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Mental Health Studies examines the psychological, biological, and social factors that affect mental well-being across the lifespan. The course explores a range of mental health disorders, assessment techniques, and therapeutic interventions, alongside prevention strategies and the impact of stigma. Students will gain an understanding of the role of culture, policy, and ethics in mental health care, and develop critical skills in supporting individuals and communities to promote resilience and recovery.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
2107 Flashcards
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133 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a study of the effects of ice cream on mood, the ice cream can be described as what?
A) The dependent variable
B) The independent variable
C) A correlational variable
D) A confounding variable
Answer: B
Q2) Mental health epidemiology is
A) the study of epidemics in mental disorders among the general population.
B) the study of organic brain diseases among different ethnic populations of a defined geographic region.
C) the study of the distribution of mental disorders in a given population.
D) a sociological study of psychological disorders.
Answer: C
Q3) Describing a disorder as acute means that ________
A) it causes very severe distress and impairment.
B) it causes very mild distress and impairment.
C) it is a very long-lasting disorder.
D) it is a disorder that is short in duration.
Answer: D

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Sample Questions
Q1) The portion of the mind that contains the experiences of a person that he/she is not aware of is called the __________.
Answer: unconscious
Q2) Aristotle believed that ________
A) mental disorders could be caused by psychological factors.
B) mental disorders could not be caused by psychological factors.
C) bodily fluids had nothing to do with mental illness.
D) mental illness was due to demonic possession.
Answer: B
Q3) Benjamin Rush is credited with all of the following except ________
A) signing the Declaration of Independence.
B) encouraging more humane treatment of the mentally ill.
C) taking a scientific approach to the study and treatment of mental disorders.
D) being the first American to organize a course in psychiatry.
Answer: C
Q4) What is the central theme of the behavioral perspective?
Answer: The role of learning in human behavior.
Q5) Who was Wilhelm Wundt?
Answer: The man who established the first experimental psychology laboratory.
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is experimental evidence showing consistently being discriminated against may cause a person to ________
A) be happy.
B) be more conscious.
C) have cardiovascular reactivity.
D) have greater intelligence and wisdom.
Answer: C
Q2) Which period of psychosexual development occurs when a child becomes preoccupied with the development of skills and activities?
A) Genital
B) Phallic
C) Latency
D) Pubertal
Answer: C
Q3) Behaviorists suggest maladaptive behavior can be a result of ________
A) extinction.
B) lack of generalization of behaviors.
C) a poor response-outcome expectancy.
D) failure to learn adaptive behaviors.
Answer: D
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Q1) Discuss some of the ethical issues that must be kept in mind when evaluating assessment findings.
Q2) The empirical keying approach to making a test like the MMPI involves ________
A) subjective scoring of test items to assign items to different groups.
B) the creation of ambiguous stimuli where there are many possible responses.
C) picking items that differentiate between different groups; no subjective judgment is needed.
D) using theoretically based concepts to develop questions for different groups.
Q3) Under what circumstances is a structured interview most likely to be used?
A) When consistent information is needed for research purposes
B) When an accurate diagnosis is needed to ensure appropriate treatment
C) When the behavior of the client is erratic
D) When the information provided in an unstructured interview is found to lack reliability
Q4) There are two general categories of psychological tests used in clinical practice. They are ________
A) intelligence tests and personality tests.
B) projective tests and sentence completion tests.
C) neuropsychological tests and standardized tests.
D) intelligence tests and rating scales.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relaxation techniques have been shown to help patients with essential ___________.
Q2) What are two factors that can lessen the impact of a stressful situation?
Q3) Selye ________
A) recognized that both happy and sad life events can be sources of stress.
B) conducted extensive research on the effects of stress on the immune system.
C) failed to acknowledge the role of the environment in adapting to stress.
D) focused on the cognitive component of the stress response.
Q4) Stress tends to do what to telomeres?
A) Increases their strength
B) Decreases their strength
C) Increases their physical length
D) Decreases their physical length
Q5) The treatment that arranges for survivors to discuss their experiences with others is known as __________.
Q6) According to DSM-5, acute stress disorder becomes PTSD when _________
A) the trauma is an event out of the realm of normal life experience.
B) the symptoms last for more than 2 weeks.
C) the symptoms last for more than 4 weeks.
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D) the symptoms begin within 6 months of the trauma.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common type of obsession seen in OCD?
A) Fear of contamination
B) Counting over and over
C) Hand washing
D) Double checking locked doors
Q2) Which of the following illustrates how cognitive variables may act to maintain acquired fears?
A) Jane no longer went to the park due to her fear of dogs.
B) Karen would think happy thoughts whenever she drove over a bridge.
C) Ryan's fear of heights caused him to always wonder just how high up he was in a building.
D) Melvin knew that his heart was racing because he was afraid.
Q3) Why do people with phobias continue to avoid the thing they fear?
A) Avoidance is reinforced by anxiety reduction.
B) There is something wrong with their fight or flight system.
C) They are cognitively unable to make any other decision due to their disorder.
D) Their low self-esteem causes them to choose not to fight their fear.
Q4) What are obsessions? Compulsions? Give an example of each.
Q5) Describe how a phobia could be learned through vicarious conditioning.
Q6) What are the three components of fear?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Childhood depression ________
A) has been clearly linked to genetic factors.
B) is more likely in children with a depressed parent. C) has not been associated with parental depression. D) can usually be causally related to marital discord.
Q2) Childhood suicide _________
A) is very rare.
B) has been declining since the early 1950s.
C) is the third most common cause of death in the United States for 15 to19 year-olds D) has been increasing since the early 1950s.
Q3) According to Wang, Lane, et al., what percent of people with mood disorders receive no treatment or inadequate care?
A) 40
B) 50
C) 60
D) 70
Q4) What are the four phases of the grieving process?
Q5) What changes in sleep are seen in depression?
Q6) Two types of mood disorders are __________ and bipolar depressive disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder would include intentionally taking drugs in order to stimulate various real illnesses?
A) Factitious disorder
B) Malingering
C) Dissociative identity disorder
D) Somatization disorder
Q2) Distinguish between Freud's concepts of the primary and secondary gains experienced by those with conversion disorder.
Q3) What is the difference between malingering and factitious disorder?
Q4) Describe the three diagnostic criteria for excessive thoughts, feelings, or behavior related to somatic symptoms that the DSM-5 identifies for a diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder.
Q5) If Ronald is typical of people with somatic symptom disorder, he may ________
A) avoid accepting a psychological explanation for his problems.
B) avoid visiting a physician.
C) have bizarre delusions about his body rotting out.
D) feel relieved when his doctor tells him he is healthy.
Q6) Explain the difference between somatic symptom disorder and dissociative disorders. Why are these disorders commonly considered at the same time?
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Q1) Why is dieting a risk factor for the development of eating disorders?
Q2) Which of the following is the strongest predictor of a person developing bulimic symptoms?
A) The amount of control families tried to have over the person
B) The degree of overprotectiveness parents displayed
C) The amount of marital conflict between the parents
D) The amount of critical comments family members made about the person's appearance
Q3) In the treatment of eating disorders, medications _________
A) have proven to be especially helpful in treating patients with anorexia.
B) may be useful, but are not a primary treatment.
C) are commonly used to stimulate appetite.
D) have been found to be more effective than most psychological interventions.
Q4) Bariatric surgery is one option for people who are morbidly obese (more than 100 pounds overweight). After bariatric surgery, average weight loss is about ________ pounds.
A) 98 to 110
B) 88 to 101
C) 76 to 94
D) 44 to 88

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Q1) Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of dependent personality disorder?
A) High neuroticism and high agreeableness
B) High introversion and low conscientiousness
C) High fantasy proneness and low neuroticism
D) High excitement seeking and low openness to feelings
Q2) Stu has no friends except his brother. He would desperately love to date women but is certain no woman would be interested in him. He tried a dating service but was convinced that the secretary was trying to get rid of him because he was such a poor candidate. The most likely diagnosis for Stu is ________
A) avoidant personality disorder.
B) schizoid personality disorder.
C) paranoid personality disorder.
D) schizotypal personality disorder.
Q3) What does the five-factor model tell us about personality disorders?
Q4) Describe and differentiate between the Cluster A personality disorders.
Q5) Briefly describe the general characteristics of a personality disorder.
Q6) What are the two dimensions of psychopathy and the relationship to antisocial personality disorder?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Binge drinking in college ________
A) is not as common as most people think.
B) leads to alcoholism later in life.
C) can lead to many alcohol-related health and life problems.
D) leads to more problems for men than women.
Q2) One limitation on the findings of genetic influences on alcoholism is that ________
A) not enough research has been done using twins.
B) there are so many cultural differences in the use of alcohol that it blurs the genetic differences.
C) there have not been enough studies of the majority of children of alcoholics (those who do not become alcoholics).
D) there has been too much of a focus on the study of the nonalcoholic children of alcoholics.
Q3) The most potent of the hallucinogens is__________.
Q4) What evidence is there that cultural attitudes play a role in the development of alcohol abuse?
Q5) Describe two psychosocial causal factors in the development of alcohol abuse and dependence.
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Q1) Patricia, age 10, refuses to wear dresses and insists on being called Pat. She knows she is a girl, but she says boys have it better. She prefers playing with boys and only plays the games they play. She says she wants to be a football player and a mother when she grows up. Pat has ________
A) transsexualism.
B) transvestism.
C) gender identity disorder.
D) no disorder.
Q2) Ted is a rapist. If he is typical of most convicted rapists, he ________
A) has never committed a crime before.
B) is under 25 and has a prior criminal record.
C) is well-educated, charming, and middle-class.
D) was a close friend or lover of the rape victim.
Q3) What do rape and incest have in common?
A) Both involve sex with an unwilling partner.
B) The accuracy of prevalence estimates is questioned.
C) Both are motivated primarily by aggression.
D) There is much debate as to how they are defined.
Q4) What are some personality characteristics of rapists?
Q5) How do incest offenders differ from extra-familial offenders?
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a delusion? What type of delusions are most common in schizophrenia?
Q2) How is dopamine theorized to induce psychosis?
Q3) Why might Kraepelin's idea that schizophrenia was similar to dementia not be as far from the truth as previously thought?
A) Evidence suggests that there sometimes are progressive changes in brain volume over time in people with schizophrenia.
B) The symptoms of the two disorders overlap tremendously.
C) On autopsy, people with schizophrenia show the same smoothing of the brain as is seen in people with dementia.
D) The same biological treatments work for both disorders.
Q4) The external manifestation of a disorder of thought form is _________, which includes using words and word combinations that sound communicative but make no sense to a listener.
Q5) Disorganized schizophrenia ________
A) is most commonly seen in women.
B) is characterized by disorganized speech.
C) usually develops in late adulthood.
D) responds well to treatment.
Q6) The lifetime risk for schizophrenia is just under __________ percent.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the signs of concussion?
A) Temporary loss of consciousness
B) Confusion or foggy feeling in the brain
C) Amyloid plaques
D) Excessive drowsiness
Q2) The occurrence of which of the following after a head injury suggests a poor prognosis?
A) Concussion
B) Retrograde amnesia
C) Contusion
D) Anterograde amnesia
Q3) The first sign of neurocognitive disorder in older adults is typically ________
A) lack of alertness.
B) lack of attention to the environment.
C) motor control problems.
D) memory problems.
Q4) ________ brain damage occurs after a widespread brain injury such as lack of oxygen.
Q5) What evidence is there that genes are involved in Alzheimer's disease (AD)?
Q6) What is vascular dementia?

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Sample Questions
Q1) What genetic factor has been cited as a cause of anxiety disorders in children?
A) Early illness or accident
B) Overanxious, overprotective parents
C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) Indifferent or detached parents
Q2) Shortly after birth, Darren's head began to grow. A shunt was placed in his skull to drain fluid. He has seizures, trouble seeing, and has mild intellectual deficits. Darren's most likely diagnosis is ________
A) microcephaly.
B) phenylketonuria.
C) Turner's syndrome.
D) hydrocephaly.
Q3) Which ADHD medication is a combination of amphetamine and dextroamphetamine?
A) Ritalin.
B) Pemoline
C) Strattera.
D) Adderall
Q4) The most common chromosomal abnormality seen in Down syndrome is the __________ of chromosome 21.
Q5) How does depression in a mother impact her child? Page 17
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is tardive dyskinesia? What causes it?
Q2) What recent changes have altered the types of therapy that are available?
A) There is an increased need to prove that therapy is effective.
B) Psychiatrists are hesitant to write prescriptions for many drugs.
C) The increased use of nurses as therapy providers has increased the use of drugs in many community health settings.
D) Many popular therapies have been found to do more harm than good.
Q3) What is systematic desensitization, and what is its purpose?
Q4) While ________ can be used in treatment, it also a means by which problematic behaviors are acquired when others' behavior is problematic.
A) imaginal exposure
B) systematic desensitization
C) modeling
D) contingency management
Q5) What is a token economy?
Q6) What is rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)? What kind of therapy is REBT?
Q7) The conviction underlying all psychotherapy is that people with psychological problems can __________.
Q8) In terms of psychological treatments, what is flooding?
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Q1) A group of professional educators and counselors met to discuss prevention efforts in a neighborhood school district. Which of the following would be the most effective way to prevent adolescent alcohol and other drug use?
A) Classroom education
B) Mass media
C) Internet approach
D) Multicomponent program
Q2) What is one of the best predictors of future violence?
A) Compliance with treatment
B) Past history of violence
C) Family support
D) Employment history
Q3) Tarasoff-style laws are ________
A) in every state.
B) in a minority of states.
C) in a majority of states but vary quite a bit.
D) no longer law in most states.
Q4) Discuss the three requirements for psychosocial health.
Q5) What have been some of the negative effects of deinstitutionalization?
Q6) The American Law Institute (ALI) standard is also called the __________ test. Page 20
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