Mental Health and Illness Question
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Course Introduction
This course explores the complex landscape of mental health and mental illness, examining psychological, biological, and social factors that contribute to mental well-being and disorders. Topics include the history and classification of mental illnesses, diagnostic criteria, risk factors, and treatment modalities such as psychotherapy, medication, and community support. Through case studies and contemporary research, students will gain insight into the lived experiences of individuals with mental health conditions, the stigma surrounding mental illness, and the impact of cultural, ethical, and policy considerations on mental health care.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill
M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
2107 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Overview and Research Approaches
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The International Classification of Diseases, revision 10 (ICD 10) is produced by
A) the American Psychological Association.
B) the American Psychiatric Association.
C) the World Health Organization.
D) the American Medical Association.
Answer: C
Q2) Comorbidity means ________
A) that a disorder is often fatal.
B) that a person has two or more disorders.
C) that a person has a more severe form of a disorder.
D) that a person is unlikely to recover from the disorder.
Answer: B
Q3) What is mental health epidemiology? How is it studied?
Answer: Epidemiology is the study of the distribution of a health-related problem within a population. Mental health epidemiology is the distribution and frequency of mental disorders. A key element in studying this is the frequency of mental disorder, which includes prevalence rates.
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals is credited with emphasizing the link between brain pathology and mental illness?
A) Dix.
B) Skinner.
C) Bandura.
D) Kraepelin.
Answer: D
Q2) The physicians of Alexandria, Egypt, in the era after Alexander the Great were most likely to treat mental patients by ________
A) putting them in prisons.
B) using brutal forms of exorcism.
C) having them make sacrifices to gods.
D) providing activities, massage, and education.
Answer: D
Q3) The portion of the mind that contains the experiences of a person that he/she is not aware of is called the __________.
Answer: unconscious
Q4) Who was Wilhelm Wundt?
Answer: The man who established the first experimental psychology laboratory.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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145 Verified Questions
145 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Understanding the causes of mental disorders is important because ________
A) effective treatment is not possible without such an understanding.
B) classification of disorders cannot be done without such information.
C) such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible.
D) disagreements about the causes of psychopathology have long limited the advancements made in the study of abnormal psychology.
Answer: C
Q2) Childhood abuse is commonly seen in those who develop dissociative disorders later in life. Childhood abuse would best be described as a ________
A) necessary contributory cause.
B) proximal contributory cause.
C) reinforcing contributory cause.
D) distal contributory cause.
Answer: D
Q3) __________ tends to be seen in American children, whereas ____________ tends to be seen in Thai children.
Answer: Undercontrolled behavior, overcontrolled behavior
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5
Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the dimensional and the prototypal approaches to classification.
Q2) Shanna goes to Dr. Henderson for a first interview. He diagnoses her with a depressive disorder. She then goes to Dr. Smithson, because her friend recommended her. Dr. Smithson diagnoses Shanna with an anxiety disorder. This demonstrates a problem with ________
A) structured interviews.
B) multiaxial diagnosis.
C) reliability.
D) flexibility.
Q3) Today, there are two major psychiatric classification systems in use: the ICD-10, and the ______.
Q4) Because his psychologist suspects he might have substantial brain damage, Tony was given a five-hour battery of tests that included listening to rhythmic beats presented by tape recorder and putting different shaped blocks into grooves while blindfolded. The procedure Tony experienced is called the ________
A) Rorschach.
B) MMPI-2.
C) Rhythm Test
D) functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI) test.
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Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to your textbook, what percentage of Army soldiers and Marines in Iraq report that they have been attacked or ambushed?
A) 56%
B) 63%
C) 77%
D) 92%
Q2) Which of the following would be an example of prolonged exposure?
A) Mandy visited the accident site.
B) Carol considered ways in which she could make her apartment safer.
C) John planned a new route to work.
D) Chris learned judo.
Q3) Stress slows the healing of wounds by as much as ___ to ___ percent.
A) 5; 10.
B) 12; 15.
C) 24; 40.
D) 55; 70.
Q4) What is stress-inoculation training?
Q5) List four symptoms of PTSD.
Q6) What is the allostatic load?
Q7) Why are uncontrollable stressors especially difficult to deal with?
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Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, Obsessions, and Their Disorders
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138 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do "safety behaviors" contribute to the persistence of panic disorder?
Q2) Social phobia ________
A) is characterized by significant fear of most social situations. B) and antisocial personality commonly are comorbid disorders. C) involves a fear of one or more specific social situations. D) typically develops in childhood.
Q3) Which of the following is true of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A) Nearly six times more women than men suffer from OCD.
B) This disorder tends to begin in adolescence or early adulthood, but is not uncommon in children.
C) Once thought to be a fairly common disorder, with new diagnostic criteria, it is seen as quite rare.
D) Although most people have both obsessive thoughts and compulsive rituals, rarely are the two issues related.
Q4) What is necessary for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder?
Q5) The five anxiety disorders recognized by the DSM-5 are: specific phobia, social anxiety, panic disorder, agoraphobia, and __________.
Q6) What benefit do those with GAD derive from worrying?
Q7) Describe the purpose of exposure therapy for specific phobia.
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Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the hopelessness theory of depression.
Q2) Which of the following would eliminate a potential diagnosis of cyclothymia?
A) Gil had been showing both hypomanic and depressed symptoms for over three years.
B) Carol was absolutely convinced that her mother wanted to kill her, although there was no evidence for this.
C) Bob's most recent hypomanic episode lasted 3 days.
D) Between her more recent episodes, Carla functioned quite well for 3 weeks.
Q3) Depressogenic schemas ________
A) are inherited.
B) predispose a person to develop depression.
C) serve a protective function and are readily modified by positive life experiences.
D) ensure that a low rate of reinforcement will be experienced.
Q4) Selective abstraction is ________
A) a tendency to think in extremes.
B) a tendency to jump to conclusions based on little or no evidence.
C) part of Beck's cognitive triad.
D) a tendency to focus on one negative detail of a situation while ignoring other aspects.
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Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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106 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike the DSM-IV, the DSM-5 includes the description of an external spirit, power, or deity possessing an individual; this is referred to as ______________.
Q2) The most common kind of speech-related conversion reaction is ________
A) alexia
B) aphonia
C) apraxia
D) alogia
Q3) What do somatic symptom disorder and the dissociative disorders have in common?
A) Both are characterized by physical complaints.
B) Both are more common in men.
C) Both appear to be ways of avoiding anxiety.
D) Both have onset during early childhood.
Q4) Which of the following is an explanation for the increased prevalence of DID?
A) Increased public awareness of DID.
B) The increased incidence of verbal abuse.
C) Changes in the diagnostic criteria for PTSD.
D) Therapists can seek greater insurance reimbursement for DID patients.
Q5) Distinguish between Freud's concepts of the primary and secondary gains experienced by those with conversion disorder.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elena binges on high calorie foods and then makes herself throw up. She feels terribly ashamed and horrified by what she does. You would predict ________
A) she will stop making herself throw up because she is ashamed and distressed.
B) she will not stop because her vomiting is reinforced by reducing her fear of gaining weight.
C) she will stop because her vomiting is being punished by the feelings of disgust and shame.
D) she will not stop because she has become physiologically addicted to vomiting.
Q2) A study in Finland reported parents with children who are overweight ________
A) are likely to address their children's weight issues before adolescence.
B) likely recognize the weight problem but do not know what to do about it.
C) are the main facilitators of their children's weight issues.
D) likely do not even recognize their children as being overweight.
Q3) Generally speaking, people with a BMI below 18.5 are considered
Q4) Why is dieting a risk factor for the development of eating disorders?
Q5) The hormone __________ sends a signal that causes most people to reduce their intake of food.
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Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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142 Verified Questions
142 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of avoidant personality disorder?
A) High extraversion and low openness to feelings
B) High introversion and high neuroticism
C) High antagonism and low neuroticism
D) High agreeableness and high angry hostility
Q2) Which of the following personality disorders is most likely to be mistaken for schizophrenia?
A) Avoidant
B) Borderline
C) Schizoid
D) Schizotypal
Q3) What complicates the diagnosis of personality disorders?
Q4) While the individual with ________ personality disorder appears cool and aloof, the individual with ________ personality disorder is best described as odd.
A) avoidant; schizotypal
B) schizoid; schizotypal
C) schizoid; avoidant
D) schizotypal; avoidant
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rates of alcoholism among Asian populations are ________ than among European peoples. This fact may be related to ________.
A) higher; genetic differences in the sensitivity of the MCLP
B) higher; genetic differences in the ability to metabolize alcohol
C) lower; religious differences in the acceptability of alcohol
D) lower; a mutant enzyme that leads to hypersensitive reactions to alcohol
Q2) How is Alcohol Use Disorder defined in the DSM-5? How do tolerance and withdrawal factor into Alcohol Use Disorder?
Q3) Describe and give an example of the abstinence violation effect.
Q4) Which of the following is most likely to be used to produce sleep?
A) Barbiturates
B) Mescaline
C) Morphine
D) Codeine
Q5) Controlled drinking (i.e., teaching alcoholics to drink in moderation) ________
A) has been generally accepted as a useful treatment.
B) is incorporated in Brief Motivational Intervention
C) works better than complete abstinence.
D) seems to work for people with less severe alcohol problems.
Q6) The most potent of the hallucinogens is__________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most female-to-male transsexuals________
A) have always felt that they should be male.
B) did not have gender dysphoria as children.
C) want to be homosexual men.
D) have a paraphilia in which they are attracted to themselves as a man.
Q2) Which of the following is the most common adult outcome of boys with gender dysphoria?
A) Homosexuality
B) Transsexualism
C) Masochism
D) Transvestism
Q3) The ________ enjoys inflicting pain, while the ________ desires pain and degradation.
A) masochist; sadist
B) voyeur; sadist
C) sadist; masochist
D) sadist; voyeur
Q4) Discuss two ways in which sex offenses are treated. How effective is treatment for these offenses?
Q5) Why is it difficult to estimate the prevalence of incest?
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that researchers suspect might be involved in schizophrenia because ________
A) it makes dopamine.
B) it causes the ventricles to enlarge.
C) it is missing in the brains of people with schizophrenia.
D) alterations in glutamate levels can produce schizophrenic-like symptoms in normal subjects.
Q2) The DSM-5 diagnosis for someone who has features of schizophrenia and a severe mood disorder is __________ disorder.
Q3) A rigorous study conducted by the Swedish army showed that young men who use cannabis by age 18 are _____ times more likely to develop schizophrenia than those who don't.
A) 3
B) 4.5
C) 6
D) 10.3
Q4) ______________are false beliefs that are firmly held despite clear evidence to the contrary.
Q5) ____________ impairment is regarded as a core feature of schizophrenia.
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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Procedural memory often is intact in patients with amnestic disorder. This means
A) they will eventually recover their short-term memory.
B) they will eventually recover their memory for the most important personal events in their lives, but will still have problems with short-term memory.
C) they can still learn routines and skills and may be able to be taught tasks that will enable them to work.
D) the memory pathways in the brain are still intact, so patients can be retaught how to remember things.
Q2) What factors determine the amount of impairment from brain damage?
Q3) Functional imaging techniques show that the ________ is less active in Alzheimer's patients but more active in people who are at genetically high risk for the disease.
A) parietal lobe
B) hippocampus
C) hypothalamus
D) frontal lobe
Q4) In Alzheimer's disease, __________ are deposits of sticky protein.
Q5) What is delirium?
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence (Neurodevelopmental Disorders)
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125 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a risk factor for ODD and conduct disorder?
A) Inconsistent parental discipline.
B) Vaccines.
C) Middle socioeconomic status.
D) Childhood obesity.
Q2) What is the advantage of using Pemoline to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder instead of Ritalin?
A) Pemoline increases the child's intelligence.
B) Pemoline works faster.
C) Pemoline has fewer side effects.
D) Pemoline reduces anxiety attacks.
Q3) Throughout his young life, Quincy, age 7, rarely wakes up in the morning to a dry bed. Quincy would be diagnosed as having ________
A) primary functional encopresis.
B) secondary functional encopresis.
C) primary functional enuresis.
D) secondary functional enuresis.
Q4) What are three of the special factors associated with treatment for children and adolescents?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Psychological Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Andrea begins therapy and expects that the therapy will help her. This expectancy
A) is necessary to produce positive change.
B) may be enough by itself to produce positive change.
C) is helpful in psychodynamic therapy, but irrelevant to cognitive and behavioral interventions.
D) is irrelevant to the change process.
Q2) A sexual relationship between a therapist and a patient is ___________
A) a natural outcome of the therapeutic alliance.
B) common, occurring in at least one-third of therapeutic relationships.
C) the most obvious and extreme example of boundary violation.
D) part of the transference process and usually only temporary.
Q3) The major problem with benzodiazepines is that people can become __________ upon them.
Q4) The feelings a therapist may have for a client based upon his or her unconscious motives is known as __________ in psychodynamic terms.
Q5) Combined psychotherapeutic treatments are __________ superior to single treatments.
Q6) Neuroleptics are also called _________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Efforts aimed at a specific at-risk subgroup are known as __________ interventions.
Q2) Discuss the three requirements for psychosocial health.
Q3) Homicidal behavior amongst former patients is greatest with a diagnosis of
A) alcoholism.
B) bipolar depression.
C) major depression.
D) schizophrenia.
Q4) Which of the following funds research on mental disorders and assists communities in establishing effective mental health services?
A) The National Association for Mental Health (NAMH)
B) The American Psychological Association (APA)
C) Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
D) The National Institute on Mental Health (NIMH)
Q5) The Tarasoff rule usually applies ________
A) anytime a client threatens to do a violent act.
B) only to violent acts against people.
Page 19
C) only if the target of violence is clearly identifiable.
D) only if the client has given an informed consent.
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