Mental Health and the Law
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the complex relationship between mental health and the legal system, examining how laws influence the care, rights, and treatment of individuals with mental health conditions. Students will analyze statutes, court decisions, and policy frameworks relevant to issues such as civil commitment, competency, criminal responsibility, confidentiality, and the rights of patients. The course also addresses the ethical challenges faced by mental health professionals in legal contexts and considers the impact of mental health law on both individuals and society. Through case studies and theoretical discussions, students will gain a foundational understanding of the principles and practicalities at the intersection of mental health and the law.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo
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Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious
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Q1) Are there any problems with having trial judges as the gatekeepers? How can the system be improved?
Answer: Main points:
Under the Daubert standard, judges are to decide whether to allow expert testimony. Judges are expected to be "amateur scientists".
Judges do not have the training in research and thus cannot discern between good and not-so-good science.
To improve the system, judges need to undergo mandatory training in research methods and be kept abreast of new scientific knowledge in the field of forensic psychology and other social sciences through continuing education.
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Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Amicus curiae briefs:
A) help experts testifying in court get their point across.
B) provide a way to influence the court when expert testimony is not allowed.
C) summarize the questions raised by the jury during deliberation of a verdict.
D) reflect scientists' lack of interest in the legal system.
Answer: B
Q2) Trial consultants may be hired to perform the following duties:
A) preparing witnesses and shaping trial strategy.
B) citing law and writing abbreviated briefs.
C) performing psychological evaluations and risk assessment
D) conducting research and advocating for reform
Answer: A
Q3) _____ can be described as an effort to figure out how the world works, whereas _____ provides a system for meting out just desserts.
A) Law; science
B) Science; legislature
C) Legislature; law
D) Science; law
Answer: D
4
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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court make explicit use of research provided by social scientists for the first time?
A) Brown v. Board of Education.
B) Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc.
C) General Electric Co. v. Joiner.
D) Brandeis v. United States.
Answer: A
Q2) _____ tells us how people actually behave, whereas _____ tells us how people are supposed to behave.
A) Law; psychology
B) Psychology; law
C) Science; nature
D) Nature; science
Answer: B
Q3) After Daubert, judges are more likely to:
A) permit expert testimony in federal cases.
B) exclude expert testimony even if it's based on valid science.
C) allow expert testimony, but only with regard to competency to stand trial.
D) be required to obtain education in social scientific research methods.
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?
Q2) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?
Q3) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Research in the field of social psychology has discovered that people tend to _____ the impact of situational forces, and this process is responsible for believing that suspects in police custody would _____ to the crime they did not commit.
A) overestimate; confess
B) overestimate; not confess
C) disregard; confess
D) disregard; not confess
Q2) False confessions may occur as a result of:
A) intimidation.
B) deception.
C) fatigue.
D) All of these may lead to false confessions.
Q3) According to studies, which form of evidence is most incriminating (likely to lead to conviction)?
A) Eyewitness testimony.
B) Expert testimony.
C) Confession.
D) DNA analysis.
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) In the case of Colorado v. Connelly (1986), Supreme Court Justice Brennan considered _____ to be the strongest piece of evidence in a trial.
A) eyewitness testimony
B) scientific evidence
C) a confession
D) the defendant's prior record
Q2) What was traditionally called "the third degree" refers to:
A) interrogation tactics that included direct physical violence.
B) interrogation tactics that used purely psychological means of coercion.
C) the good cop-bad cop approach.
D) having three officers present during an interrogation.
Q3) The main goal of applying the Reid technique during interrogations is to:
A) make suspect feel guilty about the crime he committed.
B) offer the suspect some possible excuses for the crime.
C) elicit a full confession from the suspect.
D) find out more information about the crime.
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Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection
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Q1) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.
Q2) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.
Q3) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection
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Q1) Jared was questioning a suspect using the Reid technique, and after a long and exhausting interrogation, the suspect falsely confessed to the crime just to put an end to the interrogation. When hearing this confession, Jared felt even more confident that the suspect was guilty. This is an illustration of the phenomenon that psychologists call:
A) false-positive bias.
B) attribution bias.
C) exhaustion bias.
D) confirmation bias.
Q2) Some promising low-tech methods of lie detection include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) asking the suspects to tell their stories backwards.
B) insisting that suspects maintain eye contact with the interrogator.
C) asking suspects to draw a picture.
D) making suspects listen to their own story recorded.
Q3) Lying can best be described as:
A) straightforward.
B) always intentional.
C) easily detected.
D) multifaceted.
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Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection
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Q1) Police investigators who were surveyed believed they detect lies _____, whereas their actual lie-detecting ability compared with that of students was _____.
A) much better than average; worse
B) no better than average; higher
C) worse than most people; higher
D) at an average level; much worse
Q2) In the comparison question test (formerly, control question test) of polygraph examination, comparison questions are designed to be _____ and compel people to _____ when answering them.
A) directly related to crime in question; tell the truth
B) uncomfortable but unrelated to crime in question; lie
C) outrageous and insulting; lose their temper
D) innocent-sounding but highly coercive; admit to committing the crime
Q3) The theory behind the polygraph test is based on the assumption that:
A) the act of lying will cause increased brain activity.
B) telling the truth will cause increased gastrointestinal activity.
C) the act of lying will cause physiological arousal.
D) telling the truth will cause a decrease in neural impulse activity.
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Q1) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?
Q2) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.
Q3) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?
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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Q1) If the imprint came from an Adidas sneaker, it reflects _____; when the imprint has a unique pattern of wear and tear, it reflects _____.
A) individual characteristics; group characteristics
B) group characteristics; individual characteristics
C) a particular source; an origin source
D) an origin source; a particular source
Q2) A survey was administered to high school seniors in Anytown. According to the survey results, fewer than 0.5% of the students drove drunk in the previous 3 months. Three months later, the survey was repeated and it again indicated that fewer than 0.5% of Anytown seniors drove drunk in the previous 3 months. On the basis of this information, the survey has:
A) high inter-rater validity.
B) low inter-rater reliability.
C) high test-retest reliability.
D) low measurement validity.
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Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace Evidence
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Q1) Which of the following types of forensic identification evidence are ranked from the strongest to the weakest?
A) DNA, ballistic analysis, fingerprints.
B) Fingerprints, DNA, ballistic analysis.
C) DNA, fingerprints, ballistic analysis.
D) Ballistic analysis, DNA, fingerprints.
Q2) The tendency to search out evidence that confirms our beliefs and to ignore evidence that contradicts our beliefs is known as:
A) confirmation bias.
B) contextual bias.
C) self-serving prophecy.
D) the fundamental attribution error.
Q3) What educational qualifications do most practitioners of forensic science have?
A) Bachelor's degree.
B) Master's degree.
C) Doctoral degree.
D) Medical degree.
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?
Q2) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?
Q3) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Killers that can be described as carefully selecting their victims are referred to as:
A) disorganized killers.
B) serial killers.
C) stalkers.
D) organized killers.
Q2) Victims in a string of murder cases were all mutilated in a specific way, which makes profilers think of this feature as the _____ that may reveal something about the perpetrator's personality.
A) anchor
B) vision
C) signature
D) lead
Q3) According to the text, the attempt to examine the psychological state of an individual prior to his or her death is known as:
A) the NASH system.
B) geographic profiling.
C) psychological autopsy.
D) probative evidence.
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Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Psychological autopsies are typically used in cases involving:
A) serial murder.
B) equivocal death.
C) mass murder.
D) unequivocal death.
Q2) Whereas _____ profiling relies on instinct, _____ profiling relies on maps and mathematics.
A) criminal; psychological
B) psychological; mathematical
C) musical; actuarial
D) psychological; geographic
Q3) According to the text, easily observable characteristics such as race SHOULD NOT be used for the purpose of classifying people as suspects because:
A) large groups of innocent people are likely to be harassed as a result.
B) suspects may mask themselves to obscure or alter visible characteristics.
C) these characteristics can change over time.
D) these characteristics are listed in identifying documents.
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Explain the voir dire process.
Q2) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
Q3) How effective is scientific jury selection?
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) An additional source for jurors in many states can be all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) licensed drivers.
B) tax rolls.
C) a list of those receiving state benefits.
D) employers' payroll lists.
Q2) The group of prospective jurors is referred to as _____, and the process of questioning these people to determine who among them will serve on the jury is called
A) voir dire; venire
B) venire; voir dire
C) venue; shadowing
D) a shadow jury; inquiring
Q3) The one day or one trial system is used to:
A) increase guilty pleas.
B) reduce the time defendants spend in jail.
C) turn criminal into civil cases.
D) reduce the number of hardship exemptions.
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the broad personality tendencies associated with jury verdicts, mentioned in Chapter 6?
A) locus of control
B) extraversion
C) authoritarianism
D) belief in a just world
Q2) Studies testing the effectiveness of judge's instructions to the jury to disregard pretrial publicity have found:
A) no effect of such instructions on jurors' decision-making in passing a guilty verdict.
B) that jurors were able to completely ignore the media accounts they had been exposed to.
C) jurors able to disregard pretrial publicity in civil cases only.
D) jurors able to disregard pretrial publicity in murder cases only.
Q3) Venire refers to:
A) a group of inmates who are requesting a trial by jury.
B) a group of prospective jurors who came to court.
C) an attorney who is conducting voir dire.
D) a judge who presides over a jury trial.
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Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
Q2) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
Q3) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) In addition to issues with memory in general, other things can introduce biases. Studies show that interference can take place during the process of identification of a suspect: Witnesses may feel more certain about their memory of an event or perpetrator as a result of _____ and _____.
A) stress; concern
B) biased questioning; stress
C) lineup procedures; confusion
D) biased questioning; lineup procedures
Q2) Memory is not a perfect procedure. Errors can take place at any given point in the process and memories may not last forever. _____ is the term used to describe the biochemical representation of our experiences within the brain.
A) Heuristics
B) Bottom-up processing
C) Top-down processing
D) Memory trace
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) To improve eyewitness accuracy, social scientists can assist the legal system in improving _____ variables.
A) dependent
B) system
C) predictor
D) estimator
Q2) When it comes to translating science into practice, there are two main obstacles outlined in the text: one is the researchers' uncertainty about how much research evidence should be accumulated before practical recommendations are made and the other one is _____ practices.
A) the resistance of law enforcement personnel to reforming their B) the difficulty of passing legislation that would mandate changes in C) prosecutors' misunderstanding of what research studies mean for their D) the slow speed of translating scientific evidence into
Q3) Which one of the following Manson criteria CONTRADICTS research findings?
A) The witness's level of attention.
B) The amount of time between witnessing the crime and making the identification.
C) The degree of certainty asserted by the witness.
D) The witness's opportunity to view the perpetrator.
Page 23
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
Q2) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
Q3) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Bona fide doubt may also be referred to as _____ doubt.
A) substantial
B) reasonable
C) voluntary
D) collateral
Q2) A person accused of a crime has the right to plead guilty and relinquish his or her right to an attorney. However, according to the Supreme Court (Johnson v. Zerbst), a guilty plea must be:
A) knowing and voluntary.
B) voluntary, knowing, and definitive.
C) knowing and intelligent.
D) knowing, intelligent, and voluntary.
Q3) According to research (Grisso et al., 2003), when it comes to competency to stand trial, at approximately age _____, the differences between young offenders and those aged 18 to 24 disappear.
A) 12
B) 14
C) 15
D) 16
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) According to the textbook, all of the following are common mental health problems diagnosed in defendants found to be incompetent to stand trial EXCEPT:
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) intellectual disability.
Q2) The modern conception of competency to stand trial was defined by the Supreme Court in the case of:
A) Miranda v. Arizona (1966).
B) United States v. Charters (1988).
C) Dusky v. United States (1960).
D) Godinez v. Moran (1993).
Q3) Competency to stand trial refers to the psychological state of the defendant:
A) at the time of the crime.
B) during pre-trial proceedings.
C) at the time of sentencing.
D) at the time of trial.
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Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
Q2) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
Q3) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) The concept that a person who commits a crime, receives punishment for it through the workings of our legal system, and afterwards makes a decision to never commit a crime again, is called:
A) retribution.
B) deterrence.
C) mens rea.
D) actus reus.
Q2) Mens rea refers to _____, whereas actus reus refers to _____.
A) committing a crime; a guilty mind
B) vicarious learning; a criminal act
C) specific deterrence; general deterrence
D) a guilty mind; a criminal act
Q3) Research completed by Rita Simon (1967) found that, when different sets of jurors were given different definitions of insanity based on legal terminology, there was:
A) no impact on their verdicts.
B) some impact on their verdicts.
C) a great deal of difference in their verdicts.
D) None of the above have happened.
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Which famous case prompted shifting the burden of proof of insanity from prosecution to defense?
A) Durham
B) Hinckley
C) M'Naghten
D) Smith
Q2) In legal terminology, the guilty mind that must accompany the wrongful behavior is known as:
A) actus reas.
B) habeas corpus.
C) mens rea.
D) the Magna Carta.
Q3) Successful insanity pleas are associated with all of these psychiatric illnesses EXCEPT:
A) psychosis.
B) mental retardation.
C) personality disorders.
D) mood disorders.
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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q3) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) Because BWS and RTS are often difficult for the prosecution to integrate into a trial, many have advocated for testimony about posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) instead. One reason why the use of this diagnosis proves to be more helpful in cases in which the victim kills the batterer is that:
A) no one understands BWS.
B) RTS has not been documented.
C) PTSD is better established as a mental disorder.
D) victims of PTSD have public support.
Q2) Judges often refuse to allow experts present information about RTS to the jury. All of the following would be typical reasons for such a decision on the part of a judge EXCEPT:
A) RTS testimony biases the jury against the defendant.
B) RTS testimony may lead to more invasive questioning of the victim.
C) Possible prejudicial impact of RTS testimony.
D) RTS testimony may improperly bias the jury against the victim.
Q3) Hypervigilance can best be described as:
A) heightened attentiveness to the abuser's subtle behaviors.
B) lessened attentiveness to the victim's needs.
C) heightened sense of urgency to take action against the abuser.
D) lessened sense of self-worth.
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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) According to the text, the original study of battered women by Dr. Walker was criticized for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
A) not all women in her sample experienced all the hypothesized stages of the cycle of abuse.
B) a comparison group of non-battered women was absent from her study.
C) the experimenters who collected the data knew about the study hypotheses and could inadvertently influence the results.
D) the sample in her study was too small.
Q2) Studies that analyzed verdicts reached in cases of battered women who killed their husbands or partners, found that _____ of the women were convicted, and expert testimony on BWS _____.
A) very few; made a substantial impact on jurors
B) the vast majority; did not have much influence
C) about half; was crucial
D) none; made all the difference
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
Q2) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
Q3) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) The concept of repression was developed by:
A) John Watson.
B) Albert Bandura.
C) Sigmund Freud.
D) Elizabeth Loftus.
Q2) Hearsay testimony is sometimes admissible in trials where a child is an alleged victim because:
A) children may have a hard time dealing with the individual who may have abused them.
B) children may have difficulty telling the truth in court.
C) prosecutors need to see the victim.
D) defendants want to see the accuser.
Q3) Research has shown that children _____ sometimes have difficulty distinguishing between imagined and real events.
A) under 3
B) under 5
C) over 5
D) over 7
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Substantial research now shows that the interviewers in many of the preschool cases ____, and this made the interviewers question children more _____ to confirm their preexisting suspicions.
A) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; coercively
B) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; gently
C) did not believe that children were sexually abused; gently
D) did not believe that children were sexually abused; coercively
Q2) In sexual abuse cases, jurors are more likely to believe _____ because younger children _____.
A) younger children than adolescents; are less likely to lie or make things up
B) younger children than adolescents; seem unsophisticated about sexual matters
C) adolescents than younger children; tend to easily mix reality and fantasy
D) adolescents than younger children; could have been easily misled by adults
Q3) The notion that traumatic memories can be pushed out of conscious awareness is called:
A) oppression.
B) regression.
C) repression.
D) confabulation.
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Q1) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
Q2) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
Q3) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
Makers
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Q1) Sole physical custody granted to the father is the _____ custody arrangement(s).
A) most common
B) second most common
C) the least common
D) likely outcome in about half of all
Q2) Several longitudinal studies have revealed that the majority of youngsters that have been through a divorce:
A) develop more slowly.
B) develop psychological disorders.
C) adapt and develop into healthy adults.
D) are more prone to mental illness.
Q3) More often than not, children define family in terms of:
A) emotional ties.
B) physical ties.
C) biological ties.
D) physical proximity.
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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) According to the text, which of the following is NOT a reason for the paucity of research on the long-term effects of divorce on children?
A) Longitudinal research is difficult, expensive, and time-consuming to conduct.
B) It is difficult to determine whether psychological problems predated the divorce or were caused by it.
C) It is difficult to publish this type of research in scientific journals because it is interdisciplinary.
D) It is difficult to measure the variables indicating healthy adjustment in children.
Q2) Under the doctrine Pater familias used in English common law prior to the nineteenth century:
A) fathers were automatically granted custody of their children.
B) mothers were automatically granted custody of their children.
C) the children of the divorcing parents decided what parent they preferred to live with.
D) best interests of the child were taken into account when deciding custody.
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q2) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
Q3) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Juries may base their verdicts on reasoning that ignores or goes beyond the law. This phenomenon is referred to as:
A) a hung jury.
B) jury nullification.
C) overrule objection.
D) ironic processes.
Q2) When jurors are instructed to disregard the inadmissible evidence, they sometimes feel there is no good reason for such an instruction. Instead, they give that evidence an even greater weight. This process is assumed by _____.
A) relativity
B) parallel processes
C) inferiority
D) reactance
Q3) According to the text, juries that required unanimity to reach a decision, deliberate _____, and are also more likely to _____.
A) faster; consider evidence more carefully
B) longer; hang
C) in closed quarters; allow videotaping of the deliberation process
D) faster; hang
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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Compared with 12-person juries, 6-person juries:
A) deliberate longer.
B) generate more arguments.
C) are less predictable.
D) recall evidence more accurately.
Q2) For centuries, English law dictated that a jury should have _____ people. In the United States, the minimum constitutionally allowed number of jurors is _____.
A) 12; 6
B) 8; 12
C) 8; 6
D) 6; 12
Q3) Which of the following is most strongly correlated with jury verdicts?
A) The severity of filed charges.
B) Pretrial publicity against the defendant.
C) The strength of evidence.
D) The complexity of instructions to the jury.
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Q1) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
Q2) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
Q3) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) There are two aspects of the sexually violent predator civil commitment laws (SVP laws). One is the state's authority to protect the citizenry, also referred to as _____. The second component is the state's duty to protect those who cannot protect themselves, sometimes referred to as _____.
A) police power; parens patriae power
B) parens patriae power; police power
C) police state; parental control
D) coercive power; vulnerable self
Q2) An idiographic, qualitative approach to the prediction of violent behavior is based on:
A) a specific case study.
B) large groups of people.
C) naturalistic observation.
D) cross-sectional studies.
Q3) Placing someone in a psychiatric facility against his or her will is known as:
A) voluntary civil commitment.
B) involuntary civil commitment.
C) involuntary criminal commitment.
D) deinstitutionalization.
Page 43
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a historical, or "static", marker?
A) Major mental disorder.
B) Personality disorder.
C) Impulsivity.
D) Age at first offense.
Q2) Actuarial instruments _____ clinical judgement in predicting violence, though scientists raised some concerns about _____.
A) clearly outperform; their impersonal nature
B) clearly outperform; their generalizability
C) do not outperform; the usefulness of either method
D) do not outperform; the questionable scientific techniques involved
Q3) Although _____ produce(s) more accurate predictions, most research on jurors' reactions to risk assessment evidence finds that _____ impact on juror's ratings of dangerousness.
A) actuarial methods; clinical testimony has a greater
B) clinical judgement; actuarial predictions have a greater
C) combined clinical and actuarial testimony; neither method has much
D) neither clinical nor actuarial methods; actuarial methods have a greater
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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
Q2) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
Q3) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) Among the military, the rate of reported harassment was about_____ for females and about _____ for males.
A) 40%; 30%
B) 15%; 50%
C) 20%; 5%
D) 60%; 25%
Q2) When fostering inter-group cooperation, it is essential to work towards achieving common goals. Goals that are considered important to both groups are referred to as _____ goals.
A) equal-status contact
B) collaborative
C) superordinate
D) norming
Q3) It has been found that in jobs dominated by men, women are _____ to experience sexual harassment when compared to other working groups.
A) less likely
B) more likely
C) equally as likely as men
D) similarly likely
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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) The Supreme Court ruled that same-sex harassment could be grounds for a lawsuit in:
A) Harris v. Forklift Systems (1993).
B) Ellison v. Brady (1991).
C) Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Services, Inc. (1998).
D) Burlington Industries, Inc. v. Ellerth (1998).
Q2) Around _____ of females and about _____ of males have reported being sexually harassed in the workplace.
A) one quarter; 5%
B) one half; a quarter
C) one half; 15%
D) one quarter; a half
Q3) In which of the following schemes for dividing up resources does everybody get the same rewards?
A) The principle of need.
B) Equality.
C) Equity.
D) Forbearance.
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Q1) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
Q2) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
Q3) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Janine was convicted of a felony, as was Troy. Both defendants were convicted of the same crime and under similar situations. Because she is a female, Janine is likely to receive _____ Troy.
A) a harsher sentence than B) the same sentence as C) a more lenient sentence than D) a less lenient sentence than
Q2) Several U.S. states have very high incarceration rates. Which one is not among them?
A) Mississippi
B) Louisiana
C) New Jersey
D) Texas
Q3) One of the main problems with the new prisons in the United States was that in addition to being expensive and impractical, the extreme isolation often caused prisoners to become:
A) insane.
B) talkative.
C) violent.
D) workaholics.
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) A rather radical approach to sentencing guidelines involves mandatory, or determinate sentencing, which requires judges to:
A) implement the three strikes laws.
B) hand down sentences within a prescribed range.
C) defer the sentencing decision to the jury.
D) consider the defendant's personality characteristics.
Q2) Which of the four goals of imprisonment did the creators of early prisons in the United States aspire to fulfill?
A) Incapacitation.
B) Deterrence.
C) Retribution.
D) Rehabilitation.
Q3) Sentencing guidelines intended to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A) restrain judges' discretion.
B) reduce inequalities in sentencing.
C) take into account the past criminal history of the defendant.
D) increase the severity of sentences.
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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Q1) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
Q2) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
Q3) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Q1) A defendant is deemed "guilty" or "not guilty" during _____ of a capital murder trial.
A) phase one
B) phase two
C) the early part
D) the final days
Q2) According to the text, the race of the victim is possibly more important than the race of the defendant when it comes to sentencing. Research has shown that if the victim is white, the prosecution is more than _____ as likely to recommend the death penalty.
A) twice
B) three times
C) four times
D) five times
Q3) During the process of death qualification, if a potential juror _____, he or she is excluded from serving on a capital jury.
A) is unwilling to consider execution as a punishment
B) had previously been a victim of a violent crime
C) had witnessed a violent death before
D) has any close relatives who died of unnatural causes
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a result of Gregg v. Georgia (1976) and its companion cases?
A) The sentence of death was made mandatory for certain types of murder.
B) All death sentences are reviewed by state supreme courts.
C) Bifurcated proceedings are used in all capital trials.
D) Jurors are instructed to weigh aggravating and mitigating factors.
Q2) Generally, Americans _____ the death penalty. However, when asked to compare it with life without parole, _____ prefer punishment other than the death penalty.
A) favor; a clear majority of respondents
B) dislike; very few
C) favor; very few
D) dislike; only affluent respondents
Q3) In 1972, the Supreme Court ruled the death penalty unconstitutional in _____. However, executions resumed in _____.
A) Atkins v. Virginia; 1977
B) Furman v. Georgia; 1977
C) Furman v. Georgia; 2000
D) Atkins v. Virginia; 2000
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