Course Introduction
Microbial Biology Exam Solutions
Microbial Biology explores the diverse world of microorganisms, including bacteria, archaea, fungi, protozoa, and viruses. The course examines microbial cell structure and function, genetics, physiology, and metabolism, with an emphasis on how microbes interact with each other and their environments. Students will investigate the roles of microorganisms in health, disease, ecology, biotechnology, and global cycles, as well as current methods used in microbiological research and their applications in solving real-world problems.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 8th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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27 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scientific field called _____ is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms.
Answer: taxonomy
Q2) Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
A)microbes are found on dust particles.
B)a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
C)life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms.
D)a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom.
E)microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.
Answer: B
Q3) Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
A)bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors
B)a microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria
C)humans using yeast to make beer and wine
D)Mycobacteria tuberculosis in the lungs causing tuberculosis
E)public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
Answer: C
Q4) Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed _____. Answer: microorganisms
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents an exchange reaction?
A)AB A + B
B)A + B AB
C)X + Y XYD
D)AB + XY AX + BY
E)None of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) The electrons of an atom are
A)always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom.
B)found in the nucleus.
C)used to determine atomic number.
D)positively charged.
E)moving in pathways called orbitals.
Answer: E
Q3) Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called _____. Answer: ions
Q4) Only charged atoms can form ionic bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen?
A)condenser
B)objective lens
C)ocular lens
D)body
E)nosepiece
Answer: B
Q2) The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is
A)isolation.
B)inoculation.
C)immunization.
D)infection.
E)contamination.
Answer: B
Q3) The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the _____.
Answer: inoculum
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gram-negative bacteria do not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The bacterial chromosome
A)is located in the cell membrane.
B)contains all the cell's plasmids.
C)is part of the nucleoid.
D)forms a single linear strand of DNA.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) In the Gram stain, the mordant is
A)crystal violet.
B)safranin.
C)alcohol.
D)water.
E)iodine.04.13 Summarize how gram-positive and gram-negative cells differ in their reactions.
Q4) Iodine is the decolorizer in the Gram stain.04.13 Summarize how gram-positive and gram-negative cells differ in their reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) On what basis are fungi classified as Fungi Imperfecti, or Deuteromycota?
A)Based on their ability to cause diseases in animals.
B)Based on whether they have a cap containing gills.
C)Based on if the fungus lacks a sexual state.
D)Based on if they have a special fungal sac.
E)Based on if they can grow in acidic soil.
Q2) Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of A)protozoa.
B)algae.
C)helminths.
D)fungi.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following are present in viruses?
A)mitochondria
B)cytoskeleton
C)pigments
D)endoplasmic reticulum
E)none of the above
Q4) Compare and contrast the physical characteristics of protozoans, yeasts, and algae.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than bacterial infections.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they
A)are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane.
B)are gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane.
C)contain special virus proteins.
D)help the virus particle attach to host cells.
E)are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.
Q4) The core of every virus particle always contains
A)DNA.
B)capsomers.
C)enzymes.
D)DNA and RNA.
E)either DNA or RNA.
Q5) Compare and contrast viruses, prions, and viroids.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms depending on each for survival through time is coevoluion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is:
A)iron.
B)zinc.
C)calcium.
D)magnesium.
E)potassium.
Q3) Contractile vacuoles are:
A)used to expel excess water from cells.
B)found in bacterial cells.
C)important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments.
D)protein carriers in cell membranes.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed _____.
9
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the: A)cell membrane.
B)mitochondria.
C)chloroplasts.
D)ribosomes.
E)cytoplasm.
Q2) The redox carriers of the electron transport chain that have a tightly bound metal atom responsible for accepting and donating electrons are the _____.
Q3) When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
A)2 ATP
B)3 ATP
C)24 ATP
D)36 ATP
E)38 ATP
Q4) Describe ATP synthase with regard to: a) its molecular structure, b) its cell location and function, and c) its specific activity in coupling electron transport to ATP production.
Q5) Metabolic pathways that are bidirectional are called _____ pathways.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the interrelationship of DNA, RNA, and proteins in the cell.Explain the specific underlying cellular mechanisms of this relationship.
Q2) If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is
A)GCA.
B)CGT.
C)ACG.
D)CGU.
E)UGC.
Q3) The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in A)bacterial conjugation.
B)transformation.
C)generalized transduction.
D)specialized transduction.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds.
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) VNTRs and microsatellite polymorphisms are genetic markers seen in DNA fingerprinting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are A)used as cloning vectors.
B)sources of heat stable DNA polymerases.
C)genetically engineered bacteria.
D)principal sources of restriction endonucleases.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to:
A)dessication.
B)ultraviolet light.
C)ethyl alcohol.
D)hydrogen peroxide.
E)gamma rays and X rays.
Q2) All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except:
A)it can kill bacterial pathogens on the food.
B)it can kill insects on the food.
C)it can inhibit the sprouting of white potatoes.
D)it can reduce the number of food-borne deaths each year.
E)it makes the food less nutritious.
Q3) The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings and is used increasingly for handscrubbing, neonatal washes, wound degerming, and prepping surgical skin sites is:
A)carbolic acid.
B)chlorhexidine.
C)triclosan.
D)formalin.
E)quarternary ammonium compounds.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Q1) Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called _____.
Q2) Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except A)development of resistance to the drug.
B)hepatotoxicity.
C)nephrotoxicity.
D)diarrhea.
E)deafness.
Q3) A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is A)synercid.
B)penicillinase.
C)aztreonam.
D)clavulanic acid.
E)imipenem.
Q4) Discuss the problems with development of antifungal, antiprotozoan, antihelminth, and antiviral drugs compared to the antibacterial drugs.Discuss at least 3 different modes of action that have been developed for these drugs.
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Q5) Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.
Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common A)genera of resident flora.
B)sexually transmitted diseases.
C)portals of entry.
D)vectors.
E)infections of the fetus and neonate.
Q2) A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is A)epidemic.
B)endemic.
C)pandemic.
D)sporadic.
E)chronic.
Q3) Most of the skin's resident flora is found in the uppermost, superficial layers of the epidermis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following, except
A)redness.
B)warmth.
C)swelling.
D)pain.
E)chills.
Q2) Nonspecific chemical defenses include A)lysozyme.
B)lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat.
C)skin's acidic pH and fatty acids.
D)stomach hydrochloric acid.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Diapedesis is the
A)loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
B)production of only red blood cells.
C)production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.
D)plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
E)migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
Q4) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?
A)Adjuvant
B)Booster
C)Antibodies to toxin
D)Gamma globulin
E)"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
Q2) Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
A)helper T cells
B)suppressor T cells
C)cytotoxic T cells
D)delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E)natural killer (NK) cells
Q3) Which cells direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunities?
A)T-cells
B)B-cells
C)Bacterial cells
D)Viral components
Q4) Each genetically distinct group of lymphocytes that possesses the same specificity is called a _____.
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is mismatched?
A)Ingestant - nuts
B)Inhalant - bee
C)Injectant - vaccine
D)Contactant - rubber
E)Ingestant - food additive
Q3) Which is mismatched?
A)Food allergy - Type I hypersensitivity
B)Poison ivy dermatitis - Type 4 hypersensitivity
C)Serum sickness - Type 3 hypersensitivity
D)Transfusion reaction - Type 2 hypersensitivity
E)Hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity
Q4) A xenograft is a tissue exchange
A)between identical twins.
B)between siblings.
C)from one site on the body to another site.
D)between individuals of different species.
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique used to diagnose a disease is also called the double diffusion method?
A)Ouchterlony
B)VDRL test
C)immunoelectrophoresis
D)Western blot
E)ELISA
Q2) Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test?
A)First antigen and antibody are allowed to react.
B)Purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube.
C)Sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture.
D)Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections, except:
A)detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes.
B)Western blot.
C)cells taken from patient are examined for evidence of viral infection.
D)signs and symptoms.
E)the light microscope.
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Q4) Flowcharts that offer two choices at each identifying level are called ___ keys.
Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci of Medical Importance
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Q1) The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is:
A)enterotoxin.
B)hemolysin.
C)toxic shock syndrome toxin.
D)exfoliative toxin.
E)erythrogenic toxin.
Q2) If left untreated, an infection with ___ can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility.
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)N.meningitidis
C)N.gonorrhoeae
D)Streptotoccus pyogenes
E)Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) Explain what is meant by MRSA, why it is a particular concern to hospitals, and what action hospitals are taking to prevent MRSA spread.
Q4) An individual with asymptomatic N.gonorrhoeae may not spread the disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A)produces several virulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin.
B)has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages.
C)is a spore former.
D)has a capsule.
E)lives in the soil.
Q2) Leprosy is a disease:
A)of lung tissue.
B)that has been eradicated around the world.
C)caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab.
D)can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test.
E)caused by a sporeforming, gram-positive bacillus.
Q3) The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is:
A)capsule.
B)metachromatic granules.
C)exotoxin.
D)endospores.
E)endotoxin.
Q4) Mycobacterium bovis is attenuated and used in the _____ vaccine.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Escherichia coli infections
A)are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.
B)include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains.
C)involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.
D)can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is
A)DtaP.
B)Pneumovax.
C)MMR.
D)Hib.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antimicrobics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Legionellosis is a zoonosis.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
Q5) Describe the characteristics of the Enterobacteriaceae and discuss the difference between the coliforms and noncoliforms in the family.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Chlamydias and rickettsias are unusual bacteria because they do not have cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pathogenesis of rickettsial infections often involves infection of
A)endothelial lining of blood vessels.
B)gastrointestinal lining.
C)dermis of the skin.
D)stomach mucosa.
E)urinary tract.
Q3) Humans are the reservoir for Borrelia hermsii.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is incorrect about Leptospirosis?
A)It can be avoided by not swimming in livestock watering ponds.
B)A vaccine is not available.
C)Its principle targets are the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes.
D)It is a zoonosis.
E)Weil's syndrome occurs during the second phase of the disease.
Q5) Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Blastomyces dermatitidis
A)causes Gilchrist disease and Chicago disease.
B)is transmitted by skin contact with fomites.
C)is a dermatophyte.
D)usually enters through the gastrointestinal tract
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is inhalation of _____.
Q3) Ergotism is caused by
A)ingesting Amanita phalloides, the death-angel mushroom.
B)ingesting aflatoxin.
C)inhaling Stachybotrys spores and toxins.
D)ingesting alkaloids from Claviceps purpurea on rye plants.
E)inhaling Rhizopus spores.
Q4) All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis, except
A)the pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano.
B)fungomas occur in the lungs of those infected
C)it is transmitted by inhalation of arthrospores.
D)it often has symptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise.
E)it is also called Valley Fever.
Q5) Dermatophytes digest the protein _____, found in the skin, hair, and nails.
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which is mismatched?
A)Diphyllobothrium latum - fish
B)Taenia solium - pork
C)Taenia saginata - beef
D)Echinococcus granulosus - poultry
E)Anisakis - fish
Q2) Control of _____ revolves around mosquito control and methods to prevent human-mosquito contact.
Q3) In temperate zones, pinworms are the most common helminth infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a parasitism?
A)Lichens and trees
B)E.coli and human gut
C)Riftia and tube worms
D)Rhizopus and raspberries
E)Fonsecaea pedrosoi and human feet
F)Both D and E
Q5) Eggs and larva are developmental forms of various parasites called _____.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the Dna Viruses
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Q1) Compare and contrast Hepatitis B virus, Hepatitis A virus, and Hepatitis C virus with regard to: a) virus characteristics, b) reservoir, c) transmission, d) incubation, e) symptoms, f) complications, and g) immunization.
Q2) Hepatitis B virus:
A)is principally transmitted by blood.
B)transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse.
C)is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers.
D)has many chronic carriers.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) As of 2000, according to the International Committee on the Taxonomy of Viruses, how are viruses classified?
A)Genetic information only
B)Structure only
C)Chemical composition and structure
D)Genetic information, structure, and chemical composition
E)Genetic information, structure, host, and diseases caused
Q4) Passive artificial immunity to the hepatitis B virus is provided by immunization with
Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) The influenza virus uses _____ spikes to bind to host cells.
Q2) The main route for transmission of HIV in most parts of the world is through:
A)intravenous drug use.
B)homosexual sex.
C)blood transfusion.
D)heterosexual sex.
E)blood products.
Q3) Respiratory syncytial virus and Rotavirus are major causes of global outbreaks in infants 6 months of age, or younger.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis, except:
A)summer outbreaks in the U.S.have been recently increasing
B)transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water
C)can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea
D)if virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed
E)there are effective vaccines to prevent polio
Q5) The MMR vaccination is for immunity to _____, _____, and _____.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The total amount of water in the hydrologic cycle has decreased over millions of years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Potable water is A)contaminated.
B)polluted.
C)safe to drink.
D)foul testing.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) The slowly decaying organic litter from plant and animal tissues that is found in the soil is called _____.
Q4) Carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide are believed to be _____ gases that could disrupt the temperature balance of the earth.
Q5) Organisms that inhabit soil or water and breakdown and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms are called _____.
Q6) A food web is generally simpler to visualize than a food chain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Individualistic potable rural water is routinely chlorinated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nitrates and nitrites are used in cured meats mainly to prevent
A)Staphylococcal enteritis.
B)Shigellosis.
C)Botulism.
D)Botulism
E)Vibrio enteritis
Q3) Which of the following are mismatched?
A)Sulfites - wines
B)Nitrites - bacon
C)Propionic acid - baked goods
D)Propylene oxide gas - dairy
E)Ethylene gas - spices
Q4) Regular refrigeration does not inhibit the growth of __________ microbes that can continue to grow and cause food spoilage.
Q5) Compare and contrast ultra-high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization and regular pasteurization.
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Q6) The fermentation of milk by Streptococcus thermophilus produces ___________.
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