Microbial Biology Exam Bank - 2873 Verified Questions
Microbial Biology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Microbial Biology explores the fundamental characteristics, physiology, diversity, and ecological roles of microorganisms including bacteria, archaea, fungi, protists, and viruses. The course emphasizes the molecular and cellular biology of microbes, their evolutionary relationships, and interactions with humans, animals, and the environment. Students will develop an understanding of microbial genetics, metabolism, and biotechnology applications, as well as current issues such as antibiotic resistance, pathogenesis, and the impact of microbes on global cycles. Laboratory and analytical techniques for studying microbial structure and function are also introduced to provide hands-on experience in microbial investigation.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 3rd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these groups are considered to be microbes but NOT considered to be cells?
A) viruses
B) bacteria
C) archaea
D) protists
E) filamentous fungi
Answer: A
Q2) In the three-domain model, the bacterial ancestor of chloroplasts derives from ancient:
A) fungi
B) cyanobacteria
C) proteobacteria
D) archaea
E) protists
Answer: B
Q3) Robert Koch's postulates have not been used to prove HIV as the causative agent of AIDS. Why not?
Answer: Answers may vary, but a major reason is that humans cannot be injected with HIV to see if they develop AIDS!
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) Which of the following techniques are based upon wave interference?
A) X-ray diffraction and phase contrast microscopy
B) phase contrast and dark-field microscopy
C) bright-field and dark-field microscopy
D) X-ray diffraction and atomic force microscopy
E) scanning and transmission electron microscopy
Answer: A
Q2) Which of these series arranges microbes from smallest to largest?
A) virus \(\rarr\) bacterium \(\rarr\) red blood cell \(\rarr\) paramecium
B) virus \(\rarr\) red blood cell \(\rarr\)bacterium \(\rarr\) paramecium
C) bacterium \(\rarr\) virus \(\rarr\) paramecium \(\rarr\) red blood cell
D) bacterium \(\rarr\) virus \(\rarr\) red blood cell \(\rarr\) paramecium
E) paramecium \(\rarr\) red blood cell \(\rarr\) bacterium \(\rarr\) virus
Answer: A
Q3) Are all bacilli Bacillus? Explain.
Answer: No. Bacillus refers to a particular genus of organisms that are commonly found in the soil. Although they are rod-shaped, the members of this genus are not the only bacteria that have this cellular morphology. The term bacillus refers to any rod-shaped microbe, which means that not all bacilli belong to the genus Bacillus.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transport __________ mediate both active and passive transport.
A) polysaccharides
B) proteins
C) lipids
D) hopanoids
E) sterols
Answer: B
Q2) What are some of the limitations of X-ray crystallography?
Answer: Crystallographic analysis can only be used for isolated particles, and the particles' function can't be fully observed. It can only be used for molecules capable of being crystallized, but is not useful for analysis of soluble proteins or proteins that are flexible.
Q3) Profiles of which component of the membrane may be used to identify certain kinds of pathogens?
A) lipoproteins
B) proteins
C) fatty acids
D) polysaccharides
E) leaflets
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Growth of most microorganisms occurs by:
A) budding
B) binary fission
C) replication
D) conjugation
E) transformation
Q2) In which case would the shortest lag period most likely be observed?
A) transfer from complex medium to fresh complex medium
B) transfer from complex medium to minimal medium
C) transfer to a lower temperature
D) transfer to a different pH
E) transfer to a different salt concentration
Q3) When studying the metabolism of an organism, why is it better to grow organisms in a defined synthetic medium instead of a complex medium?
Q4) A problem with __________ of cell number is that dead cells also scatter light.
A) direct microscopic counts
B) viable counts
C) spread plate counts
D) pour plate counts
E) optical density measurements
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) Describe three mechanisms organisms use to reduce osmotic stress.
Q2) At the bottom of the ocean, hydrostatic pressure averages a crushing 400 atm (atmospheres) and can go as high as:
A) 700 atm
B) 1,000 atm
C) 1,500 atm
D) 3,000 atm
E) 3,500 atm
Q3) The use of oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor is called:
A) aerobic respiration
B) anaerobic respiration
C) fermentation
D) oxygenic photosynthesis
E) carbon dioxide fixation
Q4) A virus that kills bacteria is called a:
A) bacteriophage
B) viroid
C) spore
D) probiotic
E) porin
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) __________ can be counted as representing individual infectious virions from a phage suspension.
A) Plaques
B) Viruses
C) Genomes
D) Proteomes
E) Burst size
Q2) The primary factor determining the life cycle of an animal virus is the physical form of the:
A) envelope
B) capsid
C) genome
D) receptor
E) burst
Q3) Why are viruses not affected by antibiotics? Why are there so few antiviral drugs?
Q4) Why was the advent of tissue culture heralded as the end of the "monkey era"? What types of things are we able to do with it?
Q5) Discuss the role that marine viruses play in carbon balance.
Q6) How does genome uncoating occur with animal viruses?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What determines when DNA replication begins?
Q2) __________ is an enzyme that may have evolved from ancient progenitor cells with an RNA genome. It functions as a __________.
A) Primase; helicase
B) Primase; reverse transcriptase
C) Telomerase; helicase
D) Telomerase; reverse transcriptase
E) Telomerase; methylator and acetylator
Q3) In the early days of cloning, DNA was __________ into E. coli and then could be transferred to another organism using a __________.
A) conjugated; contig
B) conjugated; shuttle vector
C) transformed; shuttle vector
D) transformed; contig
E) transformed; polymerase chain reaction
Q4) Differentiate between topoisomerase type I and topoisomerase type II. What is the role they play in bacterial chromosome structure?
Q5) How can plasmids ensure that they are passed on from one generation to the next?
Q6) Describe three functions of DNA polymerase III.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Peptidyl transferase is present in the __________ ribosomal subunit.
A) 30S
B) 50S
C) 5S
D) 16S
E) 80S
Q2) What are the functions of the different types of RNA molecules?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a heat-shock protein?
A) trigger factor
B) GroES
C) GroEL
D) Clp protease
E) DnaK
Q4) Which of the following are required for the termination of translation?
A) sRNAs
B) degrons
C) TolC proteins
D) release factors
E) ubiquitins
Q5) How does mRNA compare to the template and nontemplate DNA strand?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) Name two traits that have been genetically engineered into plants. How were genes for these activities incorporated into the plant genome? Why is this method more advantageous than typical plant breeding?
Q2) Site-specific recombination is RecA independent and requires very short regions of homology between donor and target DNA. Describe an example in either E. coli or Salmonella.
Q3) Agrobacterium can transfer DNA to __________ using its __________.
A) E. coli; LINES
B) E. coli; Ti plasmid
C) plants; LINES
D) plants; Ti plasmid
E) plants; opines
Q4) Newly replicated, and consequently __________, DNA sequences are invisible to a restriction enzyme.
A) mutated
B) restricted
C) modified
D) hemimethylated
E) single-stranded
Q5) What is transcription-coupled repair and why is it important for the cell?
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) In some, but not all, instances, __________ molecules bind RNA transcripts and help or hinder degradation.
A) tsRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) sRNA
E) mRNA
Q2) Explain how a repressor protein works with respect to a biosynthetic operon.
Q3) Finding an inverted repeated sequence within 100-200 bases of a promoter suggests the presence of a __________ binding site.
A) DNA
B) transcriptional regulator
C) RNA
D) ribosome
E) corepressor
Q4) Briefly explain the two-dimensional gels electrophoresis. What is the procedure used to determine, and why are both dimensions necessary?
Q5) Explain how small, untranslated RNAs (sRNAs) regulate iron uptake and iron storage.
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) AZT, a component in the drug mixture given to AIDS patients, is an inhibitor of:
A) exit of endocytosed viruses
B) endocytosis
C) viral assembly
D) reverse transcriptase
E) neuraminidase
Q2) The double-stranded DNA copy of HIV:
A) enters the nucleus from the cytoplasm
B) is synthesized in the nucleus
C) encodes an integrase prior to integration
D) contains hydroxymethylcytosine
E) has RNase activity
Q3) The influenza reassortment process is enhanced by a particular feature of the virus, namely the __________ genome.
A) linear
B) circular
C) double-stranded
D) single-stranded
E) segmented
Q4) What is meant by early and late genes of phage T4? What do they encode?
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Chapter 12: Bio-techniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) Which of the following best describes a "buffer gate" in synthetic biology?
A) A single repressor molecule (R<sub>1</sub>) prevents the production of an output molecule (Pr<sub>1</sub>).
B) Alternate input molecules (I<sub>1</sub> or I<sub>2</sub>) drive the production of alternative proteins (Pr<sub>n</sub>).
C) A single input inducer molecule (I<sub>1</sub>) leads to the production of a single product (Pr<sub>1</sub>).
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q2) Potential vaccine antigens made by transgenic plants include:
A) hepatitis B surface antigen
B) E. coli heat-labile enterotoxin B subunit
C) rabies virus
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Discuss possible disadvantages of the yeast two-hybrid system.
Q4) What is the principle of the electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)? What is its main application? Mention a possible limitation.
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) In an amphibolic pathway, some enzymes:
A) work only in the biosynthetic direction
B) work only in the catabolic direction
C) work in both directions
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) The laws of thermodynamics indicate that systems tend to become less ordered and that __________, a measure of disorder or randomness of the universe, always increases.
A) entropy
B) enthalpy
C) Gibbs free energy
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) What technique can be utilized to identify the degradation products of the polyaromatic hydrocarbons contained in creosote from railroad ties?
Q4) What are the differences among \(\Delta\)G, \(\Delta\)G°, and \(\Delta\)G°'?
Q5) How does the efficiency of energy capture by ATP formation in bacterial tricarboxylic acid cycle compare with that of mitochondria?
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) Some pathogenic bacteria use __________ to expel antibiotics from the cell.
A) proton-driven efflux pumps
B) sugar or amino acid inward carriers
C) heme cofactors
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) In oxygenic photosynthesis, __________ is the electron donor, whereas in anaerobic photosynthesis it can be succinate or __________.
A) H<sub>2</sub>S; S<sup>0</sup>
B) O<sub>2;</sub> H<sub>2</sub>
C) O<sub>2;</sub> H<sub>2</sub>O
D) H<sub>2</sub>O; H<sub>2</sub>S
E) all of the above
Q3) In Gram-negative bacteria, the ETS is embedded in the:
A) inner membrane
B) cell wall
C) periplasm
D) outer membrane
E) none of the above
Q4) Why do electron transport systems have to occur within a membrane?
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) What are polyalkanoates and what are bacterially produced polyalkanoates used for? Why are they of ecological and medical interest?
Q2) How does the reductive (reverse) TCA cycle participate in carbon fixation?
A) Some of the TCA reactions occur in reverse, assimilating small amounts of CO<sub>2</sub>.
B) CO<sub>2</sub> assimilation replenishes TCA intermediates for anabolic pathways.
C) Reverse TCA regenerates acetyl-CoA, which may enter gluconeogenesis via pyruvate.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q3) The alternate origin of pyrrole rings in purple bacteria consists of:
A) the condensation of glycine and succinyl-CoA to produce 5-aminolevulinic acid
B) reduction of glutamate (in tRNA-glutamate), which is rearranged to 5-aminolevulinic acid
C) an unknown reaction
D) demetalation of coenzyme B<sub>12</sub>
E) none of the above
Q4) Briefly describe the biosynthetic pathway for arginine.
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Leavening of commercial bread dough is brought about by:
A) CO<sub>2</sub> from injera fermentation
B) CO<sub>2</sub> from ethanolic fermentation of lactic acid bacteria
C) CO<sub>2</sub> from aerobic metabolism of yeasts
D) CO<sub>2</sub> from ethanolic fermentation by Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E) CO<sub>2</sub> from Candida
Q2) Briefly describe the cheese-making process. Why do different cheeses have different flavors?
Q3) Describe some of the characteristics that industrial strains of microbes must possess.
Q4) In beer making, germination of barley followed by its enzymatic activity produces the __________ used for fermentation.
A) ethanol
B) maltose
C) malic acid
D) lactic acid
E) 2-oxo acids
Q5) Why is it better nutritionally to ferment soybeans than to consume them without fermenting?
Page 18
Q6) Describe several physical means of food preservation.
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) The elements that formed initial microbial life originated from:
A) oceans
B) lightning
C) supernovas
D) the sun
E) ozone
Q2) Oparin, in the former Soviet Union, and Miller and Urey, in England, performed some of the first experiments to prove:
A) organic macromolecules can arise from abiotic conditions
B) micelle formation generated the first membranes
C) RNA was the catalytic molecule of early Earth
D) TCA cycle generates amino acids
E) iron band formations were caused by photoferrotrophy
Q3) What criteria need to be met in order to prove that two bacterial strains belong in the same species?
Q4) How do membrane compartments spontaneously arise from the properties of fatty acid glycerol esters?
Q5) In the "RNA world," how could RNA molecules form spontaneously and how did that formation give rise to the protein enzymes of today?
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa may form __________ in the lungs of cystic fibrosis patients.
A) sarcinae
B) filaments
C) biofilms
D) cysts
E) capsule
Q2) Describe the metabolic characteristics of Chlorobium species.
Q3) In what habitats can Verrucomicrobia be found?
A) aquatic, low-salt environments
B) terrestrial environments
C) the gastrointestinal tract of mammals
D) ectosymbionts of protists
E) all of the above
Q4) How do "purple sulfur bacteria" and "purple nonsulfur bacteria" differ in their metabolism? Are they really purple?
Q5) Consider the cell wall of Mycobacterium species. What are the advantages and disadvantages of such a complex structure?
Q6) How could nitrifiers be utilized in treatment of wastewater?
Q7) What is photoheterotrophy? Provide two examples.
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Which archaea has/have retinal-associated, light-driven membrane pumps for H<sup>+</sup> or Na<sup>+</sup>?
A) all archaea
B) hyperthermophilic Crenarchaeota
C) Methanobacteriales
D) Haloarchaea
E) Sulfolobales
Q2) Which of the following Crenarchaeota grows as disks linked by cannulae?
A) Aeropyrum pernix
B) Desulfurococcus mobilis
C) Ignicoccus islandicus
D) Thermosphaera aggregans
E) Pyrodictium brockii
Q3) Which of the following species is aerobic?
A) Aeropyrum
B) Thermococci
C) Thermosphera
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) Why are extremophiles important to industry?
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) The term "mycology" would best be applied to which organism(s) listed below?
A) stromatolites
B) protozoa
C) cyanobacteria
D) slime molds
E) baker's yeast
Q2) A major group of marine phytoplankton that is essential to the marine food chain includes:
A) microsporidia
B) dinoflagellates
C) apicomplexan
D) metamonads
E) yeasts
Q3) The Rhodophyta algae Porphyra is known to colonize aquatic environments deeper than the Chlorophyta algae Spirogyra; why is this and what advantages does Porphyra have by claiming this niche?
Q4) Compare and contrast the life cycles of the Chytridiomycota clade of fungi with the Zygomycota clade.
Q5) Compare and contrast the two major groups of shelled amebas: radiolarians and foraminiferans.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) All planktonic microbes are:
A) motile
B) smaller than 200 \(\mu\)m in size
C) prokaryotes
D) primary producers
E) unicellular
Q2) Lithotrophic bacteria found in between crystals of solid bedrock as deep as 3 km below Earth's surface are specifically called:
A) endophytes
B) symbionts
C) endoliths
D) decomposers
E) saprophytes
Q3) What is coral bleaching? What is its possible cause?
Q4) What does it mean when one says that a particular fluorescent dye intercalates into DNA? Provide an example of how epifluorescence has been used.
Q5) Why is it important to restrict the protein content of cattle feed?
Q6) Explain how the benthic interface between the ocean floor and water can act as a charged battery to generate electricity.
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Which of the following major elements has the highest number of oxidation states?
A) nitrogen
B) carbon
C) hydrogen
D) sulfur
E) oxygen
Q2) Oil spills introduce huge amounts of carbon in the environment. Which of the following techniques is used to quantify carbon influx and efflux of CO<sub>2</sub>?
A) gas chromatography
B) mass spectroscopy
C) radioisotope incorporation
D) stable isotope ratios
E) none of the above
Q3) Astrobiology is the study of life in the universe. Why might our rDNA probes NOT be appropriate to detect extraterrestrial life?
Q4) Discuss the concept of iron fertilization to remove excess CO<sub>2</sub> from the atmosphere. Who is the well-known musician supporting this research?
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) A man has been taking excessive amounts of antacids for heartburn. These tablets are very alkaline. Which innate defense mechanism might be altered by his actions?
A) mucociliary elevator
B) lysozyme
C) pH of stomach
D) flushing action of urine
E) skin pH
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a semispecific, innate immune mechanism associated with mucosal surfaces?
A) secretory IgA prevents adhesion to mucosal surface
B) extravasation of neutrophils is triggered by specific signals
C) interferons produced by host will act on specific viruses in the mucosa
D) Toll-like receptors on host bind a specific microbe-associated molecular pattern, or MAMP
E) the type of inflammation mounted varies with pathogen
Q3) How does eating sugar cause dental caries and cavities?
Q4) Describe antibody-induced opsonization, the process in which innate and adaptive immunity work together to engulf an invader.
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) During the course of an intestinal infection with Salmonella enteritidis, the B cells undergo class switching. What switching is most likely to occur, and what causes the switch?
A) IgD to IgE; B-cell cytokines
B) IgM to IgA; T-cell cytokines
C) IgG to IgM; B-cell cytokines
D) IgA to IgG; T-cell cytokines
E) IgD to IgM; T-cell cytokines
Q2) Staphylococcal exfoliative toxin (exfoliatin A) reacts in the human body as a superantigen. Intoxication with this means:
A) polyclonal T-cell stimulation by overriding the normal route of antigen presentation
B) monoclonal B-cell stimulation without T-cell signaling
C) direct overactivation of T<sub>H</sub>1 cells, causing a T<sub>C</sub> cell response only
D) dramatic down-regulation in genes that control all cells producing pro-inflammatory cytokines
E) decreased antigen presentation by the antigen-presenting cells, followed by autoantibody formation
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) The likely mode of transmission of a bacterial disease in which incidence increases with a prolonged warm summer is:
A) direct transmission
B) airborne transmission
C) insect vector transmission
D) common source fomite
E) sexual transmission
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an intracellular bacterial pathogen?
A) HIV
B) Streptococcus mutans
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Bacillus anthracis
Q3) Which of the following would be an example of vertical transmission of infectious agents?
A) Staphylococcus spp. gaining antibiotic resistance genes through conjugation
B) HIV passing from mother to child in utero
C) an infectious ameba obtained from a water sample
D) influenza being passed by a sneeze
E) hepatitis being transmitted by an infected needle stick
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) A 15-year-old female was said to have Koplik's spots after a doctor's examination. This suggests that:
A) she has measles caused by the rubeola virus
B) no antibiotic is useful because it's a mixed infection
C) she has a toxin-encoding phage which also encodes antibiotic degrading enzymes
D) the causative agent is a MRSA
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue has limited access to the antibiotic
Q2) Which of the following is caused by a fungus?
A) folliculitis
B) trichomoniasis
C) blastomycosis
D) listeriosis
E) Lyme disease
Q3) Thrombocytopenia is a decreased number of:
A) red blood cells
B) natural killer cells
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) phagocytes
E) platelets
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) In the 1930s, Gerhard Domagk injected his own daughter with a red dye in hopes of curing her invasive streptococcal infection, even though testing of this agent on agar plates growing Streptococcus sp. showed no antimicrobial effect. Why did he do this, and what did this study show the importance of?
Q2) Chemical synthesis of a new drug with a 15-member lactone ring structure would be predicted to be most similar to which antibiotic class and action?
A) gramicidin; membrane inhibitor
B) nalidixic acid; DNA inhibitor
C) actinomycin D; RNA synthesis inhibitor
D) tetracyclines; 30S inhibitor
E) macrolides; 50S inhibitor
Q3) A bacteria has evolved a new enzyme that can cleave a beta-lactam ring structure. It would NOT be treatable by which class of drugs?
A) aminoglycosides
B) ampicillin
C) tetracycline
D) bacitracin
E) quinolones
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) Penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae (PPNG) experienced a significant increase in the United States during the 1970s because of the:
A) start of the HIV epidemic and IV drug use
B) feminist movement and increased sexual activity
C) overuse of antibiotics during and after the Vietnam War
D) doctors overprescribing quinolones for malaria
E) concurrent swine flu epidemic in the mid-1970s
Q2) Compare and contrast the epidemiological terms endemic, epidemic, and pandemic. Give an example of each to support your answer.
Q3) In determining the bacterial etiology of a patient with an infection, the first laboratory test should be what, and why? What type of testing would then follow?
Q4) A disease geographically spread by the movement of migrating birds is:
A) hantavirus
B) Ebola
C) Lyme
D) West Nile
E) influenza
Q5) How would a serum antibody ELISA work in the detection of Lyme disease?
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Chapter 29: What Do Winning Organizations Do Well
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Q1) In order to successfully implement the marketing strategy, the organization must develop
A) sales training programs.
B) a customer database.
C) an advertising strategy.
D) functional plans.
E) a media strategy.
Q2) The very first step in the marketing process is
A) creating customer value.
B) reviewing customer segments.
C) developing a marketing communications strategy.
D) managing customer value.
E) understanding customer needs.
Q3) In the marketing mix, "place" and "channel strategy" are one and the same.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List three typical problems faced by non-profit organizations that marketing can solve.
Q5) List three typical problems faced by for-profit organizations that marketing can solve.
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Chapter 30: Understanding Customer Needs
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Q1) The medium that allows smart companies to involve the consumer in the innovation process is
A) television.
B) radio.
C) the internet.
D) newspapers.
E) magazines.
Q2) A data collection method where the moderator engages one respondent in a conversation for at least 60 minutes is referred to as
A) a depth interview.
B) a focus group.
C) an online survey.
D) a telephone survey.
E) an in-store survey.
Q3) Participant observation is a process where the researcher actively participates with the customer to gain insights that other techniques may not be able to generate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the three classes of questions that all questionnaires contain?
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Chapter 31: Choosing Which Customers to Serve
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Q1) Define the term "mass marketing" and provide an example.
Q2) Segmentation should be based on
A) demographic and geographic variables.
B) competitors' segmentation models.
C) customer needs and customer attractiveness.
D) psychographic variables only.
E) easy-to-access data.
Q3) Dell's pioneering the direct-to-customer model of selling computers is a good example of
A) over-segmenting.
B) segmenting by product, not market.
C) a complex segmentation approach.
D) investing in emerging segments.
E) segmenting differently from competitors.
Q4) When selecting target markets, it is important to balance revenue potential with A) market research.
B) the cost to serve the segment.
C) geographic variables.
D) demographic variables.
E) psychographic variables.
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Chapter 32: Developing a Strong Marketing Plan
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Q1) Marketing strategists must consider cross-functional implications of marketing strategies if they are to be successful.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What information should be contained in the competitor analysis?
Q3) Without a marketing plan, a business
A) lacks focus.
B) delivers customer value.
C) segments the market.
D) prioritizes key issues.
E) relies on personal selling.
Q4) The section of the marketing plan that contains all the backup material is the A) market analysis.
B) customer analysis.
C) appendix.
D) marketing plan budget.
E) marketing plan control.
Q5) Why does the textbook author, Ajay Sirsi, think an OTSW analysis should be used instead of a SWOT analysis?
Page 34
Q6) What are the characteristics of a good executive summary?
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Chapter 33: Product and Brand Strategies
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Q1) Arbol Industries was successful in differentiating its offering and building a brand because it focused on its core product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Brand equity is measured on two dimensions: brand awareness and brand associations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The customer orders, short production runs, and on-site advice that D-Base Transformers Inc. can offer high-end audio equipment manufacturers is
A) the potential product.
B) the functional product.
C) the core product.
D) the augmented product.
E) its products' attributes.
Q4) Too many similar brands confuse customers and erode brand loyalty.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using Starbucks as an example, explain the four levels of a product.
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Chapter 34: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) Price is just one component of a customer's total cost of "owning" a product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If even one of the elements of the marketing mix is at odds with the others, the end result is customer confusion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Provide an example of how a company might attempt to reduce the total cost of ownership to make its products more attractive to customers.
Q4) It is important that a firm calculates _____________, where it neither makes a profit nor a loss but recovers its total costs.
A) its average costs
B) its break-even point
C) its transaction costs
D) its shipping costs
E) its incremental costs
Q5) List the three main reasons why price is a key marketing decision.
Q6) Explain the success of Cirque du Soleil's pricing strategy.
Q7) What does the author mean by a "seat-of-the-pants" approach to pricing?
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Channel Strategies
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Q1) Channel strategies can help a business focus on the potential product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Saturn made channel members its partners to offer excellent after-sales service, resulting in increased A) sales.
B) media coverage.
C) public relations.
D) brand awareness.
E) customer loyalty.
Q3) Channel strategies can help a business to focus on A) innovation.
B) costs.
C) return on investment.
D) the core product.
E) the potential product.
Q4) Explain how a company can successfully migrate customers to the right (preferred) channel?
Q5) What is the customer purchase process?
Q6) Why is it important to base channel decisions on customers' needs?
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Marketing Communications Strategies
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Q1) The first step in developing winning marketing communications is to
A) allocate resources.
B) integrate different communications methods.
C) measure market impact.
D) select communications objectives.
E) conduct market research.
Q2) Public relations is used to
A) encourage product trial.
B) generate revenue.
C) generate new customer leads.
D) build positive brand associations.
E) build customer relationships.
Q3) A company's sales force is an excellent communication tool to break down customer resistance and get customers to try the brand.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe three of the guiding principles of integrated marketing communications.
Q5) Customer input is not an important factor when designing a trade show booth. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Delivering Customer Value
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Q1) All customers go through a predictable sales cycle called A) brand association.
B) brand awareness.
C) product knowledge.
D) product trial.
E) a buying funnel.
Q2) The marketing and sales function should jointly
A) create the marketing plan.
B) conduct sales reviews.
C) develop sales plans.
D) perform market segmentation.
E) manage the brand.
Q3) When lacking clear direction from the marketing function, the sales function may take matters into its own hands, resulting in
A) declining sales.
B) a grassroots marketing approach.
C) lower pocket prices.
D) inconsistent advertising.
E) changes to the marketing plan.
Q4) What happens when marketing and sales are not aligned?
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Chapter 38: Building a Customer-Focused Business
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Q1) How did Greystone Property Management successfully realign its organization to focus on the customer?
Q2) Marketers that devote at least 50% of their time to advanced, customer-centric marketing processes and capabilities will achieve marketing return on investment (ROI) that is at least ____ greater than that of their peers, who lack such emphasis.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
E) 50%
Q3) Customer focus is diametrically opposite to A) service focus.
B) research focus.
C) product focus.
D) CRM focus.
E) technology focus.
Q4) Customer focus is diametrically opposite to product focus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Customer Attraction, Satisfaction, and Retention Strategies
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Q1) On a customer satisfaction survey, customers who give you a score of 5 (very satisfied) are ____ times more likely to repurchase from you compared to customers who give you a score of 4 (satisfied)
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Q2) By creating the role of a customer quarterback (an employee who greets customers when the store is busy, assesses their shopping needs, and then instructs other employees), ACE Hardware has successfully
A) increased product sales.
B) downsized the number of employees.
C) focused customer attention on specific brands.
D) converted mission shoppers to competitive loyals.
E) improved customer satisfaction.
Q3) Satisfied customers spend more, and this creates shareholder value.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the four steps in developing customer loyalty.
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Chapter 40: Building the Marketing Organization of the Future
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Q1) Percentage of win rate is part of the information search metric.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first key metric in demonstrating ROI is
A) purchase consideration.
B) purchase intent.
C) problem recognition.
D) information search.
E) repeat purchase decision.
Q3) In marketing-led firms, marketing works hand in hand with the CEO to establish the company's strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The explosion of media channels has had a huge impact on the discipline of marketing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Percentage of brand awareness is part of the problem recognition metric.
A)True
B)False
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