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Metabolic Pathways

Chapter Exam Questions

Course Introduction

This course explores the complex network of biochemical reactions that constitute metabolic pathways in living organisms, focusing on the synthesis and breakdown of carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids. Students will study the regulation and integration of these pathways, emphasizing the role of enzymes, coenzymes, and cellular compartmentalization. Key topics include glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, photosynthesis, and various anabolic and catabolic routes. The course also examines the physiological significance of metabolic pathways in health and disease, highlighting their relevance to energy production, biosynthesis, and cellular homeostasis.

Recommended Textbook

Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews

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Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry

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Q1) The synthesis of which molecule is considered by many to be the root of biochemistry since it was the first synthesis of a biological molecule from non-biological precursors?

A)DNA

B)urea

C)glucose

D)glycine

E)adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Answer: B

Q2) Of Koshland's "pillars of life," which deals specifically with the structure and function of DNA?

A)program

B)compartmentation

C)energy

D)regeneration

E)adaptability

Answer: A

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Page 3

Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment

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Q1) Glutamic acid contains two carboxylic acid groups (pKa values of 2.2 and 4.2)and an amine group (pKa 9.7).What is the pI for glutamic acid?

A)3.2

B)6.0

C)6.5

D)7.0

E)none of the above

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following acids or bases is least likely to be encountered in a biochemical setting?

A)nitric acid

B)acetic acid

C)ammonia

D)citric acid

E)phosphoric acid

Answer: A

Q3) Imidazole is a commonly used buffer in biochemistry labs.With a pKa of 7.0,what would be the ratio of base to acid at pH 7.4?

Answer: 2.5 11ea8a11_436e_4b29_8b44_234f570e4c48_TB4872_00

Page 4

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Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life

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Q1) If acetyl phosphate is made from the combination of ATP and acetate,what is the \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0'? How would this reaction proceed within a typical cell?

acetyl phosphate + H2O \(\to\) acetate + Pi + H+

\(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0'= -43.1 kJ/mol

ATP + H2O \(\to\) ADP + Pi + H+

\(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = -30.5 kJ/mol

Answer: \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = +12.6 kJ/mol.If this reaction were to occur within a typical cell,the \(\Delta\)G for ATP hydrolysis is considerably more exergonic and is thus able to supply the necessary energy for the phosphorylation of acetate.

Q2) Which of the following conditions will produce a non-spontaneous reaction?

A)positive \(\Delta\)H,positive \(\Delta\)S,low temperature

B)negative \(\Delta\)H,positive \(\Delta\)S,high temperature

C)negative \(\Delta\)H,negative \(\Delta\)S,low temperature

D)negative \(\Delta\)H,positive \(\Delta\)S,high temperature.

E)positive \(\Delta\)H,positive \(\Delta\)S,high temperature

Answer: A

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids

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Q1) Which of the following secondary structures is correctly identified?

A)Z-DNA: left-handed DNA with pyrimidines in the syn conformation and purines in the anti conformation

B)hairpin structure: self-complimentary single stranded molecules that form a parallel helix

C)cruciform: a double hairpin formed in a region of palindromic DNA

D)H-DNA: triple helical structure that results when Watson-Crick base pairing does not form and instead,Hoogsteen base pairing occurs

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following is a major difference between B-DNA and A-DNA?

A)B-DNA has a right-handed helix,A-DNA has a left-handed helix

B)B-DNA has 10 residues per helix turn while A-DNA has 9

C)B-DNA base pairs are stacked almost parallel to one another while A-DNA base pairs are significantly tilted with respect to each other

D)the major groove of A-DNA is much larger than that in B-DNA

E)none of the above

Q3) Draw the structure of cytosine and thymine,then show the most common tautomer of each.

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Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of

Protein Structure

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Q1) What is the pI for the following peptide: Ala-Glu-Val-Asp-Lys-Leu

Q2) A peptide was treated with protease enzymes and cyanogen bromide followed by complete hydrolysis of the resulting products.Based upon the following data,determine the sequence of the original peptide.

Chymotrypsin gave two peptides containing the following amino acids: Leu,Pro

Asp,Gln,Arg,Met,Tyr,Val

Cyanogen bromide gave two peptides containing the following amino acids: Asp,Met

Gln,Leu,Arg,Tyr,Pro,Val

Trypsin gave two peptides containing the following amino acids: Gln,Leu,Tyr,Pro

Asp,Arg,Met,Val

Q3) Draw each of the structures of aspartic acid that predominate at pH 1,3,7,and 11.

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Page 7

Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins

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Q1) Which of the following is considered a dead-end complex (and therefore dangerous due to its resistance to proteolytic cleavage)in the protein-folding pathway?

A)disordered aggregate

B)molten globule state

C)prefibrillar species

D)amyloid fibril

E)unfolded protein

Q2) A protein with five disulfide bonds was treated with \(\beta\)-mercaptoethanol and urea.Once the protein was denatured,the \(\beta\)-mercaptoethanol and urea were removed by dialysis.What is the likelihood that all five disulfide bonds will reform correctly?

A)1/5 or 20%

B)1/10 or 10%

C)1/102 or 4%

D)1/5! = 1/120 or 0.83%

E)1/945 or 0.11%

Q3) Draw a section of antiparallel \(\beta\)-sheet showing two sheets with three residues in each sheet.Clearly show the hydrogen bond pattern between the two sheets.

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Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution

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Q1) Which of the following is responsible for the immense diversity of antibodies?

A)recombination of introns

B)recombination of exons

C)variable domain recombination

D)epitope recombination

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following methods could be used to produce a Fab fragment from an IgG?

A)treatment with reducing agent,isolation of the light chain,removal of reducing agent

B)treatment with reducing agent,isolation of the heavy chain,removal of reducing agent

C)treatment with papain,separation of the Fab fragment from the rest of the heavy chain

D)treatment with papain,separation of the Fab fragment from the rest of the light chain

E)none of the above

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Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors

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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the organization that gives rise to muscle?

A)myofibril \(\to\)sarcomere \(\to\)myofiber \(\to\) muscle

B)sarcomere \(\to\) myofiber \(\to\) myofibril \(\to\) muscle

C)myofibril \(\to\) myofiber \(\to\) sarcomere \(\to\) muscle

D)sarcomere \(\to\) myofibril \(\to\) myofiber \(\to\) muscle

E)myofiber \(\to\) myofibril \(\to\) sarcomere \(\to\) muscle

Q2) Microtubules are made from which of the following proteins?

A)actin

B)myosin

C)tubulin

D)cytoplasmic dynein

E)kinesin

Q3) Which portion of the myosin protein found in muscle is responsible for both ATP and actin binding?

A)heavy-chain coiled-coiled tails

B)heavy-chain stalk

C)heavy-chain globular head

D)essential light chain

E)regulatory light chain

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars,saccharides,glycans

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Q1) Draw a \(\beta\)-disaccharide composed of glucose linked to its C-2 epimer by an \(\alpha\)(1\(\to\)4)glycosidic bond with the anomeric carbon of glucose contributing to the glycosidic bond.

Q2) Of the following phosphate esters of monosaccharides,which has the most spontaneous \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0´ of hydrolysis?

A)\(\alpha\)-D-glucose-6-phosphate

B)\(\beta\)-D-glucose-6-phosphate

C)\(\beta\)-D-glucose-1-phosphate

D)\(\alpha\)-D-fructose-6-phosphate

E)D-glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

Q3) Show the interaction that would take place between the R-group of asparagine in a protein and the substituent on C-2 of an N-acetylglucosamine residue of a glycan.

Q4) What is the C-4 epimer of glucose?

A)allose

B)mannose

C)gulose

D)galactose

E)fructose

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Chapter 10: Lipids,membranes and Cellular Transport

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Q1) Draw a molecule of phosphatidylserine with palmitic acid (16:0)and oleic acid (18:1c\(\Delta\)9)present.Make sure to put the saturated and unsaturated fatty acids in their proper location.

Q2) Which of the following mechanisms of membrane transport is correctly defined?

A)simple diffusion: uses concentration gradient to move highly polar molecules and ions across membranes

B)facilitated diffusion: uses proteins such as ion channels to move substances against their concentration gradient across a membrane

C)primary active transport: uses ATP hydrolysis to move ions against their concentration gradient across a membrane

D)secondary active transport: uses ATP hydrolysis along with an ion gradient to move polar molecules or ions against their concentration gradient across a membrane E)all of the above

Q3) Draw the following fatty acid: 18:3c\(\Delta\)9,12,15 as it would appear at physiological pH.With reference to the omega carbon,what type of fatty acid is this? Draw the result if this fatty acid underwent partial hydrogenation to produce 18:1t\(\Delta\)11

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts

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Q1) Which of the following is the most common form of reversible covalent modification for control of enzyme activity?

A)acetylation/deacetylation

B)adenylation/deadenylation

C)phosphorylation/dephosphorylation

D)ADP-ribosylation/de-ADP-ribosylation

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following cofactors is used during the activation and transfer of carbon dioxide?

A)nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)

B)thiamine pyrophosphate

C)biotin

D)coenzyme A

E)tetrahydrofolate

Q3) The steady state assumption in enzyme kinetics:

A)insures that the product of an enzymatic reaction will always be formed

B)explains why enzymes are effective catalysts

C)states that the formation of ES is equal to its breakdown

D)is based upon the fact that the maximum velocity of an enzyme is very high

E)none of the above

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Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism

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Q1) During the oxidation of glucose within a typical animal cell,reduced electron carrier such as NADH are produced.What is the terminal electron acceptor of the electrons carried by NADH?

A)NAD+

B)FAD

C)O2

D)H2O

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following represents a correct compartmentation of a biochemical process with its cellular location?

A)fatty acid oxidation: endoplasmic reticulum

B)RNA synthesis: Golgi complex

C)citric acid cycle: mitochondria

D)gluconeogenesis: lysosome

E)none of the above

Q3) Pyruvic acid has the formula C3H4O3.Write the reaction for its complete combustion.What is its respiratory quotient? Does this mean that it is more oxidized or less oxidized than glucose?

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Chapter

13:

Glycolysis, gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose

Phosphate Pathway

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Q1) Under conditions of strenuous exercise,gluconeogenesis occurs primarily in the _______ using _______ formed in the skeletal muscle

A)kidney;alanine

B)muscle;glycerol

C)liver;propionate

D)kidney;acetyl-CoA

E)liver;lactate

Q2) In the mammalian liver,hexokinase IV is sequestered in _______ when glucose concentrations are low.When glucose concentrations are high,it is found in the cytosol bound to the enzyme ________.

A)nucleus;PFK-2

B)Golgi apparatus;PFK-2

C)endoplasmic reticulum;PFK-2

D)nucleus;PFK-1

E)Golgi apparatus;PFK-1

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle

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Q1) Which of the following molecules is correctly paired with the enzyme that can convert it to oxaloacetate to replenish the citric acid cycle when other intermediates are removed?

A)aspartate: aspartate deaminase

B)pyruvate: malic enzyme

C)phosphoenolpyruvate: PEP carboxylase

D)glutamate: glutamate transaminase

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following citric acid cycle enzymes is bypassed in the glyoxylate cycle?

A)citrate synthase

B)aconitase

C)isocitrate dehydrogenase

D)succinate dehydrogenase

E)fumarase

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Chapter 15: Electron Transport, oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism

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Q1) Rotation of the ____ subunit causes the _____ subunit to change from tight conformation where ATP is produced to open conformation where ATP is released.

A)\(\gamma\);\(\alpha\)

B)\(\gamma\);\(\beta\)\(\gamma\)

C)\(\delta\);\(\alpha\)

D)\(\delta\);\(\beta\)

E)\(\varepsilon\);\(\beta\)

Q2) The initial oxidation (known as \(\beta\)-oxidation)of a 16 carbon saturated fatty acid produces 8 acetyl-CoA,7 NADH and 7 FADH2.The process requires an input of 2 equivalents of ATP for the activation of the fatty acid.If the acetyl-CoA is further oxidized to CO2,what is the net ATP production from the complete oxidation of the fatty acid assuming that all electron carriers are re-oxidized by the electron transport chain?

Q3) In addition to iron,what metal is found in certain cytochromes?

A)manganese

B)copper

C)chromium

D)cobalt

E)zinc

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Chapter 16: Photosynthesis

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Q1) For each molecule of CO2 fixed by the Calvin cycle,how many ATP and NADPH are required?

A)3 ATP,1 NADPH

B)3 ATP,2 NADPH

C)6 ATP,2 NADPH

D)6 ATP,3 NADPH

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following describes the oxidation reactions for the two manganese ions that undergo oxidation in the oxygen-evolving complex?

A)a Mn2+ is oxidized to a Mn4+ and a Mn3+ is oxidized to a Mn5+

B)a Mn2+ is oxidized to a Mn5+ and a Mn3+ is oxidized to a Mn4+

C)a Mn2+ is oxidized to a Mn5+ and a Mn2+ is oxidized to a Mn3+

D)a Mn2+ is oxidized to a Mn5+ and a Mn4+ is oxidized to a Mn5+

E)two Mn2+ are oxidized to Mn4+

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Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty

Acids,triacylglycerols,and Lipoproteins

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Q1) Which of the following is the major regulation point for transport of fatty acids into the mitochondria?

A)long chain fatty acid specific acyl-CoA synthetase

B)medium chain fatty acid specific acyl-CoA synthetase

C)short chain fatty acid specific acyl-CoA synthetase

D)carnitine acyltransferase I

E)carnitine acyltransferase II

Q2) Which of the following enzymes of fatty acid synthesis is most analogous to thiolase when considering that fatty acid synthesis is analogous to a reversal of \(\beta\)-oxidation?

A)\(\beta\)-ketoacyl-ACP synthase

B)\(\beta\)-ketoacyl-ACP reductase

C)3-hydroxyacyl-ACP dehydratase

D)enoyl-ACP reductase

E)thioesterase

Q3) If gadoleic acid (20:1c\(\Delta\)9)underwent complete mitochondrial oxidation to CO2,how many ATP could be produced assuming that all reduced electron carriers are re-oxidized by the mitochondrial electron transport chain?

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Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates

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Q1) Which of the following types of tissue can use glucose,but not fatty acids,as a source of fuel?

A)skeletal muscle

B)cardiac muscle

C)liver

D)brain

E)adipose

Q2) For each of the following liver enzymes,indicate what happens to the enzyme (i.e. ,phosphorylated/dephosphorylated )when the cell is under the influence of glucagon.Indicate whether the enzyme is activated or inhibited and how that contributes to the overall role of glucagon.

PFK-2:

Pyruvate kinase:

Fruc-1,6-BPase:

Glycogen phosphorylase:

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Chapter 19: Lipid Metabolism Ii: Membrane Lipids,

isoprenoids, and Eicosanoids

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Q1) How is the activity of HMG-CoA reductase reduced?

A)allosteric inhibition by cholesterol

B)ubiquitination in response to sterol accumulation resulting in proteolysis

C)serine phosphorylation by an insulin-activated protein kinase

D)tyrosine phosphorylation by AMPK

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following amino acids is critical for choline and phosphatidylcholine synthesis?

A)serine

B)\(\beta\)-alanine

C)homocysteine

D)methionine

E)homoserine

Q3) The synthesis of the glycosphingolipids begins with the reaction of either UDP-glucose or UDP-galactose with _____________.

A)ceramide

B)sphinganine

C)sphingosine

D)sphingomyelin

E)none of the above

Page 21

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Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I:

Principles of Biosynthesis, utilization, and Turnover

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Q1) Which of the following forms of tetrahydrofolate is correctly paired with the reaction for which it serves as a coenzyme?

A)5,10-methenyl-THF: biosynthesis of purines

B)5-methyl-THF: dUMP \(\to\) dTMP

C)5,10-methylene-THF: glycine \(\to\) serine

D)5-methyl-THF: methionine \(\to\) homocysteine

E)all of the above

Q2) Which of the following enzymes of ammonia incorporation is the most highly regulated?

A)glutamate dehydrogenase

B)glutamate synthetase

C)glutamine synthetase

D)glutamine synthase

E)none of the above

Q3) Which of the following is seen in the transaminase mechanism?

A)aldimine formed between pyridoxal and lysine residue

B)Schiff base

C)pyridoxamine phosphate that reacts only with an \(\alpha\)-ketoacid

D)a carbanion that is resonance stabilized as a quinonoid intermediate

E)all of the above

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds Ii:

Amino Acids, porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters

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Q1) Which pair of amino acids can be degraded to oxaloacetate and \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate,respectively?

A)aspartate,alanine

B)asparagine,histidine

C)histidine,serine

D)proline,arginine

E)threonine,glutamine

Q2) Which amino acids are transaminated by the branched-chain amino acid aminotransferase?

A)valine,isoleucine and leucine

B)proline,valine and alanine

C)leucine,isoleucine and phenylalanine

D)leucine,isoleucine and proline

E)lysine,valine and leucine

Q3) Which of the following molecules uses chorismate as a precursor?

A)p-aminobenzoic acid

B)coenzyme Q

C)phenylalanine

D)tryptophan

E)all of the above

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism

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Q1) During the conversion of IMP to GMP and AMP,__________ serves as the nitrogen source for GMP,while _________ serves as the nitrogen source for AMP.

A)glutamate,asparagine

B)glutamate,aspartate

C)glutamine,asparagine

D)glutamine,aspartate

E)none of the above

Q2) Which enzyme of the inosinic acid biosynthesis pathway is the major control point for purine synthesis?

A)phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate amidotransferase

B)glycinamide ribonucleotide transformylase

C)formylglycinamidine ribonucleotide amidotransferase

D)5-aminoimidazole ribonucleotide synthetase

E)5-aminoimidazole ribonucleotide carboxylase

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Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction

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Q1) In the visual process,activated rhodopsin causes which of the following events to occur?

A)transducin binding to GTP

B)transducin binding to GDP

C)transducin binding to cGMP

D)transducin binding to GMP

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following hormones binds to a receptor tyrosine kinase?

A)thyroxine

B)epinephrine

C)epidermal growth factor

D)glucagon

E)cortisol

Q3) Like G proteins,the Ras protein binds _______ when in its active state which is hydrolyzed to ______ to convert the protein to its inactive state.

A)GTP;GDP

B)GTP;GMP

C)GMP;cGMP

D)cGMP;GMP

E)cGMP;GDP

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Chapter 24: Genes,genomes and Chromosomes

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Q1) What structure is responsible for linking the centromeres to the spindle fibers during mitosis?

A)metaphase plate

B)nucleosome

C)kinetochore

D)centromere scaffold

E)none of the above

Q2) A typical size for a viral genome is ______ nucleotides per haploid genome while a typical size for a bacterial genome is ______ nucleotides per haploid genome.

A)2 \(\times\)106;4 \(\times\)8

B)8\(\times\)104;5\(\times\)107

C)1\(\times\)103;9\(\times\)104

D)5\(\times\)104;4\(\times\)106

E)3\(\times\)104;5\(\times\)109

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Chapter 25: Dna Replication

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Q1) Which of the subunits of DNA polymerase III is responsible for the high processivity of the enzyme?

A)\(\beta\)

B)\(\gamma\)

C)\(\delta\)

D)\(\delta\)'

E)\(\varepsilon\)

Q2) Which of the following DNA polymerases is correctly defined?

A)polymerase I: DNA repair

B)polymerase I: RNA primer excision

C)polymerase II: DNA repair

D)polymerase III: nucleotide incorporation during replication

E)all of the above

Q3) Which of the following is required for DNA polymerase I activity?

A)3' hydroxyl group

B)ATP,GTP,TTP and CTP

C)Zn2+

D)an RNA template

E)all of the above

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Chapter 26: Dna Restructuring:

Repair,recombination,rearrangement,amplification

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Q1) Which of the following transposable elements is correctly defined?

A)insertion sequence: protein-encoding gene flanked by two insertion sequences

B)composite transposon: protein-encoding gene + transposase and resolvase genes flanked by two insertion sequences

C)class II transposon: protein-encoding gene + resolvase gene flanked by two insertion sequences

D)class III transposon: results from infection of a bacteriophage such as Mu

E)none of the above

Q2) Methylation of guanine to produce O6-methylguanine (mG)results in what change to DNA?

A)mG frequently pairs with thymine resulting in a GC \(\to\) AT mutation

B)mG loses its methoxy group resulting in hydrogen bonding with adenine and a bulge in the double helix

C)mG is prone to deamination and eventually,depurination

D)repair of mG adducts uses a radical mechanism that has the potential to further damage adjacent bases,particularly thymine

E)none of the above

Q3) Show the common base pair seen between 8-oxoguanine and adenine.

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Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and Post-Transcriptional Processing

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73684

Sample Questions

Q1) What is required for conversion from the closed-promoter complex to open-promoter complex?

A)ATP binding

B)ATP hydrolysis

C)GTP binding

D)GTP hydrolysis

E)DNA bending

Q2) Which of the following events commonly occur in the processing of eukaryotic mRNA?

A)addition of a 5' cap

B)RNA editing

C)splicing to remove introns

D)alternative splicing to combine different exons into mature mRNA

E)all of the above

Q3) Draw a transcription bubble,clearly labeling the proteins and nucleic acids involved in the process.

Q4) Give the mRNA sequence that would result from the following sense strand:

Page 29

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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational

Protein Processing

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73685

Sample Questions

Q1) In an E.coli cell,what protein factor is responsible for attaching the initiator tRNA?

A)IF2

B)eIF2

C)eIF2B

D)IF3

E)eIF5

Q2) How many ATP equivalents are required to make a protein of 150 amino acids?

A)150

B)300

C)450

D)600

E)none of the above

Q3) Which position of the anticodon is called the wobble base and with which base of the codon does it pair?

A)the 3' anticodon base which pairs with the first base of the codon

B)the 3' anticodon base which pairs with the last base of the codon

C)the middle anticodon base which pairs with the middle base of the codon

D)the 5' anticodon base which pairs with the first base of the codon

E)the 5' anticodon base which pairs with the last base of the codon

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Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73686

Sample Questions

Q1) When bacteriophage \(\lambda\) lysogeny terminates and lytic growth in E.coli cells begins,____ is inactivated leading to unoccupied OR sites._____ is produced,ultimately resulting in DNA replication.

A)Cro;cI

B)cI;Cro

C)cII;Cro

D)cI;cII

E)none of the above

Q2) What is thought to occur when CRP binds to DNA?

A)formation of a hairpin that prevents progression of RNA polymerase

B)bending of DNA to facilitate RNA polymerase binding

C)blocking of promoter regions to prevent binding of RNA polymerase

D)forms non-covalent interactions with RNA polymerase to bind it to DNA

E)none of the above

Q3) Which of the genes in the SOS regulon encodes a DNA polymerase?

A)recA

B)lexA

C)uvrA

D)uvrB

E)dinA

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