Medicine
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Medicine is a comprehensive field dedicated to the study, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of illness and disease in humans. This course covers foundational concepts in human biology, anatomy, physiology, and pathology alongside practical skills in clinical reasoning, patient care, and medical ethics. Students will explore various specialties, learn to interpret diagnostic tests, and develop communication and problem-solving abilities essential for medical practice. The curriculum also emphasizes the importance of scientific research, evidence-based practice, and the social determinants of health, preparing students for further training in healthcare careers or graduate medical education.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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79 Chapters
773 Verified Questions
773 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) The generic name of a medication is the:
A) name given by the biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
B) name given to the pharmaceutical company that manufactures the medication.
C) chemical name of the medication.
D) shortened, simplified version of the chemical name.
Answer: D
Q2) Patients taking OTC and complementary medication may:
A) have adverse drug interactions if they are also taking prescription medications.
B) not discuss the OTC or complementary medicines with their health professional as they do not consider them important.
C) attempt self-diagnosis and treatment prior to consulting their professional.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) The brand name of a medication is provided by the:
A) government.
B) pharmaceutical company.
C) biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
D) drug evaluation committee that formally examines all data about medications.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Australian regulations require nursing staff to maintain a ward register for administration of controlled drugs and periodically check the balance of ampoules,tablets and volumes of liquid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) When the drug order is unclear,the health professional should:
A) ask a colleague to interpret the writing.
B) check what other medications the patient is taking and have an educated guess.
C) question the prescriber about what was intended.
D) withhold the medication.
Answer: C
Q3) After giving a verbal order,the health professional must:
A) confirm the verbal order in writing within 48 hours.
B) confirm the verbal order in writing within 24 hours.
C) ensure that the medication is administered by the health professional.
D) ensure that a health professional has co-signed the verbal order.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the meaning of the term 'not for resuscitation (NFR)order'?
A) The client will not be resuscitated by health care professionals if they suffer a cardiac or respiratory arrest.
B) The client will not receive admission to the intensive care unit.
C) The client will not receive full nursing care.
D) The client will not receive ventilatory and inotropic support.
Answer: A
Q2) Macroallocation and microallocation of resources are principles related to what aspect of ethical conduct?
A) Autonomy
B) Beneficence
C) Veracity
D) Justice
Answer: D
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
Q2) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Q3) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Naturopaths may:
A) prescribe any medicines that will have a holistic effect on their client.
B) recommend and dispense doses of herbal, mineral and animal-based products.
C) prescribe Schedule 1--3 medications only.
D) none of the above.
Q2) Which of the following healthcare workers have some prescribing rights,are able to order context-specific pathology and radiology tests,and are able to make limited referrals?
A) assistant in nursing
B) registered nurse
C) nurse practitioner
D) nurse researcher
Q3) The target group for a medication review by pharmacists are individuals who:
A) are at risk of medication misuse due to age, social circumstances, complexity of their medication regimen, their health care status, and knowledge about their medicines.
B) are recommended to have a review by their general practitioner.
C) live in a nursing home.
D) live at home alone.
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true of a linctus?
A) It needs to be stored at or below 25°C.
B) It is administered without water.
C) It is a viscous liquid with expectorant, sedating and cough-suppressing properties.
D) All of the above.
Q2) Storing biological products,for example insulin at 0-4°C,prevents:
A) proliferation.
B) pain on administration.
C) medication errors.
D) denaturation.
Q3) Intrathecal injection is a mode of drug delivery into A) blood.
B) lymph nodes.
C) cerebrospinal fluid.
D) synovial fluid.
Q4) Nasal preparations are not absorbed systemically.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) New Zealand is the only country worldwide that has a comprehensive medicinal policy at the Commonwealth level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
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9
Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many registered nurses are needed to check information for administration of drugs such as narcotic analgesics,digoxin and warfarin?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) More than five
Q2) A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Medication ordered at particular time intervals should be given on time to:
A) ensure that health professionals provide their care efficiently.
B) maintain consistent blood levels of the medication.
C) ensure that medications are not wasted.
D) ensure that patients have a structured approach to their care.
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q2) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q3) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common adverse drug reaction is hypertension.The drug therapy for treatment of hypertension may include the following EXCEPT:
A) -adrenoreceptor agonists.
B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
C) calcium antagonists.
D) -adrenoreceptor antagonists.
Q2) Postural hypotension is an adverse effect often associated with drugs that:
A) block \(\alpha\)-adrenoceptors.
B) stimulate \(\alpha\)-adrenoreceptors.
C) block \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
D) stimulate \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
Q3) What agent is used to treat respiratory depression caused by an opioid analgesic?
A) Pentazocine
B) Naloxone
C) Methadone
D) Naltrexone
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12
Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relative risk refers to the ratio of the incidence of an adverse event occurring in individuals taking a medication as compared to individuals not taking a medication having the same adverse event.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When comparing absolute risk reduction to relative risk reduction,one must consider:
A) the incidence of an outcome event.
B) the incidence of a sentinel event.
C) That only the relative risk statistics are accurate.
D) that more weight is given to absolute risk data.
Q3) Which of the following strategies would NOT be beneficial in communicating risks and benefits to individuals?
A) Offer balanced information.
B) Use specific, descriptive terms for risk.
C) Use a consistent denominator.
D) Use visual aids.
Q4) Another name for absolute risk is risk difference.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Q2) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Sample Questions
Q1) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
Q2) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
Q3) Highly lipophilic substances can cross the blood-brain barrier.Which of the following cannot cross the blood-brain barrier in normal circumstances?
A) Alcohol
B) Penicillin
C) Glucose
D) Antihistamines
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15
Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:
A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.
Q2) Which of the following drugs is not excreted by the lungs?
A) Ethanol
B) Salbutamol
C) Isoflurane
D) Metoprolol
Q3) Phase 1 metabolism of a drug can involve:
A) glucuronidation.
B) sulphation.
C) conjugation.
D) oxidation.
Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
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Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:
A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
Q2) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
Q3) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements about pharmacodynamics is true?
A) A partial agonist can be as effective as an antagonist.
B) Ion channels do not have receptors.
C) Second messenger systems always involve G-proteins.
D) The antiasthma agent theophylline acts via a tyrosine kinase-linked receptor.
Q2) Pharmacological effect is achieved by:
A) the portion of free or unbound drug.
B) the portion of protein-bound drug.
C) ionisation.
D) penetrating the blood-brain barrier.
Q3) The extent of binding of a drug to a receptor is termed:
A) potency.
B) specificity.
C) affinity.
D) efficacy.
Q4) A drug mechanism that works to neutralise stomach acid is considered to be:
A) an action targeting ion channels.
B) a chemical action.
C) an agonist action.
D) a physical action.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of hypersensitivity reaction is characterised by antibody-antigen complexes that precipitate out of the blood and lodge in tissues such as skin and joints,inducing an inflammatory response?
A) Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B) Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C) Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
Q2) The final decision to approve a drug for marketing in Australia and New Zealand rests with the:
A) Medicines Assessment Advisory Committee.
B) ministerial council (health).
C) Australian Drug Evaluation Committee.
D) Pharmaceutical Society.
Q3) Subacute toxicity tests are characterised by:
A) repeated drug doses over a period of days to reveal tissue targets for damage.
B) tissue targets for damage associated with high single drug doses.
C) repeated drug doses for a period of months in order to assess the toxic dose ranges.
D) the effects of the drug on fertility, implantation and the developing human.
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two techniques used in gene therapy include in vitro and vector methods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One trial that clearly illustrated problems with gene therapy was among children with severe combined immunodeficiency. What was the serious secondary effect believed to be a result of this form of therapy?
A) Progression to HIV
B) Increased mortality from the initial diagnoses
C) Leukaemia
D) Heart failure
Q3) How many human enzymes have been associated with drug metabolism and polymorphisms?
A) Less than 20
B) More than 20
C) A minimum of 50
D) None
Q4) Cost-effectiveness is a potential barrier to genetic-based therapies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Sample Questions
Q1) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would assist in medication adherence for the older person?
A) Simple medicine regimens
B) Use of medication aids
C) Improved communication
D) All of the above
Q2) In geriatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.
Q3) In neonates and infants,drug absorption through the skin is:
A) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
B) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
C) reduced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
D) reduced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
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22
Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Sample Questions
Q1) AZ is a 62-year-old farmer who is brought in to the emergency department for the management of organophosphate poisoning.How should this be managed?
A) Administration of vitamin K
B) Administration of atropine
C) Administration of diphenhydramine
D) Administration of dicobalt edetate
Q2) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
Q3) Which of the following principles of emergency management is matched appropriately
A) Life support-gathering as much information as possible about the poison
B) Clinical assessments-ensuring a clear airway, maintaining effective respiration and circulation and addressing fluid or metabolic imbalances
C) Decontamination and detoxification-reducing the amount of poison absorbed
D)Neutralisation and elimination-providing hydration and electrolyte management
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Sample Questions
Q1) The passing of a patient's blood across a medium containing adsorbent beads is called:
A) haemoperfusion.
B) haemosiderosis.
C) haemodialysis.
D) haemolysis.
Q2) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) patient assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
Q3) In order to facilitate the pooling of stomach contents and hinder their movement into the duodenum,an unconscious person undergoing gastric lavage needs to be positioned:
A) on their back.
B) on their right side.
C) on their left side.
D) in a semi-recumbent position
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q2) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q4) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with anabolic-androgenic steroid use?
A) Mood swings
B) Premature completion of long bone growth
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass
D) An altered blood lipid profile
Q2) One rationale given for misuse of narcotic agents by sportspeople is to:
A) induce anabolic effects.
B) produce euphoria.
C) promote aggression.
D) increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.
Q3) Which one of the following is considered a banned substance by WADA?
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Diuretics
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system (ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine
Q2) The parasympathetic division is activated in an emergency or stressful situation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of electrolyte abnormality may occur with the use of \(\beta_{2} \) agonists?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Hypernatremia
Q2) Which of the following agents could be used to treat hypertension?
A) <sub>1</sub> antagonists
B) <sub>1</sub> agonists
C) <sub>1</sub> antagonists
D) Both A and C
Q3) Which of the following effects will occur with \(\beta_{2} \) receptor stimulation?
A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Bronchodilation
C) Urinary retention
D) Decreased heart rate
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28
Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many subtypes of muscarinic receptors have been identified?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q2) Neuromuscular agents work on which receptors?
A) M<sub>1</sub>
B) M<sub>2</sub>
C) M<sub>3</sub>
D) Nicotinic
Q3) Which of the following agent is used for the management of malignant hyperthermia?
A) Atropine
B) Suxamethonium.
C) Tubocurarine.
D) Dantrolene
Q4) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q2) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
Q3) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blocking which histamine receptor would help in the management of excessive gastric acid secretion?
A) H<sub>1</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>4</sub>
Q2) How many subtypes of H<sub>1</sub> receptors have been identified?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q3) Where are H<sub>1</sub> receptors found?
A) Stomach
B) Smooth muscles
C) Immune cells
D) All of the above
Q4) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
Q3) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q4) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for: A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q2) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q4) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Q1) Which description best matches the role of the thalamus?
A) A sorting area for sensory and motor impulses that relays the information to the most appropriate brain region
B) An area involved in appetite, body temperature, thirst and hormone release
C) The area involved in the primary perception and interpretation of sensation as well as the initiation of skeletal muscle movement
D) A region involved in equilibrium, postural control and coordinated movement
Q2) Which part of the human brain is not considered part of the brainstem?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Cerebrum
Q3) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate.
C) serotonin.
D) GABA.
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Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Q1) Which of the following antipsychotic drug groups is associated with photosensitivity,therefore requiring protection from the sun?
A) The butyrophenones
B) The phenothiazines
C) The dibenzodiazepines
D) The thioxanthenes
Q2) Which dopamine receptor is most frequently associated with psychotic illness?
A) D1
B) D2
C) D3
D) D4
Q3) Psychoses include the following conditions EXCEPT:
A) depression.
B) schizophrenia.
C) severe agitation.
D) some forms of dementia.
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Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following anxiolytic/sedative drugs can directly activate GABA receptors,even in the absence of GABA itself?
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Buspirone
C) Barbiturates
D) Dexmedetomidine
Q2) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
Q3) Which benzodiazepine agent would be considered suitable for a person who has problems with early morning awakening?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Temazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q4) Benzodiazepines can induce:
A) amnesia.
B) rage.
C) depression.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adverse effect profile of antimuscarinic and antiadrenergic activity and potentially lethal cardiac dysrhythmias is characteristic of which antidepressant drug group?
A) Non-selective MAO inhibitors
B) Tricyclic antidepressants
C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) Tetracyclic antidepressants
Q2) The potentially fatal 'serotonin syndrome' is associated with SSRI therapy for depression.Which of the following signs or symptoms are not linked to serotonin syndrome?
A) Weight gain
B) Hyperthermia
C) Sweating
D) Euphoria or drowsiness
Q3) The psychological disorder characterised by persistent thoughts and repetitive,ritualistic behaviours is called:
A) endogenous depression.
B) panic disorder.
C) mania.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Q1) Which one of the following drugs is NOT used in the management of multiple sclerosis to modify the immune response?
A) Baclofen
B) Glatiramer
C) Prednisone
D) Interferon \(\beta\)
Q2) Which of the following is not an appropriate clinical management activity in relation to tetrabenazine therapy for Huntington's disease?
A) The client should avoid drinking alcohol with tetrabenazine.
B) Therapy is stopped if dysphagia or choking occurs.
C) If depression occurs, the dose of tetrabenazine is reduced or treatment is stopped.
D) The dose of tetrabenazine is reduced gradually over two days to prevent rebound involuntary movements.
Q3) To ensure a uniform concentration of levodopa,the dose should be taken:
A) with milk.
B) before exercise.
C) immediately before breakfast and one hour after the evening meal.
D) at the same time each day and in a consistent manner in relation to food.
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Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding status epilepticus is true?
A) This is the medical term given to a person with epilepsy.
B) In this form of epilepsy, the person is affected by a number of different seizure types.
C) In status epilepticus, there is no spontaneous recovery from a seizure.
D) This condition is commonly associated with client compliance with medication.
Q2) Which of the following antiseizure drugs may cause gingivitis and gingival hyperplasia,therefore necessitating the need for meticulous dental care?
A) Phenytoin
B) Carbamazepine
C) Ethosuximide
D) Vigabatrin
Q3) Spasmolytic muscle relaxants enhance the inhibitory transmitter GABA.How does this action produce a therapeutic effect in seizure management?
A) By reducing hyperexcitability of the motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord
B) By inducing sedation in the patient
C) By altering calcium levels that reduce skeletal muscle contraction
D) Stimulation of GABAergic pathways in the spinal cord
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Q1) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q2) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
Q3) Behaviour associated with ADD in children includes:
A) forgetfulness.
B) daydreaming.
C) lack of interest.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Q1) Which of the following pain medicines produce a constipating effect?
A) Pethidine
B) Aspirin
C) Morphine
D) Paracetamol
Q2) Which of the following narcotics has a prolonged duration of action?
A) Pethidine
B) Methadone
C) Codeine
D) Fentanyl
Q3) When administering tramadol,it should not be given with drugs that:
A) affect coagulation.
B) affect blood vessel vasculature.
C) are largely metabolised renally.
D) increase seizure tendencies.
Q4) The opioid tramadol should be avoided in clients with:
A) epilepsy.
B) a heart condition.
C) asthma.
D) liver disease.
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Sample Questions
Q1) NSAIDs may not be suitable for use in individuals with renal impairment because they:
A) increase sodium excretion.
B) increase body temperature.
C) reduce the glomerular filtration rate.
D) reduce pepsin levels in the stomach.
Q2) Aspirin needs to be stopped approximately ________ before planned surgery and some complex dental procedures because of the possibility of increased bleeding.
A) two days
B) seven days
C) two weeks
D) seven weeks
Q3) Which micronutrient should be supplemented with methotrexate use?
A) Folate
B) Thiamin
C) Riboflavin
D) Pyridoxine
Q4) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
Q5) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
Q2) How does metoclopramide assist in the treatment of an acute migraine?
A) It decreases the incidence of nausea and vomiting.
B) It increases the absorption of ergotamine.
C) It decreases the rate at which ergotamine is excreted.
D) It inhibits the isoenzyme of the cytochrome P450 system that metabolises ergotamine.
Q3) Which substance enhances the absorption of ergotamine?
A) Apple juice
B) Sumatriptan
C) Dairy products
D) Caffeine
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43
Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Q1) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q2) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
Q2) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q3) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients on atorvastatin should avoid ________ during therapy because it may increase the amount of atorvastatin in their circulation and therefore increase the chances of adverse effects occurring.
A) alcohol
B) milk
C) grapefruit juice
D) leafy green vegetables
Q2) Long-term statin therapy has been linked to an increased incidence of:
A) stroke.
B) heart disease.
C) cataract development.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
Q3) What is an accumulation of lipid,collagen fibres and foam cells called?
A) Stoma
B) Atheroma
C) Sarcoma
D) Haematoma
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hormone that affects blood pressure by facilitating an increased excretion of sodium and water is:
A) aldosterone.
B) ADH (vasopressin).
C) ANF.
D) oestrogen.
Q2) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
Q3) Which one of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasoconstriction?
A) Prostacyclin
B) Endothelin-1
C) Nitric oxide
D) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>
Q4) If a second dose of diuretic is required,this is usually administered:
A) mid-morning.
B) midday or early afternoon.
C) early evening.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that:
A) is used widely in the management of angina.
B) is relatively selective for cerebral blood vessels.
C) increases cardiac workload.
D) is most beneficial when it is administered prophylactically.
Q2) In the treatment of erectile dysfunction,phosphodiesterase inhibitors:
A) act to trigger the release of nitric oxide.
B) are used when the cause is psychological.
C) may interact negatively with organic nitrate therapy.
D) must be administered directly into the penis.
Q3) The cardiac glycoside digoxin is also known as:
A) digitalis.
B) ACE.
C) carvedilol.
D) captopril.
Q4) Which two factors can be the root cause of angina pectoris?
A)Vasospasm and atherosclerotic plaque
B)Vasodilation and atherosclerotic plaque
C)Vasospasm and hypolipidaemia
D)Vasodilation and hypolipidaemia
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Q1) The benefit of ________ for the treatment of thrombosis is that it is clot-specific,thereby reducing the risk of generalised haemorrhage.
A) warfarin
B) urokinase
C) streptokinase
D) tissue plasminogen activator
Q2) The benefits of enoxaparin over heparin include that it:
A) is less likely to cause thrombocytopaenia and is more effective in reducing mortality and myocardial infarction in unstable angina.
B) has a longer half-life requiring less frequent monitoring and is safer in pregnancy.
C) A and B.
D) neither A nor B.
Q3) When a tissue is injured,the process of clotting begins.Which statement is true about that process?
A)Thrombin forms prothrombin.
B)The process is dependent on intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.
C)Potassium ions play a crucial role in clotting.
D)Fibrin forms fibrinogen.
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Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid ototoxicity,intravenous (IV)frusemide must be injected no faster than 4 mg/min.If the dose ordered is 20 mg IV,how quickly can it be administered?
A) Over at least 5 minutes
B) Over at least 4 minutes
C) Over at least 12 seconds
D) Over at least 10 minutes
Q2) Urinary alkalisation is possible only if creatinine clearance is at what level?
A)At least 20 mL/min
B)At least 30 mL/min
C)No more than 30 mL/min
D)No more than 20 mL/min
Q3) Which diuretics promote the greatest diuresis?
A) Thiazides
B) Loop diurectics
C) Aldosterone inhibitors
D) Potassium-sparing diuretics
Q4) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The current optimal drug therapy in the management of heart failure is:
A) the cardiac glycoside digoxin.
B) the dopamine agonist dobutamine.
C) a non-selective \(\beta\)-blocker.
D) an ACE inhibitor and a diuretic.
Q2) To use ivabradine,the patient's heart rate must be at least ________ beats per minute.
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
Q3) Clients who have renal impairment are at risk of developing ________ during treatment with ACE inhibitors.
A) hypokalaemia
B) hyperkalaemia
C) hyponatraemia
D) hypernatraemia
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51
Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?
A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above
Q2) Which drug listed below is an example of a class III antidysrhythmic?
A)Dopamine
B)Amiodarone
C)Dobutamine
D)Atropine
Q3) Verapamil is a class IV antidysrhythmic agent.Verapamil belongs to what class of drug?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibitors
C) -blockers
D)Inotropic agents
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intravenous potassium should never be administered:
A) through a peripheral line.
B) through the subclavian vein.
C) as a bolus through the side arm of the intravenous line.
D) through the jugular vein.
Q2) Which patient would likely have the greatest amount of body fluid?
A)A middle-aged man
B)A teenage girl
C)A toddler
D)A premature infant
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment of severe hyperkalaemia?
A)Peritoneal dialysis
B)Intravenous frusemide
C)Oral ion exchange resin
D)Intravenous glucose with insulin given concurrently
Q4) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
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Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Q1) To reduce the gastric irritation associated with oral iron therapy,the person should be advised to take the preparation:
A) as a suppository.
B) with or immediately after meals.
C) at bedtime.
D) with an antacid.
Q2) Which of the follow is standard therapy in non-myeloid anaemia?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) Folic acid
C) Erythropoietin
D) Parenteral B<sub>12</sub>
Q3) The form of erythropoietin for clinical use:
A) may induce a hypertensive state during therapy.
B) is extracted from human urine.
C) induces a rise in haemoglobin levels within two days of starting therapy.
D) contains iron supplements in order to facilitate haemoglobin production.
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Q1) What is the mechanism of action of the respiratory stimulant doxapram?
A)It acts on the medulla.
B)It acts on the cerebellum.
C)It acts in the midbrain.
D)It acts in the cerebral cortex.
Q2) Which of the following actions will NOT reduce the effectiveness of acetylcysteine nebuliser solution used for the treatment of cystic fibrosis?
A) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and rubber
B) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and iron
C) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and copper
D) Diluting the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution with equal volumes of sodium chloride 0.9%
Q3) Drugs included in the class of leukotriene receptor antagonist include:
A)montelukast.
B)fexofenadine.
C)albuterol.
D) macular degeneration.
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Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Q1) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking:
A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q2) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes
Q3) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under ________ years of age.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
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56
Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ranitidine is an example of which class of medicines?
A) Proton pump inhibitor
B) H<sub>2</sub> antagonist
C) Antacid
D) Prostaglandin
Q2) Which of the following are considered adjuncts to peptic ulcer therapy? Select all that apply.
A) Belladonna alkaloids
B) Glycopyrrolate
C) Alginates
D) Ibuprofen
Q3) Prostaglandin analogues such as misoprostol are contraindicated in:
A) clients also receiving the NSAID aspirin.
B) pregnancy.
C) conjunction with alcohol consumption.
D) clients also receiving the NSAID indomethacin.
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Which condition might require a patient to need supplementation of pancreatic enzymes?
A) Peptic ulcer disease
B) Diabetes
C) Irritable bowel syndrome
D) Cystic fibrosis
Q2) Which of the following laxative groups is used for bowel preparation before a medical procedure?
A) Lubricants and stimulant laxatives
B) Faecal softeners and bulk-forming laxatives
C) Bulk-forming laxatives and lubricants
D) Irritant laxatives and selected osmotic laxatives
Q3) Which of the laxative groups acts directly on the wall of intestines to stimulate defecation?
A) Lubricants
B) Stimulant laxatives
C) Osmotic laxatives
D) Faecal softeners
Q4) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Q1) The advantage of domperidone over metoclopramide is that it:
A) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so it has more central side effects.
B) doesn't readily cross the blood-brain barrier so it has fewer central side effects.
C) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so a smaller dose is required for the same antiemetic effects.
D) is safe for pregnant women in the first trimester.
Q2) Which is true of the chemoreceptor trigger zone?
A) It is situated inside the blood-brain barrier.
B) It resides within the medulla.
C) It is a sensory relay area.
D) It controls vomiting but not nausea.
Q3) Which of the following antiemetic agents requires the person to take appropriate measures to protect themselves from sunlight?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Domperidone
D) Ondansetron
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following actions will NOT improve the management of regurgitation during enteral feeding?
A) Lower the head of the client's bed.
B) Avoid the use of hyperosmolar feeds.
C) Insert a fine-bore enteric tube.
D) Slow down the rate of infusion.
Q2) Parenteral solutions are usually prepared:
A) by the health facility kitchen staff.
B) onsite in the ward or clinical area.
C) ideally by the dietetics department.
D) under sterile conditions in the pharmacy.
Q3) Which diagnostic tests should be performed regularly on a patient receiving parenteral nutrition? Select all that apply.
A) Electrolytes
B) Glucose
C) Creatinine
D) Cholesterol
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pituitary hormones is a trophic hormone?
A) Prolactin
B) Oxytocin
C) Luteinising hormone
D) Growth hormone
Q2) What is the indication for clomiphene?
A) Contraception
B) Ovulatory failure
C) Treatment of ovarian cancers
D) Treatment of growth disorders
Q3) Bromocriptine is no longer recommended for inhibition of postpartum lactation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acromegaly is treated using:
A) lanreotide.
B) somatropin.
C) lisuride.
D) domperidone.
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) What purpose do \(\beta\)-blockers serve in treating thyroid disease?
A) They directly lower thyroid levels.
B) They are only used for well-controlled patients.
C) They are used to alleviate symptoms caused by adrenergic stimulation.
D) They have no clinical indication in treating thyroid disease.
Q2) Which one of the following physiological responses is not associated with thyroid hormones?
A) The facilitation of normal musculoskeletal growth
B) Glucose storage in the liver
C) The normal development of the nervous system
D) Normal lactation
Q3) Which of the following is true about the action of iodide solutions for hyperthyroid states?
A) High doses of iodide cause an immediate reduction in the release of thyroid hormone.
B) Iodide reduces the blood supply to the thyroid gland and makes it firmer.
C) Iodide has a long half-life and greatly reduces the release of thyroid hormone for up to one month.
D) Both A and B.
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the oral hypoglycaemic drug groups acts by inducing the release of endogenous insulin?
A) The thiazolidinediones
B) The glucosidase inhibitors
C) The sulfonylureas
D) The biguanides
Q2) Another medication besides insulin that is injected for treatment of types 2 diabetes is from the group of:
A) thiazolidinediones.
B) biguanides.
C) sulfonylureas.
D) incretin-enhancing agents.
Q3) A drug group that tends to raise blood glucose levels is the:
A) anabolic steroids.
B) oral contraceptives.
C) NSAIDs in high dosage.
D) monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Q1) A typical adverse effect profile of systemic corticosteroid therapy includes:
A) hyperkalaemia, gynaecomastia, skin rashes and menstrual disruption.
B) hot flushes, thromboembolism, leg cramps and gastrointestinal disturbances.
C) nausea, breast tenderness, hypotension and hypoglycaemia.
D) fluid retention, altered mood, altered blood pressure, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia and impaired wound healing.
Q2) Which of the following corticosteroids is classified as an intermediate-acting agent?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Dexamethasone
C) Prednisolone
D) Betamethasone
Q3) Which one of the following effects is not associated with adrenocorticoid hormones?
A) An increase in blood glucose levels
B) Sodium and water retention
C) The enhancement of immune processes
D) The distribution of body hair
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Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Q1) The SERM tamoxifen is used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
Q2) An adverse effect NOT associated with androgenic drug use is:
A) increased libido.
B) increased aggressiveness.
C) testicular hypertrophy.
D) liver disorders.
Q3) To ensure maximum efficacy for postcoital contraception,it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The AAS nandrolone may be used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about vitamin D?
A) Deficiency in the vitamin leads to an increase in bone mineralisation.
B) It is absorbed via the gastrointestinal system from vegetable products and some fish.
C) It is essential in the regulation of calcium and phosphorous in the body.
D) It can be made as long as the skin has enough exposure to UV rays.
Q2) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
Q3) Vitamin D deficiency may occur due to:
A) hypercalcaemia.
B) use of selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
C) inadequate sun exposure.
D) use of calcipotriol.
Q4) Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a serious adverse effect of which drug class?
A) Bisphosphonates
B) Calcimimetic agents
C) Monoclonal antibodies
D) Calcitonin
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) Prior to commencing probenecid for gout,it is important to inform the person that:
A) probenecid is inactivated by pigments in red food colouring, so they must abstain from foods containing red dye three days prior to commencement of therapy and throughout the course of therapy.
B) probenecid is likely to cause constipation.
C) ceasing oral analgesics is the best way to gauge the effect of a course of probenecid.
D) probenecid is a preventive treatment and should not be commenced while they have acute symptoms of gout.
Q2) A characteristic of gout is that:
A) it manifests as a form of arthritis.
B) it is more prevalent in women.
C) the risk of developing it can be reduced by eating foods such as sardines or offal.
D) it is not associated with any genetic predisposition.
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Q1) Stimulant anorectics are only recommended for short-term treatment of obesity for a period of up to ________ weeks.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 12
D) 24
Q2) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates feeding?
A) Serotonin
B) Noradrenaline
C) Peptide YY
D) Neuropeptide Y
Q3) Which of the following medications should not be used with the stimulant anorectic phentermine?
A) Amoxycillin
B) Tramadol
C) Paracetamol
D) Metformin
Q4) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) The actions of streptomycin and amikacin:
A) are considered first-line agents for tuberculosis.
B) are ineffective for the bactericidal phase.
C) interfere with protein synthesis.
D) are best mediated by the oral route.
Q2) Which of the following antimicrobial agents has a dose-dependent activity on microorganisms?
A) The glycoprotein vancomycin
B) The glycoprotein teicoplanin
C) The penicillin amoxycillin
D) The aminoglycoside gentamicin
Q3) Which of the following antimicrobial agents inhibits DNA replication?
A) Linezolid
B) Mupirocin
C) Colistin
D) Norfloxacin
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69
Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
Q2) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
Q3) Trimethoprim is best taken as a single daily dose:
A) in the morning.
B) at midday.
C) in the mid-afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) Quinolones are contraindicated in pregnant women and children for what reason?
A) They are ototoxic at small doses
B) They can permanently discolour teeth
C) They can damage developing joints permanently
D) They are only useful for Gram positive bacterium
Q2) Which one of the following antibacterial drug groups acts by inhibiting microbial cell wall synthesis?
A) Quinolones
B) Macrolides
C) Nitroimidazoles
D) Glycopeptide antibacterials
Q3) What lab values should be monitored when daptomycin is prescribed?
A) Potassium
B) Creatinine kinase
C) Phosphorous
D) Glucose
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Q1) In isoniazid treatment for tuberculosis,supplementation with ________ may be required:
A) niacin
B) riboflavin
C) thiamine
D) pyridoxine
Q2) An unusual consequence of rifampicin antituberculotic therapy is that:
A) faeces turn black.
B) faeces turn white.
C) urine turns red.
D) urine turns bright yellow.
Q3) A typical drug combination in the first-line treatment of leprosy is:
A) thalidomide and ofloxacin.
B) minocycline and prednisolone.
C) clofazimine and cycloserine.
D) dapsone and rifampicin.
Q4) A pregnant patient with Hansen's disease can be safely treated with thalidomide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Q2) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q3) What is the main difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) Antiseptics are for use on inanimate objects
B) Disinfectants are used on the human body
C) Antiseptics are used on the human body
D) Both can be used on either surface
Q4) What is the indication of topical silver preparations?
A) Burns
B) Acne
C) Eczema
D) Warts
Page 73
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) Which anthelmintic medication could also be classified as an antibiotic?
A) Ivermectin
B) Praziquantel
C) Tinidazole
D) Mefloquine
Q2) ________ should be assessed before and following a long-term course of therapy using chloroquine or its derivatives.
A) Liver enzyme levels
B) Visual acuity
C) Cardiac enzyme levels
D) Urea and creatinine levels
Q3) With which of the following antiparasitic agents should alcohol be strictly avoided in order to prevent a disulfiram-like reaction?
A) Paromomycin
B) Nitazoxanide
C) Metronidazole
D) Quinine
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Q1) The DNA polymerase inhibitor aciclovir can suppress the symptoms of several viral infections except:
A) chickenpox.
B) herpes type I.
C) measles.
D) Epstein-Barr infections.
Q2) The action of reverse transcriptase,the enzyme used by retroviruses,is:
A) transcription from DNA to RNA.
B) blockage of transcription.
C) increased transcription in the host cell.
D) lysis of the host cell.
Q3) The antiviral agents called neuraminidase inhibitors are useful in treating _________ infection.
A) HIV/AIDS
B) respiratory syncytial virus
C) herpes
D) influenza
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Q1) The benefit of combining PEG with interferon is:
A) the dose interval is reduced.
B) influenza-type symptoms are reduced.
C) it can be produced by recombinant DNA technology.
D) it increases the activity of interferon.
Q2) Tinea cruris is also known as:
A) athlete's foot.
B) ringworm.
C) onychomycosis.
D) jockstrap itch.
Q3) Tinea barbae affects the:
A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.
Q4) The antifungal amphotericin can be used:
A) topically, intravenously and in lozenge form.
B) intramuscularly, intrathecally and transdermally.
C) intramuscularly and intravenously.
D) topically and orally.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Q1) Anakinra is used in combination with what other medication for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) gold salts
B) methotrexate
C) NSAID
D) corticosteroids
Q2) The current hepatitis A vaccine is:
A) an inactivated virus.
B) a recombinant virus.
C) a capsular antigen.
D) a surface antigen.
Q3) A clinical use of colony stimulating factors is to treat:
A) neutropenia.
B) some forms of leukaemia.
C) renal cell carcinoma.
D) chronic hepatitis.
Q4) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are NOT Classic cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Colony stimulating factors
C) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents
D) Cell cycle-specific agents
Q2) Which of the following drug groups directly targets the intracellular cascade of reactions leading to proliferation and survival of cancerous cells?
A) S-phase inhibitors
B) Monoclonal antibodies
C) Radioactive samarium
D) Protein kinase inhibitors
Q3) Which of the following is a cell cycle specific cytotoxic drug group?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Vinca alkaloids
C) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogues
D) Cytotoxic antibiotics
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women of childbearing age should take which precaution with isotretinoin treatment?
A) Avoid sunscreen use.
B) Monitor iron levels.
C) Supplement with folate.
D) Ensure adequate contraception.
Q2) Which drug is absolutely prohibited in pregnancy?
A) Tetracycline
B) Azelaic acid
C) Metronidazole
D) Isotretinoin
Q3) Which of the following statements about the skin are true? Select all that apply.
A) It has three main layers.
B) The subcutaneous layer is the second layer.
C) It is the largest organ.
D) It helps regulate body temperature.
E) Melanocytes in the skin cause pigmentation.
Q4) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first-choice treatment for glaucoma is:
A) miotics.
B) -blockers.
C) sympathomimetic agents.
D) diuretics
Q2) Drugs related to the antiviral agent aciclovir are used in the management of ophthalmic conditions such as:
A) trachoma.
B) CMV-induced retinitis.
C) Candida albicans infection.
D) purulent bacterial infections.
Q3) Topical corticosteroids for use in inflammatory eye conditions should not be used for more than ________ week(s).
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) If a woman is using evening primrose oil for premenstrual syndrome,it should be consumed:
A) a few days before menstruation.
B) during menstruation.
C) all throughout the menstrual cycle.
D) the first four days following the onset of menstruation.
Q2) Ginkgo may help in improving the:
A) immune system.
B) circulation or blood flow to certain organs.
C) reproductive system.
D) excretory system.
Q3) Tea tree oil has been proven to have a therapeutic effect for people suffering from: A) acne.
B) vaginitis.
C) migraine headache.
D) osteoarthritis.
E) Breast cancer
Q4) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
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