H and L chains.
E)the variable portions of the H and L chains.
Q4) Can natural killer cells successfully perform duties without antibodies? Explain.
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Chapter 18: Practical Applications of Immunology
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Q1) In Figure 18.1,items c and e are different from each other.How are they different?
A)Item c is the enzyme that modifies item e,the substrate.
B)Item e is the enzyme that modifies the substrate,item c.
C)Item c is the substrate acted on by the enzyme in the assay,and item e is the colored end product of that enzymatic reaction.
D)Item e is the substrate acted on by the enzyme in the assay,and item c is the colored end product of that enzymatic reaction.
Q2) In a direct ELISA test to screen for drugs in a patient's urine,what is the third step in the test process?
A)Substrate for the enzyme is added.
B)Enzyme-labeled antibody against the drug being tested is added.
C)The patient's urine sample is diluted.
D)Antibody against the drug being tested is added.
Q3) A positive complement-fixation test is indicated by the lysis of the sheep red blood cells added in the indicator phase of the test.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Disorders Associated With the Immune System
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Q1) Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause A)immunologic enhancement.
B)immunologic surveillance.
C)immunotherapy.
D)immunosuppression.
E)autoimmunity.
Q2) All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT A)asthma.
B)dust allergies.
C)severe reactions to insect venom.
D)pollen allergies.
E)transplant rejections.
Q3) A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with A)tumor-specific antigens.
B)CTLs.
C)CTLs and activated macrophages.
D)activated macrophages.
E)CD T cells.
Q4) Explain the relationship between thymic selection of maturing T cells and self-tolerance.
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) In Table 20.2,the most effective antibiotic tested was A)A.
B)B.
C)C.
D)D.
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q2) Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections.It interferes with microtubule formation;therefore,it would NOT affect A)bacteria.
B)fungi.
C)helminths.
D)human cells.
E)protozoa.
Q3) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections?
A)amphotericin B
B)bacitracin
C)cephalosporin
D)penicillin
E)polymyxin
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Chapter 21: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) List the disease symptoms and virulence factors associated with Pseudomonas infections.Why can Pseudomonas be difficult to control in a hospital environment?
Q2) Acanthamoeba infections are usually transmitted via insects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which disease commonly leads to blindness in parts of the world but can be largely controlled through sanitary practices and health education?
A)Yaws
B)Buruli ulcer
C)Trachoma
D)Acanthomoeba keratitis
E)Herpetic keratitis
Q4) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)chickenpox - poxvirus
B)conjunctivitis - Chlamydia trachomatis
C)keratitis - Acanthamoeba
D)otitis externa - Pseudomonas
E)Buruli ulcer - Mycobacterium
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) All of the following are true of M.leprae EXCEPT
A)it grows best at temperatures below 37°C.
B)it survives ingestion by macrophages.
C)it invades cells of the PNS.
D)it can be cultured in armadillos.
E)it has a very short generation time of approximately twelve hours.
Q2) Which one of the following causes the most severe illness in humans,with a mortality rate of 30 percent?
A)western equine encephalitis
B)eastern equine encephalitis
C)St.Louis encephalitis
D)California encephalitis
E)West Nile encephalitis
Q3) The number of leprosy cases in the United States is around 100 reported cases each year.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is chronic fatigue syndrome,and how is it diagnosed? What are some of the challenges facing clinicians trying to help CFS patients?
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) A 62-year-old man was hospitalized with an eight-day history of fever,chills,sweats,and vomiting.His temperature on admission was 40°C (104°F).A routine peripheral blood smear revealed ring-shaped bodies in the RBCs.What treatment would you prescribe?
A)hyperbaric oxygen
B)mefloquine
C)no treatment
D)penicillin
E)streptomycin
Q2) Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by
A)rat flea.
B)dog flea.
C)the respiratory route.
D)wounds.
E)unsanitary conditions.
Q3) Humans are not the normal hosts for Ixodes and Xenopsylla.How,then,do humans contract Lyme disease and plague?
Q4) Pathogens must be blood-borne in order to initiate sepsis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Inhalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by which one of the following organisms?
A)Blastomyces
B)Coccidioides
C)Mycoplasma
D)Streptococcus
E)Chlamydophila
Q2) Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg" colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract?
A)Chlamydophila
B)Legionella
C)Mycobacterium
D)Mycoplasma
E)Streptococcus
Q3) The best diagnostic method for detection of chlamydial pneumonia is
A)direct brightfield light microscopic examination.
B)PCR detection.
C)biochemical testing of cultured microbes.
D)serological testing of the patient's blood.
E)fluorescent microscopy.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following is mismatched?
A)ergot - gangrene
B)Salmonella endotoxin - lyses red blood cells
C)Vibrio enterotoxin - secretion of Cl ,K ,and H O
D)aflatoxin - liver cancer
E)shiga toxin - tissue destruction
Q2) What is a Dane particle?
A)the chlorine-resistant virus that causes HAV
B)the infectious virion that causes HBV
C)the spherical particles found in serum of patients with HBV
D)the filamentous particles that cause HAV
E)another name for an HBV surface antigen
Q3) Bacterial infections,but not intoxications,can cause diarrhea.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare the modes of transmission for hepatitis A,B,and C.
Q5) Discuss why cholera epidemics are often associated with floods.
Q6) Describe the process of periodontal disease.
Q7) Multiple pathovars of E.coli are well characterized.Identify four different pathogenic strains and discuss the mechanism of disease for each.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The causative agent of chancroid is
A)Treponema pallidum.
B)Haemophilus ducreyi.
C)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D)HSV-2.
E)HPV.
Q2) A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia.Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia;the VDRL test was negative.Which treatment is appropriate?
A)acyclovir
B)metronidazole
C)miconazole
D)penicillin
E)surgery
Q3) Candida is a normal flora fungal microorganism found in the majority (greater than 50%)of women.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Would you expect reported cases of urethritis to be higher than pyelonephritis? Explain.
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Chapter 27: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) In small communities lacking municipal sewage systems,sewage is treated in septic systems or oxidation ponds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The product of which process contains the highest BOD?
A)anaerobic sludge digestion
B)primary sewage treatment
C)secondary sewage treatment
D)tertiary sewage treatment
E)water treatment
Q3) All of the following are used in secondary sewage treatment EXCEPT
A)trickling filters.
B)sludge granules or floc formation.
C)aeration.
D)anaerobic digestion.
E)activated sludge.
Q4) Bioremediation of petroleum
A)takes place under aerobic conditions.
B)takes place under anaerobic conditions.
C)The amount of oxygen does not make any difference.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Which one of the following reactions makes wine less acidic,and is important for good flavor when grapes with higher acidity are used?
A)sugar ethanol
B)ethanol acetic acid
C)malic acid lactic acid
D)carbon dioxide sucrose
E)sugar CO + H O
Q2) Which of the following microorganisms is usually used in the fermentation of alcoholic beverages?
A)Propionobacterium
B)Lactobacillus
C)Rhizopus
D)Saccharomyces
E)Penicillium
Q3) Discuss the production of three different non-food/beverage substances that utilize microorganisms in their production.Your discussion should include the specific microorganisms involved and their role in the production of each substance.
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